Quiz 4 Flashcards

0
Q

Major Crossmatch Definition

A

Patient serum with donor RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What is the purpose of a crossmatch?

A
  1. Prevention of transfusion reactions

2. Assurance of maximum benefit to the patient from the transfused cells or component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does a major crossmatch test for?

A
  • *Detects antibodies in patient serum that may react with donor’s RBC antigen
  • *Detect some errors in ABO, labelling, and identification of donor and recipient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Minor Crossmatch Definition

A

Patient RBC with donor serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minor Crossmatch tests for…

A
  • *Detects donor antibody in plasma that may react with patient RBC antigen
  • *Detects some major blood group errors
  • *Detects a positive DAT of patient cells which may help in the diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the reasons for a crossmatch?

A
  1. Intrauterine and exchange transfusion
  2. Newborns
  3. Emergency
  4. Multiple transfusions
  5. Chronic transfusions
  6. Biological crossmatch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The crossmatch will NOT…

A
  1. Guarantee normal RBC survival once it is transfused
  2. Prevent patient from producing antibodies
  3. Detect all ABO group errors
  4. Detect all Rh errors unless D(-) with an anti-D
  5. Detect all clerical errors
  6. Detect antibody unless specific for donor antigen
  7. Detect antibody to platelets or white blood cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

O
A. First choice
B. Second Choice
C. Third Choice

A

A. O
B. -
C. -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A

  1. First choice
  2. Second Choice
  3. Third Choice
A
  1. A
  2. O
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

B

  1. First choice
  2. Second Choice
  3. Third Choice
A
  1. B
  2. O
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AB

  1. First choice
  2. Second Choice
  3. Third Choice
A
  1. AB
  2. A or B
  3. O
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A with anti-H

  1. First choice
  2. Second Choice
  3. Third Choice
A
  1. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A with anti-A

  1. First choice
  2. Second Choice
  3. Third Choice
A
  1. A
  2. O
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A2 with anti-H

  1. First choice
  2. Second Choice
  3. Third Choice
A
  1. A2B
  2. A2 or B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A2B with anti-A2

  1. First choice
  2. Second Choice
  3. Third Choice
A
  1. A2B
  2. A2 or B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Troubleshooting the problem crossmatch

A
  1. Human error: clerical or technical
  2. Patient medical history
  3. Initial test results
  4. Refer to compatibility diagrams
  5. Drugs
  6. WBC antigens shared with RBC
  7. Bacteria/virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Elution

A

Process by which antibody is attached to RBC in vivo and elution removes antibody from RBC

17
Q

Transfusion Reactions (most common)

A
  1. Intravascular hemolysis
  2. Extravascular hemolysis
  3. Febrile, nonhemolytic
18
Q

Intravascular hemolysis

A
  • Hemolysis activated by complement in the bloodstream
  • ABO blood group incompatibility
  • Immediate reaction
19
Q

Extravascular hemolysis

A
  • Seen in the spleen or liver
  • Complement not activated
  • Delayed reactions (days later)
  • IgGs usually
20
Q

When conducting a transfusion reaction investigation, what five specimens are needed?

A
  1. Pre-transfusion recipient specimen
  2. Post-transfusion recipient specimen
  3. Donor pilot sample
  4. Transfused pack with blood
  5. Post-transfusion urine
21
Q

Whole Blood

A
  1. Patient hemorrhage
  2. 42 days
  3. 1C to 6C
22
Q

Packed Red Blood Cells

A
  1. Hemorrhage or anemia or surgical blood loss
  2. 42 days
  3. 1C to 6C
23
Q

Buffy-coat Poor Red Cells

A
  1. Anemia with sensitivity to WBC
  2. 42 days
  3. 1C to 6C
24
Washed Red Cells
1. Anemia with sensitivity to WBC and/or plasma components 2. 24 hours 3. 1C to 6C
25
Frozen Red Blood Cells
1. Anemia with sensitivity to WBC 2. 10 years 3. < -65C
26
Thawed Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells
1. Anemia with sensitivity to WBC; transfusion to people with rare blood types 2. 2 weeks 3. 1C to 6C
27
Irradiated RBCs
Help prevents graft versus host disease
28
Albumin
1. Volume expander; burn patient 2. 3 years 4. Room temperature
29
Immune Serum Globulin
1. Hepatitis; agammaglobinemia; hypogammaglobinemia 2. 3 years 3. Room temperature
30
Platelets
1. Thrombocytopenia; bleeding 2. 5 days 3. 20C to 24C
31
Fresh Frozen Plasma
1. Coagulation deficiencies 2. 1 year 3. -18C
32
Cryopercipitate
1. Hemophiliacs, Factor VIII, DIC 2. 1 year 3. -18C
33
Leukocyte Concentrate
1. Severe Leukopenia 2. 24 hours 3. 20C-24C
34
What is the most common incompatibility of hemolytic disease of a newborn?
ABO blood group
35
What is the symptom of HDN when there is an ABO incompatibility?
*Mild anemia | *
36
What are the clinical features of HDN?
* Jaundice * Anemia * Edema * Death * Kernicterus
37
What tests are done to detect HDN?
* ABO * Rh * DAT (cord/eluates) * Bilirubin * Hemoglobin
38
What are the treatments for HDN?
* Exchange transfusion * Transfusion * Phototherapy * Intrauterine transfusion * Early induction of labor * RhoGAM therapy within 72 hours
39
Who is NOT a RhoGAM candidate?
1. Rh negative mother who has anti-D 2. Rh negative mother with Rh negative baby 3. Rh positive women or D positive women
40
MicroRhoGAM
Prevents antibody formation after miscarriage or abortion up to 12 weeks
41
Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM)
Artificial passive immunization with anti-D immunoglobulin