QDB Boeing Load, Balance and Servicing Flashcards

1
Q

Actual zero fuel weight (ZFW) must never exceed?
A) Maximum landing weight plus unusable fuel in tanks
B) Maximum design zero fuel weight
C) Operational take off weight
D) Maximum take off weight minus fuel tanks capacity

A

B

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2
Q

Aircraft center of gravity (CG) is defined as?
A) A rotating point at the datum line while aircraft take off and landing
B) Point in an aircraft around which all weights are balanced or evenly distributed
C) Point in an aircraft around which all weight is not balanced
D) Aircraft center of gravity when empty

A

B

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3
Q

Dry operating index (DOI) is defined as the index figure which?
A) Corresponds to the Centre of gravity of dry operating weight
B) Equals the fuel weight index correction, plus load index
D) Is based on aircraft engine type

A

A

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4
Q

When aircraft CG is near its aft limit?
A) Better take-off performance is resulted i.e higher MTOW and less trip fuel is required
B) Worse take-off performance i.e lower MTOW and more trip fuel is required

A

A

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5
Q

Which statement is false?
MAC is:
A) Is the chord of a section of an imaginary airfoil on the wing which would have force vectors throughout the flight range identical to these of the actual wing
B) It is used as a reference for locating the relative positions of the wings Centre of lift and the airplane Centre of gravity
C) It is used to determine the aircraft envelope, through which CG limits of the loading of each flight must be outside this envelope.

A

C

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6
Q

. Index takeoff weight (ITOW) is:
B) Zero fuel weight index + fuel index correction
C) Dry operating index (DOI) + fuel index correction
D) Dry operating Index (DOI) + load index

A

B

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7
Q

. Datum line is defined as a reference line?
A) From a point forward of the nose or at least the aircraft nose to the most aftward station of the aircraft.
B) On the leading edge
D) Which passes through the aircraft Centre of gravity (CG)

A

A

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8
Q

Aircraft C of G must fall?

A

A) On a point along the length of the MAC

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the ARMED position of the emergency lights?

A

B) Automatically illuminates the emergency lights if the airplane electrical power to DC BUS fails or AC power is turned off

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10
Q

Time of useful consciousness at FL400?

A

15 sec

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11
Q
Time of useful consciousness below 15000ft?
A) 15 seconds 
B) 30 seconds 
C) 60 seconds 
D) Unlimited
A

D

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12
Q

What is the crew action if unreliable airspeed is suspected?
A) Adjust airplane attitude/thrust, check that probe heat is on and cross check Mach/ airspeed indicators
B) Engage autopilot, check that probe heat is on and cross check Mach/Airspeed indicators
C) Engage auto throttle, check that the probe heat is on and’cross check Mach/airspeed indicators
D) Switch ion weather radar, check that the probe heat is on and cross check, Mach/Airspeed indicators

A

A

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13
Q

What is the minimum indicated airspeed for engine in-flight start using windmill at 10000ft
A) 250kts B) 300kts C) 280kts D) 220kts

A

B

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14
Q

Select stabilizer trim override switch to OVERRIDE in case of:
A) Runaway stabilizer
B) Stabilizer inoperative
C) Jammed or restrictive controls D) Manual trimming

A

C

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15
Q

Wind sheer escape maneuver, manual flight?
A) Disconnect autopilot and auto throttle. Apply max thrust. Roll wings level and rotate towards 20 degrees pitch. Retract speed brakes. Follow flight director TOGA. Do not change flap or gear configuration until wind sheer is no longer a factor
B) Disconnect autopilot and auto throttle. Apply max thrust. Roll wings level and rotate towards 15 degrees pitch. Retract speed brakes. Follow flight director TOGA. Do not change flap or gear configuration until wind sheer is no longer a factor
C) Perform normal auto Go-Around
D) Perform Normal manual Go-Around

A

B

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16
Q

During TCAS RA:
A) Avoid the intruder visually using pitch change
B) Avoid the intruder visually using roll change
C) Disengage the autopilot and auto throttle. Adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy RA command D) Follow ATC instructions

A

C

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17
Q

CAT II approach is a precision instrument approach and landing with decision height lower than 60 meter (200ft) but not less than:
A) 15 meters (50ft) B) 30 meters (100ft) C) 20 Meters (67ft) D) 45 meters (150ft)

A

B

18
Q

In CAT II operations with DH, the following visual references are required?
A) Segment of approach light system B) Runway threshold
C) Touch down zone
D) 3 Centre line lights

A

C

19
Q

For CAT ll/lll operations DH is?
A) The wheel height above the runway elevation by which go-around must be initiated unless adequate visual reference has been established. It is recognized by RA
B) The wheel height above the runway elevation by which go-around must be initiated unless adequate visual reference has been established. It is recognized by servo altimeter
C) The flight deck height above the runway elevation by which go-around must be initiated unless adequate visual reference has been established. It is recognized by RA
D) The flight deck height above the runway elevation by which go-around must be initiated unless adequate visual reference has been established. It is recognized by servo altimeter

A

A

20
Q

Which statement is false?
To carry out a CAT III approach flight crew must check?
A) Both pilots are qualified and current
B) Intended landing runway is approved for CAT III operations
C) Airport low vis procedures reported active
D) Approach lights are switched on

A

D

21
Q

Which statement is false?
CAT ll/lll decision height DH is the lowest height measured by radio altimeter at which go-around must be initiated in case of?
A) There is no adequate visual reference
B) The aircraft is not in a position to perform a safe landing
C) PAP I lights are switched off
D) External references are not sufficient to confirm aircraft position in relation with runway axis

A

C

22
Q
Which statement is false?
The approval of CAT ll/lll operations is dependent on the following in order to maintain the required level of safety?
A) The aircraft and airfield
B) The aircraft and airline
C) The airline and aircrew
D) The airfield and PAPI system
A

D

23
Q
CAT MIA is a precision approach and landing with a decision height and RVR not less than:
A) 100ft and 300m 
B) 50ft and 200m 
C) 50ft and 550m 
D) 100ft and 200m
A

B

24
Q

FAIL operation auto land system is?
A) In the event of a failure below alert height, the approach, the flare and landing can be completed by the remaining automatic system
B) In the event of a failure below the alert height the pilot must perform an automatic go-around
C) In the event of a failure below the alert height the pilot assumes control of the aircraft manually
D) In the event of a failure above the alert height the pilot must either continue manually or perform an automatic
go-around

A

A

25
Q

The radio altitude displays turns amber when?

A) The aircraft descends below 1000ft AGL
B) The aircraft descends below 200ft AGL
C) The aircraft descends below 2500ft AGL
D) The aircraft descends through the selected minimum altitude

A

D

26
Q

The captain’s outboard DU has failed. Which statement is correct?
A) The captain’s outboard DU blanks and the PFD automatically moves to the inboard DU. The ND can be selected back on the inboard DU using the OUTD/INDB control panel select switch
B) The captain’s outboard DU blanks the PFD can be selected on the inboard DU using the OUTBD/INDB control panel switches
C) The PFD automatically moves to the Inboard DU. The ND can be selected on the lower DU using the LOWER DU control panel select switch
D) No automatic transfer, use OUTB/INDB control panel select switch

A

C

27
Q

When the aircraft crosses the transition altitude during climb and STD is not selected?
A) The barometric setting display is boxed and turns amber
B) The barometric setting display does not change
C) The barometric setting display will flash and turn red
D) Set STD amber message will be displayed

A

A

28
Q

When an ILS/DME has been tuned and the DME received?
A) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the map mode and in the APP mode
B) The DME distance displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the APP mode only
C) The DME distance is displayed on the standby RMI
D) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD only

A

B

29
Q

Terrain annunciations are displayed?
A) When TERR display is select switch on the EFIS control panel is activated and automatically, when an alert occurs and neither pilot has the terrain display selected in EXP.MAP, center MAP, EXP VOR, or EXP APP modes
B) Only when TERR display select switch on EFIS control panel is activated
C) Only automatically when an alert occurs
D) When TERR display is select switch on the EFIS control panel is activated and automatically, when an alert
occurs and neither pilot has the terrain display selected in selected in EXP MAP only.

A

A

30
Q
What is the TCAS symbol for an RA?
A) A cyan diamond (filled) 
B) An amber circle (filled) 
C) A red square (filled)
D) A red circle (filled)
A

C

31
Q

When flying at FL350. What is indicated by the bottom of the yellow bar extending from the barber pole on the upper side of the bottom tape?
A) High speed buffet
B) A speed that gives 0.3G margin to height speed buffet C) The placard speed for flaps 1
D) The placard speed for gear extension

A

B

32
Q

Flaps 5 set. A yellow bar extends downward from the red and black bar at the upper side of the speed tape. What indicated by the bottom of this yellow bar?
A) The placard speed for flap 5
B) The maximum speed with gear extended C) The placard speed for flap 15
D) The placard speed for flaps 1

A

C

33
Q

How does the FMC determine position when external position updating is not available?
A) It cant so it displays “CHECK PRESENT POSITION” in the CDU scratchpad
B) It defaults to dead reckoning
C) It cant so it blanks after 15mins
D) It uses IRS position as reference

A

D

34
Q

Entry of a desired airspeed for descent into TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES page will?
A) Change the descent mode to a manual SPD DES
B) Change the mode to a selected speed PATH DES
C) Can’t enter a new speed on an active descent page
D) Change the mode to MAN DES

A

B

35
Q

The IRS is operating in the NAV mode and calculates present position. What else happens?
A) The IRS applies local variation to produce magnetic headings
B) True heading is displayed on the HSI
C) Local variation is displayed
D) The IRS applies deviation to produce compass headings

A

A

36
Q
What information can be obtained with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
A) Only altitude information
B) Only heading information
C) Attitude and heading information 
D) Attitude and altitude information
A

C

37
Q

Is it possible to monitor and change the flight plan route on the RTE LEGS page?
A) No
B) Yes
C) No, the route can be monitored but not changed
D) No, the route can be loaded on the RTE LEGS page, to change or monitor the route refer to the RTE page

A

B

38
Q
Which of the following description is an example of a conditional waypoint?
A) D170L
B) BSN240/FL110
C) DUB 240/35
D) (1500)
A

D

39
Q
Aircraft at cruising altitude, VNAV engaged. When the aircraft overflies the FMS calculated T/D and the MCP ALT is not lowered, what will be indicated on the FMA?
A) FMC SPD/LNAVA/NAV PTH 
B) RETARD/LNAV/VNAV PTH 
C) FMC SPD/LNAV/ALT HOLD 
D) FMC SPD/LNAVA/NAV SPD
A

C

40
Q

A/P and A/T engaged. What are the requirements for an automatic start of descent at T/D?
A) Lower altitude on MCP and on CRZ page selected
B) VNAV engaged, lower altitude selected in the CRZ page
C) VNAV engaged, DES page selected
D) VNAV engaged, lower altitude in the MCP window

A

D