Q&A Flashcards

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1
Q

Which cranial nerves have to do with ocular motor

A

3, 4, 6

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2
Q

Trigeminal Nerve . It is the motor nerve for the muscles of mastication and contains
proprioceptive fibers

A

CN 5

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3
Q

Facial Nerve = . Bells palsy, Besides facial muscles, the nerve affects tears, saliva, taste

A

CN7

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4
Q

Which nerve deals with shoulder shrugging?

A

Cranial nerve XI, the spinal accessory nerve.

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5
Q

Normal murmur in pregnancy and fluid overload. May be normal if heard
in young adults or children.

A

S3

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6
Q

ELDERLY: This sound is usually associated with a stiffened ventricle (low
ventricular compliance), and therefore is heard in patients with
ventricular hypertrophy, myocardial ischemia, or in older adults.

A

S4

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7
Q

S2 location

A

L second intercostal space

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8
Q

S1, S3, S4

A

L side, 5,4th intercostal space

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9
Q

Stable angina diagnostic test?

A

Stress test

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10
Q

What does a split S mean? S split during inspiration?

A

Normal. During inspiration and expiration is not normal.

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11
Q

Fixed split Heart sound?

A

Septal defect

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12
Q

BP lower on lower extremities in comparison to upper extremities

A

COARC

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13
Q

3 or #4 murmur

A

3: moderately loud
4: loud

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14
Q

Which murmur radiates to the neck?

A

Aortic stenosis

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15
Q

Which murmur radiates to axilla?

A

MR

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16
Q

What is best heard on the 4th L ICS, L sternal border?

A

Tricuspid valve

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17
Q

Which murmurs are dangerous?

A

Diastolic

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18
Q

What is the regurgitation sound like?

A

Harsh

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19
Q

Sudden pain in the chest, belly, lower back, flank, pulsating feeling in the
belly, low BP, fast HR.

A

symptoms of AAA

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20
Q

How do you rule out AAA? What test do you order?

A

US

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21
Q

Beset HTN medication for the postmenopausal female who has OA and HTN?

A

Thiazides

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22
Q

HTN meds to someone with DM?

A

ACE or ARBs

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23
Q

Elderly patient with isolated systolic hypertension. What med do you start them on?

A

CCB- causes dilation

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24
Q

BPH and HTN

A

Hytrin

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25
Q

On fundoscopic exam Copper silver arterioles with what condition?

A

HTN

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26
Q

On fundoscopic exam- cotton wool spots

A

DM

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27
Q

Peripheral arterial disease treatment?

A

Tobacco cessation, exercise, and a healthy diet are often successful treatments.

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28
Q

does PAD like exercise or rest?

A

exercise

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29
Q

test to dx PAD?

A

ankle brachial index

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30
Q

Differences between PAD and chronic venous insufficiency

Which has claudication?

A

PAD: Claudication, shiny leg.
Chronic venous insufficiency: Fat looking calf, erythematous, seeping.

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31
Q

What is the patient at risk of with very high triglycerides?

A

pancreatitis

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32
Q

What is the discoloration of the left flank called?

A

Grey Turner sign
- It is associated with acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis.

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33
Q

1st line tx for GERD

A

AANP: h2 blockers
ANCC: PPIs

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34
Q

What is Barret Esophagus?

A

Precancerous cells. Its reversible If treated with PPIs. Untreated it converts into esophageal cancer. Is usually the result of repeated exposure to stomach acid

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35
Q

Which HTN meds would you avoid if patient has GERD

A

CCB, because they open things up

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36
Q

Zollinger-Ellison

A

An over production of acid in the stomach. Treated with PPIs

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37
Q

Positive psoas maneuver

A

Appendicitis

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38
Q

Cullen sign

A

Hemorrhagic discoloration of the umbilical area due to intraperitoneal hemorrhage

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39
Q

Pyloric stenosis how it presents

A

Olive mass palpated usually pediatric patients, RUQ

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40
Q

Koplik spots

A

Rubeola white spots

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41
Q

Causes for hyperbilirubimia in pedi

A

Prematurity, trauma: cephalohematoma, vacuum

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42
Q

Teenager with knee pain, bony prominence on tibial tubercle

A

Osgood slaughter

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43
Q

What Tanner stage is 2nd mound

A

Tanner stage 4

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44
Q

1st line Tx for ADHD

A

Stimulants

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45
Q

Kid with white plugs on skin, belly button center

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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46
Q

Less than 2 yr old kid, kid has intermittent episodes of colic’s, diarrhea, then goes away. Sausage like mass

A

Intussusception

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47
Q

What is the percentage change if both patients have a genetic defect, chance kid will have it?

A

25%

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48
Q

Teenager female presents with lanugo and swollen hands

A

anorexia

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49
Q

Kid with diarrhea, what is the most common bug?

A

Rota Virus

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50
Q

Honey crusted lesions

A

Impetigo. Tx: Mupirocin

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51
Q

Precursor to SCC

A

Actinic keratosis

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52
Q

Rosacea location? Tx?

A

Folds, back of knee. Tx: metronidazole gel

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53
Q

Shingles tx ?

A

acyclovir

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54
Q

Induration on top of lip, bleeds easily, doesn’t heel

A

biopsy- cancer?

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55
Q

What is waxy, pearly, ulceration in the center, telangiectasias?

A

Basal cell cancer

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56
Q

ABCDE melanoma

A

Asymmetry, borders, color, dimension, evolving

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57
Q

Subungual hematoma treatment

A

Drill a hole and drain blood

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58
Q

Tx for moderate acne

A

PO tetracycline

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59
Q

Tx skin fungal infection

A

Clotrimazole

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60
Q

What should you monitor closely with antipsychotics?

A

High risk of obesity, DM2, hyperlipidemia

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61
Q

Most common side effect of Paxil

A

ED- give wellbutrin

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62
Q

First line tx for depression adults?

A

SSRI

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63
Q

What is the the SSRI with shortest list of interactions

A

celexa- give to elderly

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64
Q

What meds don’t you mix with Kava Kava

A

Benzos, hypnotics

Often taken for depression

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65
Q

Depression and elderly, what kind of test tests for memory

A

Minni mental exam

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66
Q

77 yo taking benzo long time, how do you take them off?

A

taper slowly

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67
Q

What med do you tx acute anxiety attack?

A

Benxo (Xanax)

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68
Q

Elderly patient confused. What labs do you check for

A

CBC, thyroid, CMP, UA

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69
Q

Preferred tx UTI elderly with comorbidities?

A

Cipro

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70
Q

How do you start medications with elderly?

A

low and slow

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71
Q

What does it mean if there is no lateralization with weber?

A

No lateralization is normal

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72
Q

Presbycusis: sensory or conductive?

A

sensory

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73
Q

Which cranial nerve is involved in hearing?

A

8th, vestibulochoclear

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74
Q

HIV CD count <200

A

AIDS

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75
Q

Kaposi sarcoma

A

RT HIV- Purple lesions inside mouth

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76
Q

What drugs are for abortive HA

A

triptans

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77
Q

How do you treat a migraine prophylactic?

A

propranolol

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78
Q

What is the specific drug used to treat trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Tegretol aka carbamazepine

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79
Q

Cluster HA Tx choice?

A

High dose O2

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80
Q

Thunderclap HA, what is your main concern?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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81
Q

Patient with HA, photophobia, aura

A

Migraine due to sensory disruptions

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82
Q

Unilateral HA by orbital area, comes at the same time daily, injection of the eye, tearing of the eye

A

Cluster HA

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83
Q

BPH feels on DRE

A

symmetrical enlargement, smooth, firm

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84
Q

Prostatitis on DRE feels

A

painful, boggy

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85
Q

prostate cancer feels on DRE

A

Irregular, asymmetrical, growth, bump

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86
Q

Chlamydial tx:

A

Azithromycin

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87
Q

Gonorrhea tx

A

Rocephin and Azithromycin

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88
Q

Syphilis tx

A

PCN

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89
Q

BV Tx

A

Flagyl - avoid alcohol

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90
Q

Cervix is strawberry with green discharge

A

Trichomonas. Tx: Flagyl

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91
Q

Popular non itchy lesions on palms and sole of feet

A

Syphilis
Labs: RPR

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92
Q

Genital Warts

A

Acyclovir

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93
Q

PPD INTERPREATION HIV and TB test

A

Induration >5mm is positive

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94
Q

PPD INTERPREATION HIV and TB test > 10

A

Community like nursing homes, men in jail, immigrants of high-risk
countries, health care workers

