Questions 21-50 Flashcards

1
Q

STP - Details how a structure fire will burn within one of two burning regimes. List and describe the regimes.

A
  1. FUEL CONTROLLED
    * Initial phase of fire development the fire grows as a direct function of the fuel itself with little or no influence from the compartment environment. ie. The size, shape or number of openings.
    * If we continue to add fuel the fire will grow in size. If we remove fuel, the fire will decrease in size.
  2. VENTILATION CONTROLLED
    * Most structure fires will reach a stage where fire development and the Heat Release Rate (HRR) is now dictated by the availability of oxygen.
    * This occurs during a fully developed fire when the fire is pyrolyzing more fuel than can be burnt with the available oxygen in the compartment.
    * It will also occur prior to this if the enclosure has insufficient openings.
    * Simply put, fire growth (and HRR) is limited by the available air (O2) supply.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

STP (14 Residential Structure Fires) - Identifies the search priority in multi storey buildings, list the priorities.

A
  • The fire floor
  • The floor above, and
  • The top floor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

STP (14 Residential Structure Fires) - Outlines when a working at a task/tactical level and a firefighter becomes trapped, injured missing or overdue. What message should be sent to draw attention to the situation?

A
  • A MAYDAY Message
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

According to STP (16 Incident Management) - When is an Incident Management System required to be used at incidents FRNSW attends?

A
  • An IMS is used at every incident FRNSW attends
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

According to STP (16 Incident Management) - At every incident there must be a steady, adequate, and timely stream of resources. Who is the only person to deploy resources at an incident?

A
  • The Incident Commander must be the only person to deploy resources.
  • This ensures that the IC knows where the resources are and what they are doing and can ensure that their tasks are in line with the Incident Action Plan (IAP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to STP (16 Incident Management) -There are eight strategic functions of command the Incident Commander needs to address. List all eight.

A
  1. Deployment – ensuring a steady, adequate and timely stream of appropriate resources at the incident, and knowing the position and function of each resource at all times.
  2. Command – having a strong command presence from the outset of an incident.
  3. Situation evaluation – continuously collecting and evaluating information about the incident in order to determine critical factors.
  4. Incident action planning – having an incident action plan that addresses the critical factors.
  5. Incident communications – having efficient and effective incident communications to describe the flow of information within and out of the incident.
  6. Incident structure – having an incident structure that is flexible and able to be scaled to meet the incident size and needs, with the ability to delegate functions and responsibilities as span of control is reached.
  7. Review and revision – once in operation, reviewing and revising the strategy and plan, to keep it current with the changing needs of the incident.
  8. Escalation and de-escalation – as additional officers or an Incident Management Team arrive, scaling up the strategic management level of the incident; and scaling down as operations conclude.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A driver in a road tunnel noticed smoke coming from the engine compartment of their car and immediately pulled into the emergency break down bay and called 000. (SOG 6.6 Road Tunnel Incidents)
The Tunnel Control Centre closed the tunnel allowing attending fire crews access to extinguish the fire. Peak hour traffic is starting to build at the entrance to the tunnel and thick smoke is throughout. List the Smoke Management Systems found in road tunnels that could assist in clearing the smoke?

A
  • Longitudinal ventilation (jet fans)
  • Ducted ventilation
  • Natural ventilation
  • A combination of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

According to SOGs (SOG 1. Incident Management – Deployment, Page 21) - As an incident develops and crews become fatigued, they will need to be rested. Name and describe the two ways crews can be rested.

A
  • RECYCLE – Crews stop work for a short period just outside the Hot Zone, to rest, rehydrate, and replenish air cylinders if relevant. They remain accountable to the IC or Sector, Group or Division Commander (SGD Commander) as per the incident structure.
  • FULL REHABILITATION – Crew is released and moves to the rehabilitation area. Once there, they are accountable to the Rehabilitation Officer.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

According to SOGs (SOG 1. Incident Management – Incident Action Planning Page 35) - List and describe the three incident phases.

A
  1. Life at Risk Phase – where there are saveable human lives. The incident is uncontrolled and requires rapid actions to control the risks to life.
  2. Expanding Phase – where the incident is uncontrolled and likely to expand. It requires rapid actions to control risks to life and property.
  3. Contained Phase – there are sufficient resources to contain the incident within the defined area. There is no life at risk, or life or property have already been lost.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to Standing Orders (PAGE 40) who are the people authorised to ride on FRNSW appliances?

A

Firefighters in the course of their duty;
* Employees of Fire and Rescue NSW whose duty requires their attendance at an emergency;
* Members of other emergency services at the discretion of the member in charge; OR
* Other persons authorised by the Commissioner.
The member in charge of an appliance is responsible for enforcing this instruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to STP (1A – Flammable Liquid and Gases) - List and describe three ways foam controls and extinguishes fire.

A
  • Excluding the fire’s supply of oxygen (smothering)
  • Suppressing flammable vapours to stop them from igniting
  • Cooling the surface temperature to prevent reignition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

According to STP (1A – Flammable Liquid and Gases) – What are the characteristics of liquid petroleum gas?

A
  1. Odourless
  2. Colourless
  3. Heavier than air
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to STP (1A – Flammable Liquid and Gases) - What is the term used when a liquid within a container reaches a temperature well above its boiling temperature, boils, expands and the container fails sending flammable gas outwards where it ignites.

A
  • Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapour Explosion = BLEVE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to STP (1A – Flammable Liquid and Gases) - What can be used to conduct a thermal check of an acetylene cylinder.

A
  • Thermal Imaging Camera – every 15 minutes for 1 hour, OR
  • Wetting Test – completely wet cylinder, check for steam or rapid drying, shouldn’t dry in 1-2 mins.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Expand the Acronym - SISIACMR (SOG 10.1 Guidelines for all Hazardous Material Incidents)

A
  • Safe approach
  • Incident control
  • Scene security
  • Identify hazmats
  • Assess potential harm
  • Call in resources
  • Monitor Information
  • Render safe and decontaminate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

According to STP (2B – Special Fires) - What is the most suitable extinguishing agent for rubber fires?

A

WATER – most suitable extinguishing agent

17
Q

According to STP (2B – Special Fires p.37) -There are several stages of Lithium-Ion battery failure list and describe the stages.

A
  • Stage 1: Abuse Factor – thermal, electrical, or mechanical abuse
  • Stage 2: Off-gas Generation - occurs regardless of cell form-factor
  • Stage 3: Smoke generation – catastrophic failure is imminent
  • Stage 4: Fire generation – likelihood of propagation drastically increases
18
Q

According to the Workplace Safety toolkit on the intranet, what should you complete when a work-related injury, near miss, exposure or illness occurs and in what timeframe after the occurrence should it be submitted?

A
  • NIIENM – Notification of Injury, Illness, Exposure, or Near Miss
  • 24 HOURS – within 24 hrs of occurrence
19
Q

According to the toolkit (Workplace Safety) on the intranet - If you are unable to submit or fill out a NIIENM who else can submit one for you?

A
  • If the injured person is unable to submit the report, their supervisor or co-worker can submit it on their behalf.
20
Q

In New South Wales, Emergency Services carry out land-based rescues under what Act?

A

State Emergency and Rescue Management Act 1989 No165 (SERM Act 1989)

21
Q

As stated in the SERM Act,1989 (STP 29 Rescue PIRO P6) who is responsible for coordinating rescue operations and for determining the priorities of action to be taken in rescue operations?

A

The NSW Police Force

22
Q

According to STP (STP 29A Participate in a Rescue Operation Safely) - FRNSW uses the YOU principle to establish priorities of safety at a rescue incident. What are these priorities of safety?

A
  • Yourself and other rescuers
  • Other persons not involved (bystanders)
  • Unfortunate person(s) involved
23
Q

According to STP (STP 29A Participate in a Rescue Operation Safely) -What is the correct PPC and procedure for fire protection at an MVA?

A
  • One firefighter to wear full structural turnout PPC and SCBA
  • A manned line of 38mm hose charged to 400kPa, pump with recirculation valve open.
  • If a fire occurs, charge to 800kPa at the pump to achieve 700kpa at the branch.
24
Q

According to STP (STP 22Z Hazardous Atmospheres – Self Contained Breathing Apparatus) - What environments should SCBA be worn in?

A
  • Heated or extremely low temperatures
  • Oxygen deficient or enriched environment
  • Toxic atmospheres
  • Smoke
25
Q

Owners and occupiers of premises can deposit keys at their nearest fire station so that firefighters can gain access without causing unnecessary damage. Located in the Forms filing cabinet on the intranet, name the two forms that need to be completed when receiving keys to private premises.

A
  1. Key To Private Premises – Applicant
  2. Deposit of Keys (Form)
26
Q

As stated in the Health, Fitness and Wellbeing Toolkit- What is it a mandatory requirement to complete prior to undertaking the annual Fitness Drill?

A
  • PARQ - FRNSW Fitness Drill Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PARQ) Instruction
27
Q

According to Operations Bulletin 2020-04 - Failure to report damage. When an appliance is found to have unreported damage, the Fleet Operations Officer or Regional Maintenance Officer will notify the Station, Duty, and Zone Commander in writing. The responsible station must submit what form within 8 days?

A
  • Agency Member Motor Vehicle Claim Form
28
Q

According to the Fire ePermit policy, a fire permit issued within the ‘Bush Fire Danger’ period will be valid for a period of how many days from the date of issue?

A
  • 7 days maximum = During the declared Bush Fire Danger Period
29
Q

According to the Fire ePermit policy, what aspect of the planned fire does the permit take into account.

A
  • A fire permit takes into account only the safety aspect of the planned fire.