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M1 Spring Block 1 > Quick Pharm 3 Cards > Flashcards

Quick Pharm 3 Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3 anti-fungals are effective at treating Aspergillus?

A
  1. Amphotericin B
  2. Voriconazole
  3. Capsofungin
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2
Q

What is the MOA of the Triazoles?

A

Inhibit 14-α-sterol-demethylase - block Lanosterol to Ergosterol

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3
Q

What are the general SE of the triazoles

A

Hepatotoxicity, inhibit 2C, and 3A, N/V/D, headaches

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4
Q

Which anti-fungal targets the cell wall and what is the MOA?

A

Capsofungin - Blocks synthesis of β-(1,3)D-glucan - cell lysis

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5
Q

Which anti-fungal is effective against azole resistant strains?

A

Nystatin

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6
Q

Which anti-fungal is cidal due to a build up of squalene?

A

Terbinafine

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7
Q

What are the SE of Griseofulvin?

A

CYP inducer - CI w/ liver disease and penicillin allergies

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8
Q

What anti-parasitic treats neurocysticercosis?

A

Albendazole

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9
Q

What anti-parasitic treats schistosomoa?

A

Praziquantel

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10
Q

What 3 drugs treat amoebic dysentary?

A
  1. Metronidazole
  2. Paromomycin sulfate
  3. Iodoquinol (w/ Metro if symp)
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11
Q

What anti-parasitic targets liver forms of malaria (hypnozoites)?

A

Primaquine

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12
Q

Cinchonism

A

Headache, visual disturbances, dizziness, tinnitus

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13
Q

What is the MOA of Chloroquine?

A

Build up of heme - drug accumulates in parasitized erythrocytes - (weak base) - acidic vacuoles

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14
Q

What is the MOA of Atovaquone

A

Inhibits malarial mito e transport –> blocks pyrimadine synthesis

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15
Q

What is the MOA of proguanil

A

Block pyrimidine synthesis by blocking malarial dihydrofolate reductase

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16
Q

Which anti-parasitic can have psychiatric effects?

A

Mefloquine

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17
Q

What anti-parasitic treats cyrptosporidium?

A

Nitazoxanide

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18
Q

What are the two anti-virals that treat flu?

A

Amantadine and Oseltamivir

19
Q

What drug treats ophthalmic herpes?

A

Trifluridine

20
Q

What drug treats herpes zoster?

A

Famciclovir

21
Q

What two drugs treat CMV?

A

Ganciclovir and Foscarnet

22
Q

Which two drugs bind to the RT domain of DNA Pol and what two diseases do they treat?

A

Lamivudine and Tenofovir - Hep B and HIV

23
Q

What drug treats acyclovir-resistant herpes?

A

Foscarnet

24
Q

What is the main side effect of ganciclovir?

A

Bone marrow suppression

25
Q

What is the main side effect of foscarnet?

A

Renal fialure, seizures, electrolyte imbalance

26
Q

What 3 drugs are used to treat Hep C?

A

Ribavirin, α-interferons, and boceprevir

27
Q

What is Ribivirin’s MOA?

A

Nucleoside analog that prevents GTP dep capping of viral mRNA

28
Q

What is boceprevir’s MOA?

A

Inhibits NS3 protease preventing the formation of infectious viral particles

29
Q

What is the name of the protease inhibitor that treats AIDS?

A

Lopinavir (aspartic protease)

30
Q

What is Ritonavirs MOA?

A

Inhibits CYP3A boosting the activity of lopinavir

31
Q

What are the 3 NRTIs that treat AIDs?

A

Zidovudine, Emtricitabine, Abacavir?

32
Q

What 3 drugs are used for lepromatous leprosy?

A

Dapsone, clofazimine and rifampin - 2 years

33
Q

Which two anti-mycobacterials are metabolized by N-acetyltransferase?

A

Isoniazid and Dapsone

34
Q

What 4 drugs are used for hospital-acquired MRSA?

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Linezolid
  3. Daptomycin
  4. Tigecycline
35
Q

What 4 drugs are used to treat CA-MRSA?

A
  1. Linezolid
  2. Doxy/minocycline
  3. Clindamycin
  4. TMP/SMX
36
Q

What class exhibits concentration dependent kiling and what are the SE?

A

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin) - nephro/ototox and NM blockade - G- aerobic bacilli

37
Q

What class exhibits AUC killing and what are their side effects?

A

Quinolones (Norfloxacin) - inhibit DNA gyrase - tendon rupture, EKG irregularities, peripheral neuropathies

38
Q

What antibiotic causes muscle weakness?

A

Daptomycin - measure CPK levels - not good in lungs G+ only

39
Q

What are two drugs that can be given for ESBLs?

A
  1. Imapenem

2. Polymyxin B

40
Q

What are the symptoms of opiate withdrawal?

A

6-12 hrs: Restlessness, drug seeking
12-24 hrs: Tremor, irritability, piloerection
24-72 hrs: Inc. HR/BP, involuntary movement of legs
Later: Autonomic hyperactivity w/ strong craving

41
Q

What is morphine MOA?

A

Binds opioid R and decreases neuronal transmission

42
Q

What two drugs are for initial control of manic symptoms?

A

Haloperidol

43
Q

What does SSRI withdrawal look like?

A

Dizziness, lightehadedness, gait instability, insomnia, visual disturbances - appear 1-7 days after stopping

44
Q

What is the end effect of TCAs?

A

Downregulation of receptors

M1 Spring Block 1 (10 decks)

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