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95
Q

What is positive TB test for someone who came in contact with TB

A

> 5 mm

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96
Q

Big beefy tongue

A

B12 anemia

97
Q

Therapeutic range INR

A

2-3
INR 1.4 increase drug.
INR 4 skip days of tx

98
Q

Which 2 anemias are macrocytic

A

B12 and folate

99
Q

positive pregnancy signs

A

Fetal movement: positive if checked with US, fetal heart beat.

100
Q

probable pregnancy

A

increased frequency urination, soft cervix, abdominal bloating/enlargement, mild uterine cramping without bleeding

101
Q

Possible pregnancy

A

Belly is growing, tender breast, movement in belly

102
Q

Nagels rule

A

LMP + 7 days, -3 months, add 1 yr

103
Q

Pregnant woman in 3td trimester, painful vaginal bleeding

A

Placenta abruptio

104
Q

Pregnant woman in 3td trimester, non- painful vaginal bleeding

A

Non painful: placenta previa

105
Q

UTI tx for pregnant woman

A

nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

106
Q

Pre-eclampsia tx

A

Bed rest

107
Q

Cooms test detect.

A

RH antibodies

108
Q

When do you administer Rh?

A

28 weeks and 72 hrs after delivery

109
Q

Fundus at 12, 20 , and 38 weeks

A

12 symphisis pubis
20- umbilicus
39- xyphoid process

110
Q

PAP results are high grade squamous cells, what do you do?

A

Refer

111
Q

Avoid what contraception if female is smoker and >35?

A

NO COC pills

112
Q

Post-menopausal and palpate R ovary

A

Not ok. Should never palpate ovary, mass? Cancer? US

113
Q

What test would differentiate between a lesion and a cyst in the breast

A

US

114
Q

Patient comes in with fatigue fever cough, blood in cough, Xray have upper lobe infiltrates

A

TB

115
Q

Tx Pneumonia of the young person

A

Macrolide

116
Q

Pneumonia of older person

A

Fluoroquinolones

117
Q

Tx acute bronchitis

A

don’t tx with antibiotics, use supportive tx

118
Q

CURB-65

A

2 or more send to ED for elderly with pneumonia: Confusion, Urea >18, Resp >30, B <90/60, >65 age.

119
Q

Specific drug used to treat essential familial tremors

A

propranolol

essential tremors = at rest

120
Q

Rhomberg Test

A

used to test balance

121
Q

T score is -1.5, what is dx? -2.5

A

-1.5= osteopenia
-2.5= osteoporosis

122
Q

Temporal arteritis, what is standard dx?

A

Biopsy of artery
Tx: long term steroids of about 6 months

123
Q

Stringy eye discharge

A

allergic conjunctivitis

124
Q

purulent eye discharge

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

125
Q

watery eye discharge

A

viral conjunctivitis

126
Q

Red reflex white in young

A

Retinal blastoma kids

127
Q

Red reflex white in elderly

A

cataracts

128
Q

Tx for sprain

A

RICE

129
Q

Tx tibial stress syndrome: runner lady with shin splints anterior aspect of shins

A

Stop and RICE

130
Q

Patient has mass on 5th or 4th metatarsal foot

A

mortons neuroma

131
Q

Anthrax tx:

A

Cipro 60 days. It’s a rare but serious spore forming bacterium that causes infection, if inhaled, is harder to treat.

132
Q

Strep throat complications

A

peritonsillar abscess, acute rheumatic fever which can infect heart, valves and brain. Scarlatina aka Scarlet Fever (sandpaper textured rash, sore throat, rash starts head and neck and spreads to rest of body)

133
Q

1st line tx for sore throat, otitis media, bacterial sinusitis?

A

Amoxicillin

134
Q

Human/animal bite tx?

A

Augmentin

135
Q

Tx for skin infection with and without abscess?

A

without abscess: Keflex.
With abscess: MRSA: Bactrim

136
Q

What if a patient is allergic to Bactrim? and need to tx MRSA skin infection

A

BCD: Bactrim, