quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q

When DNA is transferred into a prokaryotic cell, it may
A. be degraded by enzymes.
B. replicate independent of the host chromosome.
C. recombine with the host chromosome.
D. be degraded by enzymes, replicate independent of the host chromosome, or recombine with the host chromosome.

A

D. be degraded by enzymes, replicate independent of the host chromosome, or recombine with the host chromosome.

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1
Q

Which of the following is FALSE of competence?
A. it is required for transformation.
B. it commonly occurs with high efficiency in nature.
C. it cannot occur naturally in bacteria.
D. some bacteria strains may require and chilling to make them competent.

A

B. it commonly occurs with high efficiency in nature.

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2
Q

Hfr strains of Escherichia coli
A. do not possess an F factor.
B. have the F factor as a plasmid.
C. have an integrated F factor.
D. transfer the complete F factor to recipient cells at a high frequency

A

C. have an integrated F factor.

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3
Q

The uptake of free DNA from the environment is referred to as ________, while the transfer of DNA with cell-to-cell contact is known as ________.
A. transformation / conjugation
B. transduction / conjugation
C. conjugation / transformation
D. transformation / transduction

A

A. transformation / conjugation

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4
Q

The SOS system repairs DNA that has gaps, breaks, and other lesions by
A. cutting DNA from other parts of the genome and pasting it into the gaps or damaged areas.
B. stabilizing single-stranded DNA until the next round of normal replication.
C. using specialized DNA polymerases that will synthesize a new DNA strand even if thereis not a normal complementary DNA strand to act as a template.
D. using available mRNA and a special RNA-dependent DNA polymerase to fill in the gaps and replace damaged DNA.

A

C. using specialized DNA polymerases that will synthesize a new DNA strand even if thereis not a normal complementary DNA strand to act as a template.

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5
Q

The mutagens 2-aminopurine and 5-bromouracil are examples of
A. alkylating agents.
B. nucleotide base analogs.
C. chemicals reacting with DNA.
D. none of the answers are correct.

A

B. nucleotide base analogs.

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6
Q

The killing of cells by UV irradiation involves
A. absorption at 260 nm by proteins only.
B. absorption at 260 nm by RNA only.
C. formation of pyrimidine dimers.
D. formation of purine dimers.

A

C. formation of pyrimidine dimers.

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7
Q

Consider a mutation in which the change is from UAC to UAU. Both codons specify the amino acid tyrosine. Which type of point mutation is this?
A. silent mutation
B. nonsense mutation
C. missense mutation
D. frameshift mutation

A

A. silent mutation

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8
Q

All mutations result in visible phenotypes.
T/F

A

F

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9
Q

Regulation of enzyme activity by phosphorylation or methylation occurs
A. at the start of transcription.
B. at the start of translation.
C. posttranslationally.
D. at any point on the enzymatic production pathway.

A

C. posttranslationally.

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10
Q

Attenuation is a type of regulation that can control
A. allosteric enzyme activity.
B. transcriptional activity exclusively.
C. translational activity exclusively.
D. both transcriptional and translational activity

A

B. transcriptional activity exclusively.

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11
Q

How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?
A. by other riboswitches
B. metabolite binding can change its structure.
C. sigma factor binding alters its structure.
D. small RNA complementary binding disrupts its function.

A

B. metabolite binding can change its structure.

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12
Q

All of the following are functions of heat shock proteins in bacteria EXCEPT
A. prevention of inappropriate protein subunit aggregation.
B. degradation of denatured proteins.
C. responding to exposure to high levels of ethanol.
D. stimulation of binary fission.

A

D. stimulation of binary fission.

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13
Q

Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by an enzyme called ________ which is involved in ________.
A. adenylate cyclase / catabolite repression
B. adenylate cyclase / transcriptional activation
C. cAMP receptor protein (CRP) synthase / catabolite repression
D. cAMP receptor protein (CRP) synthase / transcriptional activation

A

A. adenylate cyclase / catabolite repression

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14
Q

Phosphorylation of ________ regulates which direction a flagellum rotates, thus controlling whether an organism runs or tumbles.
A. CheAW
B. CheB
C. CheY
D. CheZ

A

C. CheY

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15
Q

Infection by the foodborne pathogen E coli O157:H7 involves all of the following host and pathogen signaling molecules EXCEPT
A. AI-3.
B. MCP.
C. epinephrine.
D. norepinephrine.

A

B. MCP.

16
Q

A common structure for proteins that bind DNA is helix-turn-helix.
T/F

A

T

17
Q

Which type of regulator(s) specifically binds to operator regions of DNA?
A. activators
B. activators and inducers
C. repressors
D. repressors and corepressors

A

C. repressors

18
Q

________ pathways typically rely on ________ proteins to inhibit mRNA synthesis.
A. anabolic / repressor
B. catabolic / repressor
C. anabolic / activator
D. catabolic /activator\

A

A. anabolic / repressor

19
Q

When more than one operon is under the control of a single regulatory protein, the operons are collectively called a(n)
A. regulon.
B. operator.
C. autoinduce.
D. riboswitch.

A

A. regulon.

20
Q

Regarding the lac operon, which of the following is false under conditions of low (or no) lactose?
A. the RNA polymerase cannot transcribe structural genes
B. the repressor is bound to the operator
C. is not bound to the repressor
D. RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter

A

D. RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter

21
Q

Chemotaxis in bacteria occurs through the use of
A. adaptation.
B. quorum sensing.
C. autoinduction.
D. a modified two-component system.

A

D. a modified two-component system.

22
Q

A mutant that has a nutritional requirement for growth is an example of a(n)
A. autotroph.
B. auxotroph.
C. heterotroph.
D. organotroph

A

B. auxotroph.

23
Q

Which bacterial strain is typically used in the AMES test?
A. staphylococcous aureus
B. bacillus subtilis
C. e.coli
D. samonella typhimurium

A

D. samonella typhimurium

24
Q

Genetic recombination involving insertion sequences typically results in what type of mutation?
A. frameshift mutation
B. silent mutation
C. base-pair deletion mutation
D. base-pair substitution mutation

A

A. frameshift mutation