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Anatomy > Quiz 1 lecture quiz > Flashcards

Quiz 1 lecture quiz Flashcards

1
Q

What is another name for the Calcaneus ?

A

Fibulo-tarsal bone (because the Calcaneus articulates on the lateral side with the fibula)

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2
Q

The extensor groove is located on where on the Tibia?

A.) Lateral side of the tibial tuberosity
B.) The Tibial Plataeu
C.) Medial side of tibial tuberosity
D.) Along the medial malleolus

A

A) Lateral side of the tibial tuberosity

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3
Q

The distal articulation between the Tibia and Fibula can be classified as what type of joint?

A.) Simple synovial joint
B.) Gliding joint
C.) Syndesmosis
D.) Plane joint

A

C.) Syndesmosis

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4
Q

T/F The distal row of the tarsal bones makes direct contact with the metatarsal bones?

A

True

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5
Q

How many tarsal bones are there located in the dog?

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

A

C) 7

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6
Q

Which tarsal bone lies within both the middle and distal rows?

A) 1st
B) 2nd
C) 3rd
D) 4th

A

D) 4th tarsal bone

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7
Q

What is a trochlea?

A) A pulley-like groove or surface
B) A knuckle-like projection located at the end of a bone
C) A larger prominence or surface for muscular attachment
D) A small bony projection

A

A) A pulley-like groove or surface

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8
Q

The proximal row of the tarsus is formed by which two bones?

A.) Calcaneus and Fibular
B) Tarsus and medial tarsal bone
C) Calcaneus and Talus
D) Talus and Fibulartarsal bone

A

C) Calcaneus (Fibulotarsal bone) and Talus (Tibiotarsal bone)

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9
Q

Where is the groove or passage for the deep digital flexor tendon also known as the Sustentaculum tali located?

A) The cranial aspect of the talus
B) Along the lateral malleolus of the fibula
C) Along the medial malleolus of the tibia
D) The caudal surface of the calcanean groove

A

D.) The caudal surface of the calcanean groove

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10
Q

How many metatarsal bones are there in a normal dog?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 7

A

A) 4

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11
Q

The bases of both metacarpal and metatarsal bones are located at which end?

A) Proximal end
B) Distal end
C) the shaft or middle area of the bone

A

A) Proximal end

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12
Q

Proximal sesamoid bones of the metacarpals and metatarsal bones are located where?

A) the head of the metatarsal and metacarpal bones
B) the head of the distal phalanx
C) the proximal interphalangeal bone
D) the distal interphalangeal joint

A

A) the head of the metatarsal and metacarpal bones

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13
Q

The pelvic symphysis can be divided into two parts which are?

A) cranial symphysis and caudal symphysis
B) Medial and lateral symphysis
C) Pubic symphysis and ishial symphysis
D) Iliatic symphysis and pubic symphysis

A

C) Pubic symphysis and ishial symphysis

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14
Q

From a dorsal view of the pelvic girdle, the pubis is located more _____ whereas the ischium is located more _____.

A) Lateral, Medial
B) Cranial, Caudal
C) Medial, Lateral
D) Lateral, Cranial

A

C) Medial, Lateral

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15
Q

The gluteal surface of the ____ is located on the _____ surface.

A) Ischium, Medial
B) Ischium, Lateral
C) Ilium, Medial
D) Ilium, Lateral

A

D) Ilium, Lateral

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16
Q

The tendon of the internal obturator runs over the ______.

A) iliatic notch
B) lesser ischiatc notch
C) greater ischiatic notch
D) wing of the ilium

A

B) lesser ischiatic notch

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17
Q

The ligament which runs across the acetabular notch is known as the ______.

A) acetabular ligament
B) oblique acetabular ligament
C) transverse acetabular ligament
D) ventral acetabular ligament

A

C) transverse acetabular ligament

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18
Q

The ______ border of the scapula appears slightly rough compared to the others, this is to better serve as an attachment for muscles.

A) caudal
B) dorsal
C) cranial
D) ventral

A

B) dorsal

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19
Q

The _____ process is located at the ____ end of the spine of the scapula.

A) coracoid, proximal
B) acromion, distal
C) coracoid, distal
D) acromion, proximal

A

B) acromion, distal

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20
Q

The coracoid process of the scapula is located on the ____ side of the ______.

A) Medial, Supraglenoid tubercle
B) Lateral, Supraglenoid tubercle
C) Medial, Infraglenoid tubercle
D) Lateral, infraglenoid tubercle

A

A) Medial, Supraglenoid tubercle

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21
Q

The deltoid tuberosity is located on the ____ aspect of the humerus.

A.) Lateral
B) Medial

A

A) Lateral

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22
Q

The tendon of _____ runs through the intertubercular groove of the humerus. This groove is also called ____ groove.

