Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nutrition > Qs from study guide > Flashcards

Qs from study guide Flashcards

1
Q

What type of eating pattern may benefit glycemic control and CVD risk factors?

A

MUFA-rich eating pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the possible etiology of NAFLD?

A

insulin resistance fails to suppress the lipolysis of adipose tissue which increases FFA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the adverse effect of omega-6 fatty acids?

A
  • gets converted to arachidonic acid which increases immunity and clotting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 4 effects of PD procedure?

A
  • abdominal discomfort
  • glucose absorption
  • peritonitis
  • protein losses of 8-10 g per day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is alcoholic steatosis characterized?

A

by fatty deposits in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fill in the blanks about Leptin:

  1. it is secreted from the ___________
  2. it works in the ___________
  3. it ___________ appetite
  4. it promotes negative energy balance by ___________ energy expenditure
A
  1. it is secreted from the fat cells
  2. it works in the hypothalamus
  3. it decreases appetite
  4. it promotes negative energy balance by increasing energy expenditure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 ways PTH increases calcium level?

A
  • efflux of calcium from bone
  • decrease loss of calcium in urine
  • enhanced absorption of calcium from intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 goals when treating hypertriglyceridemia?

A
  • achieve a healthy weight
  • increase physical activity
  • reduce serum glucose < 100 mg/dL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the best feeding tube for short term duration? (<4-8 weeks)

A
  • nasoenteric/oroenteric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cancer patients are at high risk of what?

A

malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the best eating pattern for T2DM?

A

a pattern individualized based on assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which 2 food factors NEGATIVELY effect energy intake?

  • increased protein
  • increased glycemic index
  • increased energy density
  • increased fiber
  • increased portion size
  • increased availability
  • increased eating out
  • increased variety
  • increased palatability
  • increased liquid form
A
  • increased protein
  • increased fiber

*everything else has a POSITIVE effect on energy intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fill in the blanks about Ghrelin:

  1. it is secreted from the ___________
  2. it works in the ___________
  3. it ___________ appetite
  4. it ___________ when body is in a negative energy balance
A
  1. it is secreted from the stomach
  2. it works in the hypothalamus
  3. it increases appetite
  4. it increases when body is in a negative energy balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Treatment for NAFLD/NASH include these 5 things.

A
  • weight loss and exercise
  • avoid juice/soda
  • physical activity
  • manage diabetes
  • adequate protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the clinical and lab findings consistent with alcoholic hepatitis?

A
  • clinical = fever, tender hepatomegaly

- lab = AST:ALT > 2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the obesity treatment for the following BMI.

a. 25-26.9
b. 27-29.9
c. 30-34.9
d. 35-39.9
e. >40.0

A

a. 25-26.9 = diet, exercise, behavioral therapy
b. 27-29.9 = diet, exercise, behavioral therapy + pharmacotherapy*
c. 30-34.9 = diet, exercise, behavioral therapy + pharmacotherapy
d. 35-39.9 = diet, exercise, behavioral therapy + pharmacotherapy + surgery*
e. >40.0 = all the treatment options

  • = in patient’s with obesity related disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What common drink has been shown to decrease hepatic fibrosis seen in NAFLD/NASH?

A

black coffee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 3 therapies used for sodium and fluid maintenance?

A
  • diuretics
  • ultrafiltration
  • diet modifications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the 3 causes of malnutrition?

A
  • decreased intake
  • increased nutrient losses d/t malabsorption
  • other metabolic abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 5 advantages of EN?

A
  • prevention/treatment of malnutrition
  • safer
  • more physiologic
  • has immune benefits
  • cheaper cost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What macronutrient has the greatest satiety of them all?

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t nausea in a patient with cancer?

A
  • avoid noxious odors by using microwaves or opening windows when cooking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea with EN?

A

medication administration through feeding tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In patients with CKD 5D HD it is recommended to avoid supplementation of what 4 things?

A
  • vitamin A
  • vitamin E
  • zinc
  • selenium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In patients with high cholesterol and CHD what medications should you consider?

A

nicotinic acid or fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the adaptations to undernutrition with decreased protein intake?

A
  • increased AA recycling

- reprioritization towards visceral protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

__________________ may provide clinical benefit in GI and head and neck cancer patients when used 5-7 days prior to GI surgery

A

immune modulating formulas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the long-term effect on body weight of high protein diets?

A

no consistent long-term effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In patients with heart disease what is the ELA recommendation for omega-3 fatty acids?

A

recommendation increases to two or more 4-ounce servings of fatty fish per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the best way to lose weight?

a. diet
b. exercise
c. diet and exercise

A

c. diet and exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This alcoholic liver disease may develop after years of alcohol abuse.

A

alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the cause of T2DM?

A

combination of insulin resistance and insulin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Patients with liver disease may have metabolic abnormalities that mimic these conditions

A

sepsis or trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the 3 proposed mechanisms why whole grains is associated with a decreased risk of CVD?

A
  • decreased total and LDL cholesterol
  • reduced glycemic and insulinemic response
  • increase intake of micronutrients, antioxidants, and phytochemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the treatment of ascites? (3 part)

A
  • paracentesis
  • diuretic treatment
  • dietary sodium restriction (2 g Na/day)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is best feeding tube for long term? (>4-8 weeks)

A
  • ostomies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In patients with diabetes you can increase protein intake to _______ g/kg for CKD stages 3-5 in order to maintain glycemic control.

A

0.6-0.8 g/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Weight at which all or most excess body fluid will have been removed is called what?

A

dry weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

______ is often accepted as the standard of nutrition support during the acute post transplant period

A

PN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t dysphagia in a patient with cancer?

A

change textures of foods based on level of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Omega-3 fatty acids (linolenic acid) can be found in what type of foods?

A

walnuts, flaxseeds, canola oil, fatty fish (salmon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the benefit of small intestinal feeds compared to gastric feeds?

A

may reduce aspiration risk

43
Q

Feeding tubes can be placed through what 3 places?

A
  • nose
  • mouth
  • abdominal wall
44
Q

What are the 4 environmental causes of dyslipidemia?

A
  • excess intake of saturated fat and trans fatty acids
  • lack of fiber in eating plan
  • excess BW
  • sedentary lifestyle
45
Q

What is the protein recommendation with acute encephalopathy?

A

gradually increase protein to 1-1.5 g/kg/day

*once encephalopathy resolves gradually increase protein to normal levels

46
Q

This alcoholic liver disease may develop with transient alcohol use over days or chronic alcohol use.

A

alcoholic steatosis

asymptomatic

47
Q

What milk has the highest amount of phosphorus?

What about the lowest amount?

A
  • skim milk (125 mg)

- rice milk (17 mg)

48
Q

What are the 3 short-term benefits of low glycemic index foods?

A
  • increases satiety
  • reduces intake at subsequent meal
  • reduces blood glucose response
49
Q

In hospitalized patients the nutrition goals involves maintaining these 2 things and minimizing these 4 things.

A
  • maintain:
    1. lean body mass/bw
    2. physiologic function
  • minimize:
    1. complications
    2. length of stay
    3. recovery time
    4. readmission rate
50
Q

Polymeric concentrated has a concentration of _____ cal/ml.

A

1.5-2

51
Q

What is the biggest adverse affect with EN?

A

diarrhea

52
Q

The DASH diet recommends limiting these 2 things to control blood pressure

A
  • salt

- sodium intake

53
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t radiation enteritis in a patient with cancer?

A
  • follow a lactose-free and low-fat diet
54
Q

Polymeric with or without fiber has a concentration of _____ cal/ml.

A

1-1.2

55
Q

What is the first thing you do in treatment of cachexia?

A

treat reversible causes

56
Q

When administering dextrose PN, what is the maximum oxidative capacity of glucose for adults?

A

5 mg CHO/kg/min

57
Q

In US what is the most commonly consumed high fiber foods?

A

cereal fibers

58
Q

NAFLD is considered the hepatic manifestation of what syndrome?

A

metabolic syndrome

59
Q

How does diet change in patients with CKD 5D who are receiving PD instead of HD?

A

likely will need less restrictive diet due to increased frequency of dialysis

60
Q

What is the benefit of gastric feeds compared to small intestinal feeds?

A

more physiologic to feed into the stomach

61
Q

What are the 2 health benefits of omega-3 fatty acids?

A
  • reduce risk of heart attack by making blood less “sticky”

- can reduce blood triglyceride levels

62
Q

The dose of _____ g/day EPA + DHA has been shown to decrease risk of death from cardiac events in patients with heart disease.

A

1 g/day

63
Q

Weight loss of _______ % in patients with obesity is significant.

A

3-10%

64
Q

What are the 4 things that can result in hypertriglyceridemia?

A
  • being overweight
  • sedentary
  • drinking too much alcohol
  • uncontrolled DM
65
Q

What type of anemia is commonly seen in renal disease?

A

normocytic normochromic anemia

66
Q

What are 5 common high PO4 foods?

A
  • high protein foods
  • nuts/legumes
  • dairy products
  • whole grains
  • cola drinks
67
Q

What is the most common liver disease in the world?

A

NAFLD

68
Q

The DASH diet has been shown to lower both systolic and diastolic BP as soon as _____ days.

A

14 days

69
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t esophagitis/gastritis in a patient with cancer?

A
  • eat bland, pureed, or soft foods

- avoid alcohol, coffee, or spicy/acidic foods

70
Q

Emulsified lipids are contraindicated for patients with this type of allergy.

A

egg allergy

71
Q

What are the 3 main risks with PN lipid administration?

A
  • hypertriglyceridemia
  • arachidonic acid production
  • possible chance of bacteremia/fungemia
72
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t mucositis/stomatitis in a patient with cancer?

A

consume soft, nonfibrous, nonacidic foods

73
Q

What are the long-term benefits of low glycemic index foods on weight?

A

glycemic index does not influence weight change over 12 months

74
Q

The DASH diet recognizes the roles of these 3 minerals in controlling BP

A
  • calcium
  • magnesium
  • potassium
75
Q

The liver stores what 4 things?

A
  • glycogen
  • vitamin B 12
  • fat soluble vitamins ADEK
  • iron/ferritin
76
Q

What are the indications for a low bacteria diet?

A
  • ANC <500
  • post- stem cell transplant (SCT)*
  • 50 days post autologous
  • 100 days post allogeneic
77
Q

What are the 4 adverse effects of HD procedure?

A
  • CVD instability
  • nausea, vomiting
  • post HD fatigue
  • protein loss of 6-8 g per treatment
78
Q

What is the cause of T1DM?

A

autoimmune B cell destruction resulting in absolute insulin deficiency

79
Q

How much weight loss should you expect with exercise alone and no energy restriction?

A

1-2 kg

80
Q

What is the difference between gastric feeds and small intestinal feeds as it relates to bolus administration?

A
  • you can’t give bolus doses in small intestinal feeds because there is no reservoir
81
Q

What 2 nutritional factors increase LDL?

A
  • consumption of saturated and trans fatty acids

- excess body weight

82
Q

What type of fat has the lowest risk of coronary heart disease?

A

polyunstaturated fats

83
Q

Fill in the blanks about the nutritional needs for a mature adult

  1. there is ___________ energy needs
  2. protein needs are ___________ per kg of body weight as younger adults
  3. adults are more likely to be intolerant to ___________
  4. it is recommended for adults to maintain a ___________ diet.
A
  1. there is reduced energy needs
  2. protein needs are the same per kg of body weight as younger adults
  3. adults are more likely to be intolerant to lactose
  4. it is recommended for adults to maintain a moderate-low fat diet.
84
Q

What is the cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD?

A
  • decrease in active vitamin D leads to increase in PTH which leads to increase calcium intake via resorption from bone
85
Q

What is the cause of anemia in renal disease?

A

decreased production of the hormone EPO

86
Q

What is the most malabsorptive gastric surgery?

a. adjustable lap band
b. vertical gastric sleeve
c. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
d. biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch

A

d. biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch

87
Q

What is the most restrictive gastric surgery?

a. adjustable lap band
b. vertical gastric sleeve
c. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
d. biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch

A

a. adjustable lap band

88
Q

What 4 nutritional factors decrease LDL?

A
  • polyunsaturated fatty acids
  • viscous fiber
  • plant stanols/sterols
  • weight loss
89
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t xerostomia in a patient with cancer?

A

chew sugar-free gum or suck on tart candies

90
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t dumping syndrome in a patient with cancer?

A
  • avoid drinking beverages with meals
  • consume soluble fiber
  • follow a lactose-free diet
91
Q

What foods should be avoided in a low bacteria diet?

A

avoid fresh fruits and vegetables and foods at high risk for food borne pathogens

92
Q

How should you manage malnutrition d/t dysguesia in a patient with cancer?

A
  • if metallic taste: use plastic utensils, eat nuts, cheese, and poultry for protein
  • if sweet sensitivity: drink flavorless supplements or diluted juice
93
Q

What is the change in energy expenditure with increasing severity of illness?

A

EE increases with severity of illness

94
Q

What is the ELA recommendation for omega-3 fatty acids for the general population?

A

two 4-ounce servings of fatty fish per week

95
Q

How is NAFLD diagnosed?

A
  • steatosis by histology (biopsy)
  • no significant alcohol consumption
  • exclusion of other causes of chronic liver disease
96
Q

What is the difference between acute vs. chronic graft versus host disease (GVHD)?

A
  • acute = <100 days

- chronic = >100 days

97
Q

Omega-6 fatty acids (linoleic acid) can be found in what type of foods?

A

vegetable oils (e.g. corn or soybean oil)

98
Q

What is the primary target of therapy when managing high cholesterol?

A

LDL cholesterol

99
Q

The metabolic response to illness is characterized by these 3 things

A
  • increased metabolic rate
  • altered protein synthesis and catabolism (e.g. increased protein breakdown)
  • altered substrate utilization (insulin resistance)
100
Q

What are the adaptations to undernutrition with decreased energy intake?

A
  • reduced EE
  • reliance on FFA and ketones
  • decrease use of protein for gluconeogenesis
101
Q

What form of amino acids do you administer PN?

A

crystalline form

4 kcal/gram

102
Q

What type of fat has the greatest increased risk of coronary heart disease?

A

trans fat

103
Q

How may calories/gm are there in fat compared to CHO and protein?

A
  • fat 9 calories/gm

- CHO/protein 4 calories/gm

104
Q

What is the second target of therapy when managing high cholesterol?

A

non-HDL cholesterol (if triglycerides > 200 mg/dL)

Nutrition (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions