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1
Q

T/F If there are separate codes for both the acute and chronic forms of a condition, the code for the chronic condition is sequenced first as long as both codes are listed at the same indentation level of the Index.

A

F

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2
Q

T/F A late effect is the residual effect after the acute phase of an illness or injury has passed.

A

T

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3
Q

T/F It is unacceptable to report an impending condition as if it exists in an outpatient facility.

A

T

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4
Q

T/F Assign codes as directed in the Index, only after verifying the code in the Tabular.

A

T

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5
Q

T/F It is important to follow any cross-reference instructions in the Index of the I-10, such as see also.

A

T

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6
Q

T/F An adverse effect occurs when a drug has been correctly prescribed and properly administered and the patient develops s reaction.

A

T

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7
Q

T/F ICD-10-CM codes are alphanumeric, with all codes beginning with a number.

A

F

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8
Q

T/F ICD-10-CM codes have a maximum of five characters.

A

F

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9
Q

T/F There are 21 chapters in the ICD-10-CM.

A

T

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10
Q

T/F The I-10 has instructional notations to provide guidance.

A

T

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11
Q

T/F Z codes cannot be used in the outpatient setting.

A

T

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12
Q

T/F The term “primary diagnosis” is the same as the first-listed diagnosis.

A

T

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13
Q

T/F In the outpatient setting, a diagnosis that is documented as “rule out” should not be reported.

A

T

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14
Q

T/F Code all the documented conditions that coexist at the time of an encounter/visit and require or affect patient care, treatment, or management.

A

T

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15
Q

T/F In the inpatient hospital setting, probable, suspected, and rule-out diagnoses cannot be reported by the facility as though the condition exists.

A

F

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16
Q

Primary diagnosis

A

1st listed diagnosis, used in the outpatient setting to identify the reason for the encounter

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17
Q

Principal diagnosis

A

defined as that condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospiital forcare, the principal diagnosis is sequenced first

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18
Q

first list diagnosis

A

out pt diagnosis

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19
Q

T/F If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record, the default is type 2 diabetes mellitus.

A

T

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20
Q

T/F I-10 presumes a cause-and-effect relationship between hypertension and acute kidney disease.

A

T

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21
Q

T/F I-10 presumes a cause-and-effect relationship between hypertension and heart and renal disease.

A

T

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22
Q

T/F The secondary cancer should be listed before the primary cancer if the secondary cancer is the reason for the visit.

A

T

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23
Q

T/F If a patient is admitted for dehydration due to chemotherapy, the dehydration is the first-listed diagnosis.

A

T

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24
Q

T/F If a patient with coronary artery disease is admitted due to an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the AMI should be sequenced before the coronary artery disease.

A

T

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25
Q

T/F A stage 2 pressure ulcer is considered a full-thickness loss of skin.

A

F

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26
Q

T/F A symptom code should not be assigned when it is considered to be routinely associated with a disease process.

A

T

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27
Q

T/F The outcome of delivery is indicated on the mother’s medical record only.

A

T

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28
Q

T/F The perinatal period extends from before birth through 28 days after birth.

A

T

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29
Q

T/F A congenital anomaly is an abnormality one was born with.

A

T

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30
Q

T/F Superficial injuries such as an abrasion or contusion are reported when associated with more severe injuries of the same site.

A

F

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31
Q

T/F An adverse effect occurs when a drug has been correctly prescribed and properly administered and the patient develops a reaction.

A

T

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32
Q

a dash (-) at the end of an alphabetic index entry indicates what requirement

A

additional characters

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33
Q

instructional notes are included in what list

A

tabular

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34
Q

section IV of the icd 10 official guidelines for coding and reporting is for what type of coding

A

outpatient

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35
Q

locating terms in the alphabetic index must be verifed with codes in what list

A

tabular

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36
Q

how many characters are possible in icd-10-cm coding

A

7

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37
Q

when a code first note is indicated and the patient has an underlying condition documented, which is listed as the principle or first listed diagnosis

A

underlying condition

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38
Q

dehydration with pneumonia is not considered an ____ part of a disease process

A

integral

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39
Q

when a condition is described as both acute and chronic with separate subentries in the index at the same indention level, which is coded first

A

acute

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40
Q

when on code can identify two dx or a dx with an associated complication it is considered what type of code

A

combination

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41
Q

what type of dx codes do you report when the acute phase of an illness or injury has passed but residual remains

A

late effects

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42
Q

reference the ____ ____ to determine if the condition has a subentry term for impending

A

alphabetic index

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43
Q

how many times are you able to report each specific icd-10-cm code per encounter

A

once

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44
Q

laterality refers to what type of organs

A

paired

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45
Q

multiple coding

A

use of more than one icd-10-cm code to fully describe a condition

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46
Q

combination code

A

single code used to clasify 2 dx

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47
Q

acute

A

sudden onset and short duration

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48
Q

sequela

A

a condition that follows an illness

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49
Q

bilateral

A

occurring on 2 sides

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50
Q

what type of sedation is not reported with anesthesia codes but rather with medicine codes

A

moderate sedation

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51
Q

most anesthesia codes are divided by what site

A

anatomic

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52
Q

the formula for anesthesa services is based on what three units

A

base, time and modifying factors

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53
Q

physical status modifier inicate the pts __________at the time anesthesia was administered

A

condition

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54
Q

national dollar amt that is applied to all services paid on the medicare fee schedule basis is what

A

CF-conversion factor

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55
Q

comparison of anesthesia services, published by the american society of anesthesiologist (ASA)

A

RVG-relative value guide

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56
Q

unit value assigned to each service

A

RVU-relative value unit

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57
Q

5-digit CPT codes that describe situations or conditions that affect the administration of anesthesia

A

qualifying circumstances

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58
Q

codes that can never be reported alone but must be used in addition to another code to provide additional information

A

add on codes

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59
Q

office, hospital, ed and nursing home locations describe what factor in code assignments

A

place of service

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60
Q

what pt status is assigned to an encounter that has been seen by the same specialty within the past 3 yrs

A

established

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61
Q

this status is assigned to a pt who has been formally admitted to a health care facility

A

inpatient

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62
Q

the levels of service are based on key components and what factors

A

contributory

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63
Q

documented key components include hx, examinationa and

A

MDM

64
Q

subjective information given by the pt is part of what key component

A

hx

65
Q

documented observation by the physician about the pts complaint or problem is considered what type of information

A

objective

66
Q

2 of 3 elements must be met or exceeded to qualify for a level of??

A

MDM

67
Q

when a physician arranges for other services to be provided to the pt, this considered what type of contributory factor

A

coordination of care

68
Q

what CPT code reports services provided inan office for which the physician may not be present

A

99211

69
Q

the last subsection in the E/M section describing an unlisted code is what type of evaluation and management services

A

other

70
Q

CMS developed a set of standards for documentation of E/M services which are called

A

documentation guidelines

71
Q

a general multi-system exam that ncludes 1-5 elements identified by a bullet in one or more or or ba according the 1995 documentation guidelines is a

A

problem focused examination

72
Q

a discussion with a pt and/or family is what

A

couneling

73
Q

service rendered by a physician whose opinion or advice is requested by another physician

A

consultation

74
Q

counseling, coordinaiton of care, nature of presenting problem and time

A

contributory factors

75
Q

evaluation and determination of care management of a newly born infant

A

newborn care

76
Q

what part of the CPT manual lists a full description for all modifiers

A

appendix A

77
Q

when a CPT code does not fully explain an unusual procedure, what should be added to the code

A

modifier

78
Q

what modifier is applied to a surgical procedure to indicate increased physician work was performed

A

-22

79
Q

what modifier is applied to indicate a service for which general anesthesia was used when normally local anesthesia would be indicated

A

-23

80
Q

what modifier is applied to indicate and E/M encounter was erformed and not related to a current global period

A

-24

81
Q

when a pt comes into theoffice twicein one day for different medical reasons teh -25 modifier should be applied to which visit

A

second e/m

82
Q

what modifier indicates the professional component of a diagnostic test

A

-26

83
Q

3rd pary payers require the modifier for a mandated service

A

-32

84
Q

modifier -33 indicates a covered preventive service, what organization grades preventive serivices

A

USPSTF-US preventative serivces task force

85
Q

modifier -47 anesthesia by the surgeon, is never added to what cpt code

A

anesthesia codes

86
Q

how may units of service may be billed when reporting the -50 modifier to medicare

A

1 unit

87
Q

when reporting -51 modifier to indicate multiple procedures performed, which procedure should be reported first on the claim

A

primary procedure

88
Q

some payers may decrease the payment on a procedure when this modifier is applied

A

-52

89
Q

modifier -53, discontinued procedure, is never reported with e/m codes or codes based on what

A

time

90
Q

when the surgeon transfers postoperative care to another physician, report with what modifier

A

-54

91
Q

modifier -55 is used for services provided tothe pt afterwhat disposition

A

discharge from hospital

92
Q

medicare considers what service to be part of the surgery and bundled payment not allowing the -56 modifier

A

preoperative

93
Q

e/m services provided the day before or the day of a major surgery are included in what package

A

global days

94
Q

a planned procedure intended to include the original procedure plus one or more subsequent procedures is indicated by what modifier

A

-58

95
Q

modifier -59 is applicable to all cpt codes except what type of codes

A

e/m codes and weekly radiation management

96
Q

period of time a surgical procedure is being performed

A

intraoperative

97
Q

inform 3rd pary payers of circumstances that may affec the way payment is made

A

modifiers

98
Q

describing a physicians services in radiology or pathology

A

professional component

99
Q

describing the services provided by the facility

A

technical component

100
Q

bundling together of time, effort, and services for a specific procedure into one code instead of reporting each component separately

A

surgical package

101
Q

how many modifiers areas are available on a cms-1500 insurance claim form for one line item charge

A

4

102
Q

when providers use an outside laboratory, who is responsible for billing these medicare services

A

outside laboratories

103
Q

most surgery subsections are defined according to body system or

A

medical specialty

104
Q

notes in teh cpt manual may appear before subsections, subheadings, categories, and

A

subcategories

105
Q

unlisted codes identify procedures or services throughout the surgery section that indicate what

A

no specific cpt for that procedure

106
Q

pertinent info in a special report should include an adequate____or____of the nature, extent, and need for the procedure

A

definition or description

107
Q

the term separate procedure is an indication of how, or if, the code should be

A

assigned

108
Q

general anesthesia services are reported separately by what type of provider

A

anesthesiologist

109
Q

surgery “general subsection” codes are divided based on what criteria

A

if imaging guidance was used during the aspiration

110
Q

includes nature, extent, and need for the procedure and the time, effort, and equipment necessary to provide the service

A

special report

111
Q

procedures that, when performed at the same time as a major procedure, are considered incidental and not reported separately

A

separate procedures

112
Q

considered unusual, experimental, or new and do not have a specific cpt code assigned

A

unlisted procedures

113
Q

through the skin

A

percutaneous

114
Q

use of a needle and syringe to withdraw fluid

A

aspiration

115
Q

is there a restriction on what type of providers may report codes form the integumentary systme subsection

A

no

116
Q

incision and drainage codes are first divided according to what

A

the condition

117
Q

what modifier should not be applied to nail removal codes

A

-51 multiple procedures

118
Q

what type of repair involves complicated wound closure

A

complex

119
Q

what type of biopsy is reported when the entire lesion is removed

A

excisional

120
Q

what type of mastectomy is reported when the entire breast is removed in addition to the pectoral muscles and axillary lymph nodes

A

radical

121
Q

killing of tissue by means of electrocautery, laser or chemicals

A

destruction

122
Q

cleansing of or removal of dead tissue from a wound

A

debridement

123
Q

destruction of lesions using extreme cold

A

cryosurgery

124
Q

tissue graft b/t individuals who are not of the same genotype

A

allograft

125
Q

surgical repair of the skin

A

dermatoplasty

126
Q

what goverment organization handles the funds for the medicare program

A

social security administration

127
Q

3 items that medicare beneficiaries are responsible for

A

dedcutibles, premiums and co-insurance

128
Q

medicare usually pays what % of the amts indicated for services

A

80%

129
Q

filing guidelines, providers must file claims for their medicare pts within____months of the DOS

A

12

130
Q

part c medicare is known as what

A

medicare advantage organization

131
Q

HIPPA stands for what

A

health insurance portability and accountability act

132
Q

transfer of electronic documentation is accomplished throught the us of EDI-stands for

A

electronic data interchange technology

133
Q

co-surgeons, medicare pays the lesser of the actual charge or ________of the global fee, dividing the payment equally b/t the 2 surgeons

A

125%

134
Q

T/F the national center for health statisstics is responsible for the disease classification system in the US

A

true

135
Q

format for the tabular list 1st to last

A

chapter, section, category (3 characters), subcategory (4 characters), and subclassification (5-7 characters)

136
Q

main term in chronic pancreatitis

A

pancreatitis

137
Q

main term in anus abscess

A

abcess

138
Q

main term in acute cholecystitis

A

cholecystitis

139
Q

main term in abdominal pain

A

pain

140
Q

main term in neonatal mastitis

A

neonatal

141
Q

T/F when a pt presents for out pt surgery and the surgery is canceld, report the reason why the surgery was cx as the 1st listed dx, what else do you code

A

T also code for the cancellation due to othe contraindication Z53.09

142
Q

T/F when a final dx has not been established by the provider, it is acceptable to report codes for the presenting signs and symptoms

A

true

143
Q

T/F the external cause codes can be reported as a 1st listed dx

A

false

144
Q

T/F codes form chapter 17, congenital anomalies, can be reported any time during a persons life, as appropriate

A

true

145
Q

T/F chapter 15 codes are neer reported on the mothers record

A

false

146
Q

T/F the 1st listed dx for a routine outpatient prenatal visit is a code from category Z34, encounter for supervision of normal pregnancy

A

true

147
Q

T/F the outcome of delivery is reported only on the newborns record

A

false

148
Q

a hydatidiform mole is a tumor that only forms in the uterus T/F

A

false

149
Q

when there is an encounter for a complication and no delivery occurred, report the complication as the 1st listed condition T/F

A

true

150
Q

T/F when coding the birth episode in a newborn record, assign a code from category Z38, liveborn infantsm according to place of birth and type of delivery, as the 1st listed diagnosis T/F

A

true

151
Q

T/F aftercare Z codes should not be reorted for aftercare of injuries T/F

A

true

152
Q

T/F multiple fx are sequenced in accordance to the location of the fx

A

false

153
Q

anoamaly

A

an abnormality of a structure or organ

154
Q

according to the guidelines, when sequencing multiple fx sequence in accordance with _______of the fx

A

severity

155
Q

what association publishes the CPT

A

AMA

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