Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FOM Final Knowledge Exam > Quiz 3 Material pt 2 > Flashcards

Quiz 3 Material pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How can measured FEV and FVC obtained from spirometry differentiate obstruction from restriction?

A

Obstruction results in a lower FEV/FVC ratio, while restriction results in a proportional decrease in both FEV and FVC, with a normal ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Understand the following lung capacities pictured

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What two primary variables determine air resistance in a tube (used in airway resistance)?

A

length and radius of tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the two primary variables in calculating air resistance has a greater importance? Why?

A

radius, because mathematically it is raised to the 4th power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is blood flow/perfusion (Q) highest in the lung?

A

the base of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a normal V/Q ratio?

A

0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is dead space?

A

Area of the lung/airways that does not participate in gas exchange; V/Q = infinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between anatomic and physiologic dead space?

A

Anatomic is present in all humans and is about 150ml, physiologic is present in individuals with damaged alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a shunt?

A

Gas exchange is not possible due to lack of ventilation of area; V/Q = 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the paO2 and paCO2 of mixed venous blood?

A

paO2 = 40mmHg
paCO2 = 46mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the paO2 and paCO2 of systemic arterial blood?

A

paO2 = 100mmHg
paCO2 = 40mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Bohr effect associated with?

A

Increased CO2, decreased pH, increased temperature, and increased 2,3-DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Haldane effect?

A

When less O2 is bound to Hg, its affinity for CO2 will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What innervates the costal parietal pleura?

A

intercostal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What innervates the diaphragmatic parietal pleura?

A

the phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What innervates the mediastinal parietal pleura?

A

the phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What innervates the viscera parietal pleura?

A

visceral sensory nerves via the vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the pathology of pneumothorax?

A

Pressure in the lungs equalizes with the pleural space, causing lung collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the meaning of the acronym RALS?

A

RIGHT PA is ANTERIOR to bronchus, LEFT PA is SUPERIOR to bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What spinal cord levels provide sympathetic innervation of the lungs?

A

T1-T5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the postsynpatic nerve that innervates the lungs?

A

the cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

As AMP levels rise and activate AMPK, what is the effect on metabolism?

A

Catabolic metabolism is activated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are two main cellular effects of mitochondrial uncoupling?

A

Increased NADPH oxidation and O2 consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mechanism of mitochondrial uncoupling?

A

Since ATP generation is uncoupled from the ETC, cells will upregulate glycolysis, TCA, and ETC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What vitamin is necessary for NAD cofactor formation?

A

Niacin (vitamin B3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What vitamin is necessary for FAD cofactor formation?

A

Riboflavin (vitamin B2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What vitamin is necessary to make Coenzyme A?

A

Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What vitamin is necessary for a-ketoglurate dehydrogenase function?

A

Thiamine (vitamin B1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What two prominant conditions can result from vitamin B1 deficiency?

A

Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is Wernicke encephalopathy characterized?

A

confusion and loss of mental activity that can progress to coma and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is Korsakoff syndrome characterized?

A

Long term memory loss due to vitamin B1 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Referred pain from the phrenic nerve might appear in which dermatomes?

A

C3-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which pulmonary cell is most easily dysregulated and overactive in cases of chronic smoking?

A

alveolar macrophages (dust cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the pathology of RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)?

A

the virus binds to the epithelial cells and causes necrosis and ciliary dysfunction; inflammation leads to edema, and resistance to flow causes wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What characterizes emphysema?

A

large alveoli and increased compliance (large, deflated, and low elastic recoil)

36
Q

What are the two main functions of club cells in the lungs?

A

They act as respiratory exocrine cells, and can serve as stem cells to mitigate damage (they represent 80% of respiratory epithelium in bronchioles)

37
Q

Where does the sympathetic innervation of kidney arise from the spinal cord?

A

T10-T12

38
Q

What nerve supplies sympathetic innervation to the kidney?

A

The lesser or least splanchnic nerves

39
Q

What nerve supplies parasympathetic innervation to the kidney?

A

There is no PS innervation of kidney

40
Q

What two capillaries beds form the nephron portal system?

A

the glomerulus and the peritubular capillaries

41
Q

What is the name of the second capillary bed in juxtamedullary nephrons?

A

the vasa recta

42
Q

How much of the renal filtrate is absorbed back into the blood?

A

99%

43
Q

What are the two functioning parts of the countercurrent multiplier system?

A

TAL- allows for Na+ effluex into interstitium
DTL- allows for H2O to enter interstitial fluid

44
Q

What is the purpose of the vasa recta in the countercurrent exchange system?

A

To move Na+ from the TAL to the DTL interstitium, and H2O from the DTL interstitium to the TAL

45
Q

What is the ultimate effect of the RAAS system?

A

An increase in BP

46
Q

During what weeks does the Embryonic stage of pulmonary development take place?

A

Weeks 4-7

47
Q

What main events occur during the Embryonic stage of lung development?

A

Respiratory diverticulum -> tracheal growth -> esophagus and trachea separate -> lung buds form

48
Q

What main pathologies originate from the Embryonic stage of lung development?

A

TEF and EA

49
Q

During what weeks does the Pseudoglandular stage of pulmonary development take place?

A

Weeks 6-17

50
Q

What main events occur during the Pseudoglandular stage of lung develoment?

A

terminal bronchioles and capillary network forms -> inactive alveoli begin to form

51
Q

What main pathologies occur during the Pseudoglandular stage of lung development?

A

Potter’s sequence as well as diaphragmatic hernia

52
Q

During what weeks does the Canicular stage of pulmonary development take place?

A

Weeks 17-26

53
Q

What main events occur during the Canicular stage of lung development?

A

Respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts form, T1 and T2 pneumocytes appear

54
Q

During what weeks does the Saccular stage of pulmonary development take place?

A

Weeks 24-36

55
Q

What main events occur during the Saccular stage of lung development?

A

Surfactant production begins, and the blood/air barrier forms completely

56
Q

What main pathologies occur during the Saccular stage of lung development?

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

57
Q

During what weeks does the Alveolar stage of pulmonary development take place?

A

32 weeks to 8 years

58
Q

How does retinoic acid (Vitamin A) affect lung development?

A

Key for lung bud initiation Insufficient retinoic acid can lead to lung defects or pulmonary aplasia

59
Q

Branching morphogenesis of the lungs is dependent on what growth factor?

A

FGF

60
Q

Around what period does the pronephros first appear?

A

4 weeks

61
Q

What vitamin is pronephros formation dependent on?

A

Vitamin A

62
Q

For what period is the mesonephros present?

A

Weeks 5-16

63
Q

What induces the mesonephros to develop?

A

the mesonephric duct

64
Q

What critical structure appears during the mesonephros period?

A

the ureteric bud

65
Q

The Metanephros begins development at what week? Around what week does it finish?

A

Week 5; Week 10

66
Q

What are the two functional parts of the Metanephros?

A

the metanephric blastema and the ureteric bud

67
Q

What part of the nephron is formed by the metanephric blastema?

A

Bowman’s capsule through the DCT

68
Q

What part of the nephron is formed by fetal capillaries?

A

the glomerulus

69
Q

What part of the nephron is formed by the ureteric bud?

A

CT through the ureter (minor/major calyces and renal pelvis)

70
Q

What structure induces the ureteric bud to elongate and begin branching morphogenesis?

A

the metanephric blastema

71
Q

What is the function of Wilms Tumor 1 gene in nephrogenesis?

A

WT1 is required for maintenance of the blastema

72
Q

What is the function of retinoic acid in nephrogenesis?

A

ureteric bud formation

73
Q

What is the function of FGF in nephrogenesis?

A

stimulation of bud growth and branching

74
Q

Around what period do the kidneys relocate from a sacral to lumbar position?

A

6-9 weeks

75
Q

What is the main pathology of congenital hydronephrosis?

A

blockage of the ureter

76
Q

In a patient with an ectopic ureter where might dribbling of urine be found?

A

the vagina, rectum, etc.

77
Q

What is the net transaction of the phosphate buffer system in the nephron?

A

1 H+ secreted into tubular lumen for 1 HCO3 added into bloodstream

78
Q

What does an elevated ion gap mean?

A

That there are additional organic acids in the bloodstream acting to lower the pH

79
Q

The acronym MUDPILES is used to represent potential causes of elevated ion gap metabolic acidosis. What does it stand for?

A

Methanol, Uremia, Diabetic ketoacidosis, Paraldehyde or Paracetamol or Propylene glycol, Iron tablets, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates or Starvation ketoacidosis

80
Q

What are the potential causes of a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis (HARDASS)?

A

Hyperalimentation (tube feeds), Addison’s disease, Renal tubular acidosis, Diarrhea, Acetazolamide, Spironolactone, Saline infusion

81
Q

What are causes of acute/chonic respiratory acidosis?

A

Acute- airway obstruction, CNS depression to due drug overdose, pneumonia, pulmonary edema
Chronic- COPD, emphysema, CNS depression, NM impairment (ALS)

82
Q

What are causes of metabolic alkalosis?

A

Vomiting, diuretics, exogenous HCO3, excessive aldosterone

83
Q

What can cause respiratory alkalosis?

A

Acute- hyperventilation, salicylate intoxication or sepsis
Chronic- pregnancy, cirrhosis

84
Q

How could you calculate anion gap from lab results?

A

Na+ + HCO3 - Cl-

85
Q

When is an anion gap elevated?

A

When it is greater than 14

FOM Final Knowledge Exam (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions