Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

KAPLAN > QT1 > Flashcards

QT1 Flashcards

1
Q

When does motor reflex end?

A

after 3-4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When does infant have pincer grasp?

A

9mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can infant sit with support?

A

6mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does birth weight triple for infant?

A

by 1 year (5-7oz/wk or double by 5mo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does posterior fontanelle close?

A

by 2-3 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does anterior fontanelle close?

A

by 18 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is projection?

A

attributing one’s thoughts or impulses to another (involved in phobias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is displacement?

A

shifting of emotion concerning person or object to another neutral or less dangerous person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is sublimination?

A

diversion of unacceptable drives into socially acceptable channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is Internalization?

A

incorporation of someone else’s opinion as one’s own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is rationalization?

A

attempt to make behavior appear to be the result of logical thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is intellectualization?

A

excessive reasoning or logic used to avoid experiencing disturbing feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is reaction formation?

A

development of conscious attitudes and behavior patterns into opposite of what one really wants to do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is symbolization?

A

something represents something else (involved in phobias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

expected findings of infant with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

small head circumference, low birth weight, undeveloped cheekbones, difficulty feeding and poor sucking ability; respiratory distress may be related to preterm birth, neurologic damage, small trachea, floppy epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Type 1 DM and elderly, why is urine test for sugar and ketones not preferred?

A

The renal threshold is elevated, meaning the level at which glucose starts to appear increases giving false-negative readings. Will show negative if 0-180 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What can amniocentesis determine?

A

evaluate baby’s lungs, any spinal cord problems, or issues with baby’s blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pediculosis capitis (head lice)

A

very hot water and a special detergent (RID) need to be used for cleansing clothing and personal belongings, 1% gamma benzene hexachloride (Kwell) shampoo is an organic solvent, can be toxic, absorbed through scalp; may be repeated 5 to 7 days after first application which is necessary after eggs hatch; permethrin 1% crème rinse (Nix) kills both lice and nits after one application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is position for administering enema?

A

patient left side-lying (Sim’s) with knee flexed; allows solution to flow downward along the natural curve of the sigmoid colon and rectum, which improves retention of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which type of breathing and signs characterize edema and inflammation of the airways?

A

inspiratory stridor and restlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Extrapyramidal side effects

A

side effects include akathisia (motor restlessness), dystonias (protrusion of tongue, abnormal posturing), pseudoparkinsonism (tremors, rigidity), and dyskinesia (stiff neck, difficulty swallowing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine)

A

mood disorders (eg, schizophrenia), the manic phase of manic-depressive disorder, anxiety and restlessness before surgery; s/e is EPS and if this occurs antiparkinsonian drug like Cogentin may be ordered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hypoparathyroid signs and diet requirements

A

indications include tetany, muscular irritability, carpopedal spasms, dysphagia, paresthesia, and laryngeal spasm

High in calcium since it’s not producing, and low in Ca means the body is high in phosphorus so the diet should be low in P.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Early signs of preeclampsia

A

hypertension, facial swelling, proteinuria (the triad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Signs of eclampsia

A

blurred vision, oliguria; epigastric pain and h/a are signs before a seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why might a person with CVA and facial paralysis have a corneal abrasion?

A

client will be unable to close eye voluntarily; when facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is affected, the lacrimal gland will no longer supply secretions that protect eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

early signs of lithium toxicity

A

include fine tremors of fingers, wrists, and hands; and nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

severe lithium toxicity

A

Ataxia, confusion, seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

s/e of antipsycotic agents

A

Elevated white blood cell count, fever, orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hiatal hernia and reflux

A

Hiatal hernia is a condition in which part of the stomach sticks upward into the chest, through an opening in the diaphragm.

instruct pt to withhold food and fluids just before going to bed b/c full stomach is more likely to slide (reflux) through the hernia, causing regurgitation and heartburn; and pt less likely to awaken during the night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is solid food for infant started?

A

Rice cereal is usually the first solid food and is started around 4 to 5 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

primary reason elderly adults have problems with constipation

A

reduced gastrointestinal motility due to decreased muscle tone, decreased exercise; other factors include prolonged use of laxatives, ignoring urge to defecate, side effect of medications, emotional problems, insufficient fluid intake, and excessive dietary fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Types of play: solitary vs parallel vs associative

A

solitary-infant; parallel-toddler; associative-preschool (4y)

34
Q

S/S of addison’s disease

A

Muscular weakness and fatigue.
Dark pigmentation of the skin.
Gastrointestinal disturbances and anorexia

indicative of crisis: Restlessness and rapid, weak pulse.

35
Q

During the mother’s fourth stage of labor, the nurse should palpate the client’s fundus?

A

uterus is normally contracted and palpable at the umbilicus

36
Q

cholecystitis

A

Right upper abdominal pain.

37
Q

What might alert the nurse to consider an alcohol problem in a client hospitalized for a physical illness?

A

subtle symptoms of an alcohol-related problem; client who has several complaints of pain that do not appear to be correlated to the admissions problem requires further investigation; tremors, elevated temperature, nocturnal leg cramps and pain symptoms are indicative of an alcohol-related problem

38
Q

pituitary dwarfism clinical manifestations

A

see small size but normal body proportions
usually have delayed sexual maturity
appear younger than chronological age (delicate features)
usually see fine, smooth skin

39
Q

Identity versus role diffusion

A

adolescent

40
Q

Intimacy versus isolation

A

young adult

41
Q

Generativity versus stagnation

A

older adult aged 45 to 64 years of age

42
Q

Integrity versus despair and disgust

A

ages 65 and older

43
Q

ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin)

A

cephalosporin, long-term use of Rocephin can cause overgrowth of organisms; monitoring of tongue and oral cavity is recommended

44
Q

lient with hypothyroidism to avoid which medications?

