Quick Pharm 3 Cards

Question 1

Which 3 anti-fungals are effective at treating Aspergillus?

Answer 1

1. Amphotericin B
2. Voriconazole
3. Capsofungin

Question 2

What is the MOA of the Triazoles?

Answer 2

Inhibit 14-α-sterol-demethylase - block Lanosterol to Ergosterol

Question 3

What are the general SE of the triazoles

Answer 3

Hepatotoxicity, inhibit 2C, and 3A, N/V/D, headaches

Question 4

Which anti-fungal targets the cell wall and what is the MOA?

Answer 4

Capsofungin - Blocks synthesis of β-(1,3)D-glucan - cell lysis

Question 5

Which anti-fungal is effective against azole resistant strains?

Answer 5

Nystatin

Question 6

Which anti-fungal is cidal due to a build up of squalene?

Answer 6

Terbinafine

Question 7

What are the SE of Griseofulvin?

Answer 7

CYP inducer - CI w/ liver disease and penicillin allergies

Question 8

What anti-parasitic treats neurocysticercosis?

Answer 8

Albendazole

Question 9

What anti-parasitic treats schistosomoa?

Answer 9

Praziquantel

Question 10

What 3 drugs treat amoebic dysentary?

Answer 10

1. Metronidazole
2. Paromomycin sulfate
3. Iodoquinol (w/ Metro if symp)

Question 11

What anti-parasitic targets liver forms of malaria (hypnozoites)?

Answer 11

Primaquine

Question 12

Cinchonism

Answer 12

Headache, visual disturbances, dizziness, tinnitus

Question 13

What is the MOA of Chloroquine?

Answer 13

Build up of heme - drug accumulates in parasitized erythrocytes - (weak base) - acidic vacuoles

Question 14

What is the MOA of Atovaquone

Answer 14

Inhibits malarial mito e transport –> blocks pyrimadine synthesis

Question 15

What is the MOA of proguanil

Answer 15

Block pyrimidine synthesis by blocking malarial dihydrofolate reductase

Question 16

Which anti-parasitic can have psychiatric effects?

Answer 16

Mefloquine

Question 17

What anti-parasitic treats cyrptosporidium?

Answer 17

Nitazoxanide

Question 18

What are the two anti-virals that treat flu?

Answer 18

Amantadine and Oseltamivir

Question 19

What drug treats ophthalmic herpes?

Answer 19

Trifluridine

Question 20

What drug treats herpes zoster?

Answer 20

Famciclovir

Question 21

What two drugs treat CMV?

Answer 21

Ganciclovir and Foscarnet

Question 22

Which two drugs bind to the RT domain of DNA Pol and what two diseases do they treat?

Answer 22

Lamivudine and Tenofovir - Hep B and HIV

Question 23

What drug treats acyclovir-resistant herpes?

Answer 23

Foscarnet

Question 24

What is the main side effect of ganciclovir?

Answer 24

Bone marrow suppression

Question 25

What is the main side effect of foscarnet?

Answer 25

Renal fialure, seizures, electrolyte imbalance

Question 26

What 3 drugs are used to treat Hep C?

Answer 26

Ribavirin, α-interferons, and boceprevir

Question 27

What is Ribivirin's MOA?

Answer 27

Nucleoside analog that prevents GTP dep capping of viral mRNA

Question 28

What is boceprevir's MOA?

Answer 28

Inhibits NS3 protease preventing the formation of infectious viral particles

Question 29

What is the name of the protease inhibitor that treats AIDS?

Answer 29

Lopinavir (aspartic protease)

Question 30

What is Ritonavirs MOA?

Answer 30

Inhibits CYP3A boosting the activity of lopinavir

Question 31

What are the 3 NRTIs that treat AIDs?

Answer 31

Zidovudine, Emtricitabine, Abacavir?

Question 32

What 3 drugs are used for lepromatous leprosy?

Answer 32

Dapsone, clofazimine and rifampin - 2 years

Question 33

Which two anti-mycobacterials are metabolized by N-acetyltransferase?

Answer 33

Isoniazid and Dapsone

Question 34

What 4 drugs are used for hospital-acquired MRSA?

Answer 34

1. Vancomycin 2. Linezolid 3. Daptomycin 4. Tigecycline

Question 35

What 4 drugs are used to treat CA-MRSA?

Answer 35

1. Linezolid 2. Doxy/minocycline 3. Clindamycin 4. TMP/SMX

Question 36

What class exhibits concentration dependent kiling and what are the SE?

Answer 36

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin) - nephro/ototox and NM blockade - G- aerobic bacilli

Question 37

What class exhibits AUC killing and what are their side effects?

Answer 37

Quinolones (Norfloxacin) - inhibit DNA gyrase - tendon rupture, EKG irregularities, peripheral neuropathies

Question 38

What antibiotic causes muscle weakness?

Answer 38

Daptomycin - measure CPK levels - not good in lungs G+ only

Question 39

What are two drugs that can be given for ESBLs?

Answer 39

1. Imapenem | 2. Polymyxin B

Question 40

What are the symptoms of opiate withdrawal?

Answer 40

6-12 hrs: Restlessness, drug seeking 12-24 hrs: Tremor, irritability, piloerection 24-72 hrs: Inc. HR/BP, involuntary movement of legs Later: Autonomic hyperactivity w/ strong craving

Question 41

What is morphine MOA?

Answer 41

Binds opioid R and decreases neuronal transmission

Question 42

What two drugs are for initial control of manic symptoms?

Answer 42

Haloperidol

Question 43

What does SSRI withdrawal look like?

Answer 43

Dizziness, lightehadedness, gait instability, insomnia, visual disturbances - appear 1-7 days after stopping

Question 44

What is the end effect of TCAs?

Answer 44

Downregulation of receptors