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MNT 1 > Quiz 1 - CVD Part 2 & 3 > Flashcards

Quiz 1 - CVD Part 2 & 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What invasive test injects dye into the arteries to allow for radiographic images of the heart to be seen?

A

Angiography (Cardiac Catheterization)

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2
Q

Electrocardiograms, treadmill stress tests, thallium scans, and an echocardiography are all examples of

A

noninvasive tests

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3
Q

A desirable Total cholesterol level for adults is less than ______mg/dL

A

200mg/dL

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4
Q

A desirable LDL cholesterol for adults is less than _____mg/dL and less than 100mg/dL for those with 2 or more risk factors

A

130mg/dL

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5
Q

A desirable HDL cholesterol for adults is higher than ______mg/dL

A

40mg/dL

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6
Q

A desirable triglyceride level for adults is less than _____ mg/dL

A

150mg/dL

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7
Q

What protein is synthesized in the liver as the acute-phase response to inflammation and elevated levels of >3mg/dL

A

C-reactive Protein CRP

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8
Q

What is characterised by atherosclerotic lesion disruption with superimposed thrombus formation, is the major cause of acute coronary syndromes (ACS) and cardiovascular death?

A

atherothrombosis

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9
Q

What type of medicine binds bile acids in the gut?

A

Bile Acid Sequestrants

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10
Q

Welchol and Colestid are two types of ______

A

Bile Acid Sequestrants

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11
Q

What type of medicine inhibits rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG CoA Reductase Inhibitors

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12
Q

HMG CoA Reductase Inhibitors have two medicines, Lipitor and _______

A

Crestor

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13
Q

What type of medicine inhibits production of VLDL in the liver

A

Fibric Acid Derivatives

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14
Q

Tricor and Anatara are two types of _______

A

Fibric Acid Derivatives

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15
Q

What type of medicine inhibits reabsorption of Na and Cl front the distal convoluted tube in the kidneys?

A

Thiazide Diuretics

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16
Q

Hydrocholorothiazide and ________ are two types of Thiazide Diuretics

A

Chlorothiazide

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17
Q

What diuretics is used to treat HTN and edema, but may cause loss of potassium and increased blood uric acid?

A

Thiazide Diuretics

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18
Q

What type of medicine acts on the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit the reabsorption of Na?

A

Loop Diuretics

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19
Q

Bumetanide and _______ are two types of Loop Diuretics

A

Lasix

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20
Q

Loop Diuretics are used to treat edema associated with CHF, renal, or _______ disease

A

hepatic

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21
Q

What kind of medicine does not promote the secretion of Potassium into urine and is used along other drugs to treat HTN and CHF?

A

Potassium Sparing Diuretics

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22
Q

Spironolactone and ______ are two types of potassium sparing diuretics

A

Amioloride

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23
Q

Potassium Sparing Diuretics may increase thirst and cause dehydration, and decrease weigh. While taking this avoid excessive _______ intake

A

K

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24
Q

What type of medicine blocks the action of epinephrine and norepinephrine on Beta-adrengic receptors?

A

Beta blockers

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25
Q

Beta blockers are used to manage cardiac arrhythmias, cardioprotection after a heart attack and HTN. Two types of medicine are Propranolol and ______

A

Atenolol

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26
Q

What type of medicine block conversion of angiotensin | to angiotensin || that include symptoms of persistent dry couch and may increase Vit K?

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACE)

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27
Q

Benezapril and Ramipril are two types of ______

A

ACE Inhibitors

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28
Q

What type of medicine inhibits angiotensin || from interacting with receptor, and is used for patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors?

A

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers

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29
Q

Two types of Angiotensin Receptor Blockers include _______ and Valsartan

A

Candesartan

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30
Q

What type of medicine disrupts the calcium ion from moving through the calcium channel and lowers intracellular calcium?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

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31
Q

What are two types of non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?

A

Diltiazem and Verapamil

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32
Q

What medicine is used to treat HTN, control heart rate, prevent cerebral vasospasm, and reduce chest pain?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

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33
Q

What medicine inhibits lipoprotein synthesis?

A

Nicotinic Acid

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34
Q

Two types of Nicotinic Acid are Niacor and ________

A

Niaspan

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35
Q

596,577 people died from _____ in 2010

A

Heart Diseases

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36
Q

CVD kills one 1 in every ____

A

2.9

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37
Q

Every _____ seconds someone has a coronary event

A

25

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38
Q

Blood lipids are distiquished by composition, size, and _____

A

Density

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39
Q

Blood lipids + protein = _____

A

Lipoproteins

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40
Q

Chylomicrons, VLDL, LDL, HDL all make up ____

A

Lipoproteins

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41
Q

Lipoproteins transport lipid to cells and have a role in energy, _____, and substrate for synthesis for other compounds.

A

Storage

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42
Q

What tests the electrical activity of the heart?

A

Electrocardiograms

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43
Q

What tests the electrical activity during exercise?

A

Treadmill stress test

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44
Q

What type of scan produces images of heart muscle that shows CAD and blockages in arteries?

A

Thallium scans

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45
Q

What is a sonogram of the heart?

A

Echocardiography

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46
Q

What test creates pictures of the heart and shows smaller lessons of heart, progression of atheroscerosis, & regression of atheroscerosis following treatment?

A

MRI

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47
Q

A tomography uses an electron beam to measure the ______ in coronary arteries

A

calcium

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48
Q

A group of interrelated diseases that include coronary heart disease, atherosclerosis, hypertension, ischemic heart disease, peripheral vascular disease, and heart failure is _______

A

Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)

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49
Q

What disease involves the narrowing of small vessels that oxygenate the heart muscle?

A

Coronary Heart Disease (CHD)

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50
Q

Myocardial Infarction (MI) aka

A

Ischemia

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51
Q

When blood flow to a part of your heart is blocked for a long enough time that part of the heart muscle is damaged or dies is a heart attack or _____

A

myocardial infarction

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52
Q

The process easing to development of atherosclerosis is _______

A

atherogenesis

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53
Q

The narrowing and loss of elasticity in the blood vessel wall caused by accumulation of plaque is ____________

A

Atherosclerotic Heart Disease (ASHD)

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54
Q

What fibrin layer produces enzymes that cause the artery to enlarge over time?

A

Atheroma

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55
Q

When atheromas rupture or break off they form a _____

A

Thrombus

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56
Q

A blood lipid profile of high LDL’s and low HDL’s that increases the risk of developing atherosclerosis is _____

A

Dyslipidemia

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57
Q

What is the primary cholesterol carrier that is associated with atherolscerosis?

A

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

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58
Q

What removes cholesterol form arterial walls to liver, and is associated with low levels of chylomicrons, VLDL remnants, and Small dense LDL’s?

A

high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

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59
Q

Hardening of the arteries

A

Atherosclerosis

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60
Q

What are the largest particles that transport dietary fat and cholesterol from the small intestine to the liver and periphery?

A

Chylomicrons

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61
Q

What protein carries lipids in the blood and also controls the metabolism of the lipid protein molecule?

A

Apolipoproteins

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62
Q

Particles that are synthesized in the liver to transport endogenous triglycerides and cholesterol are _______

A

Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)

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63
Q

a group of risk factors that occur together and increase the risk for coronary artery disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes is ______

A

Metabolic syndrome

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64
Q

disorder of high LDL cholesterol that is passed down through families (monogenic) and results in a coronary event before 65yoa is_______

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia (FM)

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65
Q

what is a sign of someone having familial hypercholesterolemia?

A

xanthomas

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66
Q

A disorder in which two or more family members have serum LDL cholesterol or triglyceride levels above the 90th% is ______

A

Familial combined hyperlipidemia (FCHL)

67
Q

Old age, hypothyroidism, obesity, diabetes, and other lipodemias are risk factors that have to be present to have _______

A

Familial Dysbetalipoproteinemia

68
Q

What diet is suggested for primary and secondary prevention of CHD?

A

Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) Diet

69
Q

What amino acid metabolite of methionine is a risk factor?

A

Homocysteine

70
Q

Poor Diet Quality, Physical inactivity, Stress, and tobacco use are all _____

A

Modifiable Lifestyle Factors

71
Q

Diabetes, Hypertension, Metabolic Syndrome, Obesity are all _____

A

Controllable Risk Factors

72
Q

Age/Sex, Family History/Genetics, Menopausal Status are all _____

A

Nonmodifiable Risk Factors

73
Q

What is the primary intervention for patients with elevated LDL cholesterol?

A

Medical Nutrition Therapy

74
Q

What is produced in the hydrogenation process used int eh food industry to increase shelf life of foods and to make margarines, made from oil, firmer?

A

Trans-fatty acids

75
Q

Monounsaturated Fatty Acids aka

A

Oleic Acid

76
Q

What is rich in chylomicrons, VLDL’s and other metabolic remnants?

A

Triglycerides (TG)

77
Q

LDL, HDL, and VLDL make up

A

Total Cholesterol

78
Q

Heart-healthy diet, exercising regularly, managing weight, and no tobacco use are all preventions factor of _____

A

CVD

79
Q

Framingham, MA Heart Study was over 3 generations and determined prevalence and _______ and factors related to CVD

A

incidence of CVD

80
Q

Age, sec, blood pressure, total/HDL cholesterol, smoking, glucose intolerance, and left ventricular hypertrophy were 7 major risk factors of the

A

Framingham Heart Study

81
Q

Adults who are very high risk should have an LDL cholesterol of _____ mg/dL

A

70 mg/dL

82
Q

inflammation indicates presence of _____

A

atherosclerosis

83
Q

Fibrinogen, C-Reactive Protein, and Homocysteine are all _______

A

inflammatory markers

84
Q

Smoking, Diabetes, Hypertension, Obesity, Sedentary Lifestyle, High Tryglicerides, Genetic Factors are all factors that elevate the independent predictor of CHD, _______

A

Fibrinogen

85
Q

Vitamins B6, B12, and Folic acid are all supplements given for ______

A

homocysteine

86
Q

Physical inactivity is the ______ risk factor of CVD

A

independent

87
Q

What results in increased heart rate, blood pressure, cardiac excitability and has effects comparable to hypertension?

A

Stress

88
Q

Smoking and oral contraceptives put you at _____x the risk

A

10

89
Q

Waist circumference recommendations should be below 35 inches for women and below ___ inches for men

A

40 inches

90
Q

TLC and AHA are in agreement that saturated fat should be < ___% of calories and total fat should be between ___% & ____& of calories

A

<7%

25-35%

91
Q

Saturated Fatty Acids, Monounsaturated Fatty Acids, and Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids are three types of

A

Fat

92
Q

SFA’s decrease _____ receptor synthesis and activity

A

LDL

93
Q

Saturated Fatty Acid sources come from ___ and ____

A

Meat and dairy

94
Q

Myristic, Palmitic, and Lauric are the most hypercholesterolemic-promoting _____

A

Saturated Fatty Acids

95
Q

Trans Fatty Acids elevates ______

A

LDL Cholesterol

96
Q

Monounsaturated Fatty Acids sources are mainly form ____ and ____

A

Olive oil and Avocados

97
Q

By replacing SFA’s with _________, there is a decrease in serum cholesterol levels, LDL-c levels, and triglyceride levels

A

Monounsaturated Fatty Acids

98
Q

Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids aka

A

linoleic acid

99
Q

Corn oil, cottonseed oil, soybean oil, safflower oil, and sunflower oil are all sources of ________

A

Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids

100
Q

By replacing SFA’s with Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids, there is a decrease in LDL-C levels and _______

A

HDL-C levels

101
Q

Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are names of

A

Omega 3 fatty acids

102
Q

Omega 3’s decrease ____ risk and high triglyceride levels

A

CVD

103
Q

Flaxseed, Chia seeds, fish, fish oils are sources of

A

Omega 3 Fatty Acids

104
Q

If an adult has CVD, the recommendation of Omega-3 FA’s is ____gm of EPA & DHA

A

1gm

105
Q

If an adult has triglicerides, the recommendation of Omega-3 FA’s is ____gm of EPA & DHA

A

2 - 4gm

106
Q

Omega-3’s interferes with blood clotting, but in excess may ______ bleeding time

A

prolong

107
Q

What raises total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol but to a lesser extent than SFA’s?

A

Dietary Cholesterol

108
Q

Pectins, Gums, Mucilages, Algal polysaccharides, and hemicellulose are all examples of ______

A

Soluble fiber

109
Q

Fiber produces Acetate, propionate, and ____

A

Butyrate

110
Q

What are recommended by the Adult Treatment Panel 3 to lower LDL-C but decrease absorption of betakeratine, ticatheral, and lithopean levels?

A

Stanols and Sterols

111
Q

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) and Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) are both types of

A

Medical Intervention

112
Q

What procedure involves a catheter and balloon inserted through artery that inflates and pushes plaque aside?

A

Percutaneous Coronary Intervention

113
Q

What procedure takes a healthy after or vein and grafts it to create new passage for blood flow?

A

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft

114
Q

Persistently high arterial blood pressure is _____

A

Hypertension (HTN)

115
Q

The force exerted per unit area on the walls of arteries is _____

A

Blood Pressure

116
Q

The BP during the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is ______

A

Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)

117
Q

The BP during the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is _______

A

Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)

118
Q

Normotension criteria is SBP < 120 mm Hg and DBP < ____ mm Hg

A

< 80 mm Hg

119
Q

Prehypertension Criteria is SBP of 120 to ____ mm Hg and DMP of 80 to ____mm Hg

A

139 mm Hg

89 mm Hg

120
Q

Hypertension Criteria is SBP of > 140 mm Hg and DBP of > ___ mm Hg

A

90 mm Hg

121
Q

90-95% of people with HTN have hypertension of unknown cause known as

A

Essential, Primary Hypertension

122
Q

Remaining 5% of people with HTN have it as a result of another disease this is

A

Secondary Hypertension

123
Q

How many million american adults have HTN and are taking anti HTN meds?

A

74 million

124
Q

More than ____ of the us population have HTN, with blacks having a higher prevalence.

A

30%

125
Q

Cardiac, Cerebrovascular, Renal, Peripheral, and Retinopathy are target organs affected by _____

A

HTN

126
Q

The relationship between BP and risk of CVD events is ______, consistent, and independent of other risk factors

A

Continuous

127
Q

What is mediated by sympathetic nervous system that secretes norepinphrine as a vasoconstrictor?

A

Short term BP regulation

128
Q

What is mediated by kidneys through changes in fluid volume and the renin- angiotensin system?

A

Long Term Regulation

129
Q

What diet is promoted to stop HTN?

A

DASH

130
Q

DASH aka

A

Dietary approaches to stoping Hypertension

131
Q

Original, High Protein, high in unsaturated fats were three test of the _____

A

Omni Heart Trial

132
Q

There is a strong association between BMI and ______

A

HTN

133
Q

1500mg, 2300mg and 3300mg were 3 versions of sodium regulations for the ______

A

Dash Trials

134
Q

How many mg does one tsp of salt have?

A

2400 mg

135
Q

Individuals with hypertension show a greater decrease in their BP in response to reduced sodium intake is now as _______

A

Salt-sensitive HTN

136
Q

Individuals who BP does not change due to salt intake are ______

A

salt-resistant hypertension

137
Q

What is a potent inhibitor of smooth muscle contraction?

A

Magnesium

138
Q

Alcohol threshold for raising blood pressure is ____ drinks/day

A

3 drinks/day

139
Q

Oral Contraceptives, steroids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, nasal decongestants, appetite suppressants, cyclosporine, tricyclic anti depressants, and monoamine-oxidase inhibitors are

A

medications that can interfere/cause HTN

140
Q

Dash Diet emphasizes on calcium, _____, and magnesium

A

potassium

141
Q

What diet is high in fiber, low in fat, low in saturated fat, low in cholesterol, and emphasizes fruits and veggies?

A

DASH

142
Q

Fatigue, SOB, and Fluid retention are the three main signs and symptoms of

A

Heart Failure

143
Q

Two causes of heart failure are diseases of the heart and _____

A

vasculature

144
Q

Heart Failure occurs when the heart cannot pump adequate blood to the rest of the

A

body

145
Q

When the heart cannot pump/eject blood efficiently out of the heart it is known as

A

Systolic Failure

146
Q

When the heart cannot fill with blood as it should, it is known as

A

Diastolic Failure

147
Q

Stages A & B of HF is

A

asymptomatic

148
Q

The function and shape of the left ventricle hypertrophies in an effort to sustain blood known as ____

A

cardiac remodeling

149
Q

No undue symptoms associated with ordinary activity and no limitation of physical activity is _____ of HF

A

Class 1

150
Q

Slight limitation of physical activity; patient comfortable at res is ____ of HF

A

Class ||

151
Q

Marked limitation of physical activity; patient comfortable at rest is ____ of HF

A

Class |||

152
Q

Inability to carry out physical activity without discomfort; symptoms of cardiac insufficiency or chest pain at rest

A

Class |V

153
Q

Treatment of _______ HF encompasses both improving functional capacity and lesseingin progression of the underlying disease

A

End stage

154
Q

Increasing the force of contraction, increasing in size, pumping more often, and stimulating the kidneys to conserve sodium and water are ways the heart compensates for ____

A

HF

155
Q

SOB gets worse at rest or night is ______

A

Orthopnea

156
Q

Loss of oxygen to the brain causing brief loss of consciousness is

A

syncope

157
Q

involuntary weight loss of at least 6% of non edematous body weight during a 6 month period during the end result of HF is _____

A

Cardiac cachexia

158
Q

HF affects 5 million americans and its prevalence increases with ___

A

age

159
Q

Anorexia, nausea, feeling of fullness, constipation, abdominal pain, malobsoption, hepatomegaly, and liver tenderness are all signs of

A

Cardiac cachexia

160
Q

Implantable defibrillator shocks hear when it

A

stops beating

161
Q

For HF patients, Sodium an dFluid intake should initially be < _____ mg/mL/day

A

2000

162
Q

Individual with HF caloric needs increase by 30-50% so then need ________

A

31-35 kcal/kg

163
Q

What is the only cure for refractory, end-stage HF?

A

Cardiac transplantation

MNT 1 (4 decks)

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