A

narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics

45
Q

Hypothyroidism diet

A

requires high fiber, high cellulose foods to prevent constipation

46
Q

the Weber test

A

The stem of a vibrating tuning fork is held in the middle of the forehead, and the girl’s hearing is assessed in both ears.

47
Q

Rinne test

A

The stem of a vibrating tuning fork is held against the mastoid bone until the child indicates that she can no longer hear the sound. Then the tuning fork is moved in front of the auditory canal.

48
Q

type 1 diabetes complaining of decreased vision

A

caused by gradual destruction and degeneration of the retina b/c of deterioration of the retinal vessels, as well as edema, occurs

49
Q

clomiphene citrate (Clomid)

A

induces ovulation by altering estrogen and stimulating follicular growth to produce a mature ovum

50
Q

cortisol is responsible for?

A

Converting proteins and fat into glucose, also an anti-inflammatory agent

51
Q

epinephrine is responsible for?

A

Preparing the body for “flight or fight.”

52
Q

norepinephrine is responsible for?

A

Enhancing musculoskeletal activity

53
Q

delusions of persecution

A

delusion is a strongly held belief that is not validated by reality

54
Q

Command hallucinations.

A

hallucinations are sensory perceptions that take place without external stimuli; most common are auditory, or hearing voices; other types of hallucinations are tactile, visual, gustatory, and olfactory; command hallucinations involve client experiencing auditory hallucinations that are telling him/her to do something; for example, to kill someone

55
Q

Delusions of reference

A

delusions of reference are a false belief that public events or people are directly related to the individual

56
Q

verapamil

A

This medicine is a calcium channel blocker.

Treats high blood pressure, severe chest pain (angina), and irregular heartbeat (arrhythmia). A lower blood pressure will reduce the risk of stroke and heart attack.

57
Q

breast-feeding mother should increase her daily caloric intake by how many calories?

A

500

58
Q

What does a continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicate?

A

air leak; need to check for location of leak; clamp tubing close to chest and check for bubbling, and then clamp tubing close to container and check for bubbling

59
Q

The nurse determines the lung has re-expanded if what occurs in the three-chamber water-seal drainage system (Pleur-evac)?

A

The fluid in the water-seal chamber does not fluctuate with respirations, indicates no more air leaking into pleural space

60
Q

3-month-old infant scheduled for a barium swallow in the morning. Prior to the procedure, it is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

A

Make the infant NPO for 3 hours.

61
Q

hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Hypotension, Chills, Lower back discomfort

62
Q

allergic reaction

A

wheezing, urticaria (hives), facial flushing, and epiglottal edema

63
Q

What is the purpose of digoxin?

A

Increases the force of myocardial contraction

64
Q

primary purpose of the pacemaker

A

acts to regulate cardiac rhythm, increasing CO

65
Q

plasma cholesterol screening instructions

A

only sips of water are permitted for 12 hours before plasma cholesterol screening to achieve accurate results, alcohol intake will interfere with test results, normal diet week before test

66
Q

BEST fluid to offer toddler with lead poisoning?

A

milk provides a large amount of vitamin D; vitamin D optimizes deposition of lead in the long bones; purpose of the treatment is to remove lead from the blood and soft tissues

67
Q

process of a normal adjustment to a terminal illness

A 
1- denial
2- anger
3- bargaining
4- depression
5- acceptance
68
Q

intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

A

x-rays of entire urinary tract taken, evaluates kidney function

69
Q

Natural passive immunity

A

occurs when antibodies are passed from mother to fetus via placenta, colostrum, and breast milk

70
Q

Artificial active immunity

A

small amounts of specific antigens are used for vaccination; body responds by actively making antibodies

71
Q

Artificial passive immunity

A

involves injection with antibodies that were produced in another person or animal; used to protect person exposed to serious disease

72
Q

Natural active immunity

A

antigen enters the body without human assistance; body responds by actively making antibodies

73
Q

support group called SIDS

A

support group for parents who have had an infant die from sudden infant death syndrome

74
Q

support group called SHARE

A

support group for parents who have lost a newborn or have experienced a miscarriage

75
Q

support group called RESOLVE

A

support group for infertile clients

76
Q

support group called CANDLELIGHTERS

A

support group for families who have lost a child to cancer

77
Q

BEST way for a nurse to assess the fluid balance of an elderly client?

A

Maintain an accurate intake and output. BP is not reliable b/c may be elevated d/t age-related hypertension

78
Q

nephrotic syndrome diet

A

Adequate protein, low sodium intake.

79
Q

colostomy irrigations

A

colostomy irrigation should be done at once a day at the same time each day to assist in establishing a normal pattern of elimination; use body temp solution, do not insert catheter more than 4in

80
Q

Apraxia

A

loss of purposeful movement in the absence of motor or sensory impairment; when it affects an ADL, such as dressing, the client may not be able to put clothes on properly

81
Q

Ataxia

A

Uncoordinated movement is due to a muscle control problem that causes an inability to coordinate movements. It leads to a jerky, unsteady, to-and-fro motion of the middle of the body (trunk) and an unsteady gait (walking style). It can also affect the limbs.

82
Q

How would pt’s leg present if there is a hip fracture?

A

The leg appears to be shortened and is adducted and externally rotated.

KAPLAN (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions