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FOM Final Knowledge Exam > Quiz 2 Material > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Material Flashcards

1
Q

The elastic lamellae of the tunica media are produced by what type of cell?

A

Smooth muscle cells

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2
Q

While pericytes exercise control over capillary diameter, what structure has the controlling input?

A

Metarterioles

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3
Q

The tunica adventitia in both arteries and veins is a connective tissue composed of mainly what fibers?

A

Collagen fibers

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4
Q

The membranous portion of the interventricular septum consists of what two structures?

A

The endocardial cushions and the aorticopulmonary septum

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5
Q

Cardiac neural crest cells contribute significantly to what part of heart folding?

A

Division of the outflow tract

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6
Q

Which vessels exist in the umbilical cord?

A

2 umbilical arteries and 1 umbilical vein

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7
Q

The closure of which valves contribute to the S2 heart sound?

A

The semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic)

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8
Q

Which valves of the heart are attached to chordae tendinae?

A

The tricuspid and mitral valves

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9
Q

Where do visceral afferent neurons responsible for the heart synapse?

A

The dorsal horn gray matter of spinal cord levels T1-T4

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10
Q

What is an abnormal corrected QT interval in men and women?

A

Men: greater than 450 ms
Women: greater than 470 ms

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11
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis can be caused by RBC defects in what areas?

A

Ankyrin, spectrin, and/or Band3 protein

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12
Q

What is responsible for postsynaptic sympathetic innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, trachea, and bronchi?

A

The cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve

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13
Q

How much yellow marrow do infants have at birth?

A

None; all red marrow

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14
Q

What part of the primitive heart tube is termed the outflow tract?

A

The truncus arteriosus

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15
Q

During atrial partitioning the foramen secundum forms in the wall of what structure?

A

The septum primum

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16
Q

What does the endocardial cushion give rise to?

A

Atrial septation, membranous portion of the intraventricular septum, and left and right atrioventricular canals and valves

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17
Q

What is the role of neural crest cells in outflow tract partitioning?

A

Migration to create bulbar ridges to form spiral septum

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18
Q

Ventricular and outflow tract partitioning is completed when what event occurs?

A

The aorticopulmonary septum meets the interventricular septum

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19
Q

What is the round ligament of the liver?

A

The adult derivative of the umbilical vein

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20
Q

What are the two main effects of atrial natriuretic peptide?

A

To increase sodium excretion in the urine and to cause vasodilation in order to reduce blood pressure

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21
Q

What occurs during phase 4 of an AP for pacemaker cells?

A
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22
Q

What occurs during phase 0 of an AP for a pacemaker cell?

A
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23
Q

What occurs during phase 3 of an AP for pacemaker cells?

A
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24
Q

What occurs during phase 0 of the myocardial AP?

A

Rapid depolarization due to INa opening

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25
Q

What occurs during phase 1 of the myocardial AP?

A

Transient K+ channels AKA ITO

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26
Q

What occurs during phase 2 of the myocardial AP?

A
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27
Q

What occurs during phase 3 of the myocardial AP?

A

Delayed rectifier K+ channels AKA IK1

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28
Q

What occurs during phase 4 of the myocardial AP?

A

K+ leak AKA Ik1

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29
Q

In the case of myelofibrosis, which organs can participate in extramedullary hematopoeisis?

A

the liver and spleen

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30
Q

You would expect to see 100% cellularity of bone marrows in what age group?

A

newborns

31
Q

When a GTPase hydrolyzes GTP to GDP, is the GTPase activated or inactivated?

A

inactivated

32
Q

Would failure to surgically correct a patent ductus arteriosus result in an increase or decrease in pulmonary blood flow?

A

an increase in pulmonary blood flow

33
Q

What is one of the most prominent problems as a result of a cardiac tamponade?

A

Impaired ventricular filling during diastole

34
Q

In what area of the cardiac axis can deviation still be considered in the normal range?

A

-30 to 90 degrees

35
Q

What are the steps to finding the correct cardiac axis?

A
36
Q

What are additional steps that can be taken to specify the degrees of a cardiac axis?

A
37
Q

How do you identify LVH on an EKG?

A
38
Q

How would ischemia manifest on an EKG?

A

T-wave inversion

39
Q

How would subendocardial injury manifest on an EKG?

A

ST segment depression (NSTEMI)

40
Q

How would a transmural injury manifest on an EKG?

A

ST segment elevation (STEMI)

41
Q

What two vitamins are critical for DNA synthesis in RBC precursors?

A

Vitamin B9 (folate) and Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

42
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta caused by?

A

Defects in procollagen 1 fibers

43
Q

What is the dominant negative effect in genetics?

A

A product of a mutated gene affects or interferes with non-mutated normal gene products

44
Q

In Marfan syndrome, do missense or nonsense mutations have a more severe effect?

A

missense mutations due to the dominant negative effect

45
Q

What is locus heterogeneity?

A

The ability of mutations in different genes to cause the same disease phenotype

46
Q

What are signs/symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

decreased bone density, bowing bones, bone fractures, and blue sclerae

47
Q

What information in an EKG can suggest RVH?

A

In lead V1 R>S OR
In lead V6 S>R

48
Q

How is Cardiac output calculated?

A

CO = HR x SV

49
Q

How is mean arterial pressure calculated?

A

MAP = ((2 x DP) + SP) / 3

50
Q

How is total peripheral resistance calculated?

A

TPR = MAP / CO

51
Q

Where are continous capillaries found in the body?

A

skin, muscle, lungs, CNS

52
Q

Where are fenestrated capillaries found in the body?

A

renal glomeruli, endocrine glands, intestinal mucosa

53
Q

Where are sinusoidal capillaries found in the body?

A

liver, spleen, and bone

54
Q

What is the relationship between hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure during filtration?

A

Hydrostatic pressure > Oncotic pressure

55
Q

What is the relationship between hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure during absorption?

A

Oncotic pressure > Hydrostatic pressure

56
Q

Which immune cell contains NADPH oxidase?

A

neutrophils

57
Q

What are the dark granules in a neutrophil called? What do they indicate?

A

Toxic granulations; they indicate activation of the neutrophil

58
Q

In what organ is erythropoeitin made?

A

the kidneys

59
Q

In what organ is thrombopoeitin made?

A

the liver

60
Q

In hypoxic conditions what occurs in yellow bone marrow?

A

It can revert back to red bone marrow

61
Q

Stress on the immune system such as infection can cause an increase in immature leukocytes released into the blood stream. What is this called?

A

Left-shift

62
Q

What acronym can be used for the Erythrocyte developmental series? What does it stand for? After what point are precursor cells no longer mitotic?

A

PB & PORK

63
Q

What acronym can be used for the Granulocyte developmental series? What does it stand for? After what point are precursor cells no longer mitotic?

A

MPM-MBM

Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte

Meta-myelocyte
Band form
Mature form

64
Q

What are the 5 regions of the primitive heart tube?

A
65
Q

How many seconds is a ‘big’ box on an ECG? How about a ‘little’ box?

A
66
Q

What plane are the precordial heart leads set in?

A
67
Q

What is the best indicator of RVH on an ECG?

A
68
Q

What are two possible indicators of a myocardial infarction?

A

A Q or T wave inversion on ECG

69
Q

What are the 5 basic items to evaluate on an ECG?

A
70
Q

What areas of the body are drained by the thoracic lymphatic duct?

A

All but the right upper extremity and right side of the head

71
Q

Can female heterozygotes sometimes express X-linked recessive traits? How?

A

Yes, because X-linked inactivation can lead to moasaic somatic expression

72
Q

What are the ABCs of CXRs?

A

A- Airway
B- Bones/Breast shadow
C- Cardiac silhouette
D- Diaphragm
E- Effusions
F- Fields
G- Gastric
H- Hilum
I- Indwelling catheters

73
Q

Why does a patent ductus arteriosus result in long-term increased pulmonary blood flow?

A

The aortic pressure is higher than the pressure in the pulmonary arteries, causing backflow of additional blood

FOM Final Knowledge Exam (6 decks)

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