A.) Brachialis, Brachialis
B) Brachialis, Biceps
C) Biceps Brachii, Bicipital
D) Triceps Brachii, Tricipial

A

C) Biceps Brachii, Bicipital

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23
Q

The teres major tuberosity is located on the ____ aspect of the humerus.

A.) Medial
B.) Lateral

A

A) Medial

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24
Q

The _____ epicondyle of the humerus can also be known as the functional condyle of the humerus due to being the attachment site for the flexor muscle tendons.

A.) Medial
B). Lateral

A

A.) Medial

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25
Q

The joints between the distal and proximal ends of the radius and ulna are classified as:

A) Simple synovial joint
B) Compound synovial joint
C) Plane joint
D) Gliding joint

A

B) Compound synovial joint

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26
Q

The styloid process of the radius can also be known as ____ styloid process; whereas, the styloid process of the ulna can also be known as the ______ styloid process.

A. Lateral, Medial
B) Cranial, Caudal
C) Caudal, Cranial
D) Medial, Lateral

A

D) Medial, Lateral

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27
Q

The insertion for all of the four heads of the triceps Brachii muscle is known as the ______.

A.) Anconeal process
B) Trochlear notch
C) olecranon tuberosity
D) Medial coronoid process

A

C) Olecranon tuberosity

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28
Q

T/ F The ulnar carpal bone is formed by the fusion of two bones?

A

False (radial carpal bone is a fusion of intermediate radial carpal bone and radial carpal bone)

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29
Q

T/F The ulnar carpal bone articulates with the accessory carpal bone?

A

True

30
Q

T/F The superficial digital flexor tendon flexes 4 digits at the carpometacarpal, metacarpophalangeal, proximal and distal interphalangeal joints

A

False, only DDF flexes the distal interphalangeal joint

31
Q

What is the basic definition of anatomy?

A

The study of the form, disposition, and structure of the tissues and organs that compromise the body.

32
Q

Which branch of anatomy deals clinical practice, diagnosis surgery’s radiography, etc.

A

APPLIED (clinical ) anatomy

33
Q

A plane is defined as:

A

A surface, real or imaginary, by which any three points can be connected by a straight line.

34
Q

The four major planes which divide the animal body include the:

A

1) Median- left and right equally
2) Sagittal-unequal left and right halves
3) Dorsal- divides into dorsal and ventral (upper and lower)
4) Transverse- divides into front and back (cranial and caudal)

35
Q

Directional terms of the manus would be referred to as _____ and _____ , whereas, terms of the pes would be ____ and _____.

A) Dorsal, Palmar, Ventral, Plantar
B) Ventral, Palmar, Dorsal, Plantar
C) Dorsal, Plantar, Dorsal Palmar
D) Dorsal Palmar, Dorsal, Plantar

A

D) Dorsal, Palmar, Dorsal, Plantar

36
Q

A _____ is any part of the body that is organized.

A

Organ

37
Q

The four major categories of tissues are:

A

1) Epithelial
2) Connective
3) Muscular
4) Nervous

38
Q

Examples of loose connective tissue include:

1) Areolar, Adipose, Reticular, Superficial fascia
2) Ligaments and Tendons
3) Bone
4) Cartilage and deep fascia

A

1) Areolar, Adipose, Reticular, Superficial fascia

39
Q

T/F A disadvantage of superfcicial fascia is that infections are able to spread more easily.

A

True

40
Q

T/F Deep fascia separates muscles into groups, maybe serve as attachment sites for muscles, and is relatively impermeable.

A

True

41
Q

A type of modified thick deep fascia which holds the tendons in place is known as:

A) Ligament
B) Aponeurosis
C) Retinaculum
D) Muscle

A

C) Retinaculum

42
Q

T/F Cartilage is primarily avascular.

A

True ( Nutrients and O2 are supplied by diffusion from other tissues)

43
Q

A type of resilient connective tissue that if flexible, but rigid and able to withstand weight bearing mechanisms is known as:

A) Loose connective tissue
B) Bone
C) Retinaculum
D) Cartilage

A

D) Cartilage

44
Q

T/F Muscle contraction does not require energy?

A

False, requires ATP to break myosin bond before each new contraction.

45
Q

T/F The tail of the muscle is also known as the caput.

A

False- it is known as the cauda, the head is known as the caput and the belly is known as the venter

46
Q

T/F Spongy bone is present only along the epiphysis and metaphysics of bones.

A

True

47
Q

The main source of blood supply to the bone is known as the:

A) Metaphyseal artery
B) Epiphyseal artery
C) Nutrient artery
D) Diaphyseal artery

A

C) Nutrient artery

48
Q

T/F Cortical circulation is centrifugal from the inside to the outside.

A

True

49
Q 
An example of a splanchnic or visceral bone that forms within the organ is: 
A) Intervertebral disc
B) Hyoid bone
C) os penis
D) Mastoid process
A

C) os penis

50
Q

A small articulate surface that is usually flat or slightly concave in nature is known as a:

A) Tubercle
B) Facet
C) Process
D) Lamina

A

B) Facet

51
Q

A small pit or cuplike depression in a bone is known as a :

A) Fovea
B) Foramen
C) Facet
D) Tuberosity

A

A) Fovea

52
Q

An elongated depression on any bone is known as a:

A) Fossa
B) Crest
C) Line
D) Sulcus

A

D) Sulcus

53
Q

T/F A trochanter is a very large prominence on a bone, is always non-articulate and its main purpose is to serve for muscle attachment

A

True

54
Q

The pectoral girdle consists of the :

A) Scapula, clavicle, humerus
B) Scapula and humerus
C) Scapula and clavicle
D) Humerus and clavicle

A

C) Scapula and clavicle

55
Q

T/F The main function of the carpal bones arranged in 2 distinct rows is to absorb concussions.

A

True

56
Q

The acromion process in cats has a downward extension known as the _______ process and one to the side known as the _______ process.

A) acromion hamate, coracoid
B) Supra hamate, acromion hamate
C) Acromion hamate, Supra hamate
D) hamate, supracondylar

A

C) Acromion hamate, Supra hamate

57
Q

In cats, the supracondylar foramen allows passage for _____ and _____

A) brachial artery and median nerve
B) bicipital artery and median nerve
C) brachial artery and accessory nerve
D) bicipital artery and radial nerve

A

A) brachial artery and median nerve

58
Q

The type of anatomy that deals with the study of ligaments is ______.

A) arthrology
B) synarthrology
C) syndesmosis
D) tendonology

A

C) syndesmosis

59
Q

A fibrous joint in which the medium is fibrous connective tissue with a short, direct, and often transitory articulation is known as a ______. (Give an example)

A) simple joint
B) Synarthrosis
C) gliding joint
D) pivot joint

A

B) synarthrosis

Bones of the skull

60
Q

An example of a syndesmosis is ______

A) the bones of the skull
B) the proximal articulation between tibia and fibula
C) the distal articulation between the tibia and fibula
D) the distal articulation between radius and ulna

A

C) the distal articulation between the tibia and fibula

61
Q

____ sutures appear to be “stitched together,” whereas, _______ sutures appear to be overlapping at a slanted angle at their articulation.

A) flat, suture
B) suture, flat
C) squamous, suture
D) suture, squamous

A

D) suture, squamous

62
Q

Hyaline cartilage is classified as a _____ joint or also known as a _____.

A) primary, synchondrosis
B) secondary, synchondrosis
C) Primary, amphiarthrosis
D) secondary, amphiarthrosis

A

A) primary, synchondrosis

63
Q

Fibrocartilagenous joint can also be classified as a _____ joint or also known as a _____.

A) primary, synchrondrosis
B) secondary, synchrondrosis
C) Primary amphiarthrosis
D) secondary, amphiarthrosis

A

D) secondary, amphiarthrosis

64
Q

Joint capsules are comprised of:

A) dense regular connective tissue
B) dense irregular connective tissue
C) loose connective tissue
D) areolar tissue

A

B) dense irregular connective tissue

65
Q

The four components of a snyovial or diarthrodial joint are:

A

1) joint capsule
2) joint cavity
3) synovial fluid
4) articular cartilage

66
Q

An example of an ellipsoidal joint is ___

A) the elbow
B) the carpometacarpal
C) “yes,” joint of the atlas and the base of skull
D) “no,” joint between atlas and axis

A

C) “yes,” joint of the atlas and the base of skull

67
Q

The joint classified as a “ true joint of the extremities,” is also known as:

A) Fibrous joint
B) Synovial joint or diarthrosis
C) Gomphosis
D) Ellipsoidal nerve

A

B) Synovial Joint of Diarthrosis

68
Q

The type of joint that rotates around the long axis of a bone is known as a :

A) ball and socket
B) Hinge
C) Pivot
D) Ellipsoidal

A

C) Pivot joint

69
Q

T/F The difference between a spehroidal (ball and socket joint) and an ellipsoidal joint is that an ellipsoidal joint may be limited to only biracial movements, rotation and circumduction may not be permitted.

A

True

70
Q

How many muscles are responsible for attaching the forelimb to the trunk (extrinsic muscles)?

A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10

A

B) 8

71
Q

Which of the joints below is isolated from the others.

A) carpo-metacarpal
B) metacarpal-phalangeal
C) antebrachiocarpal
D) middle carpal

A

C) antebrachiocarpal joint

72
Q

An example of a cup-shaped cavity also known as a cotyloid is:

A) Acetabular cavity
B) radial fossa
C) trochlear notch
D) genual cavity

A

A) acetabular cavity

Anatomy (7 decks)

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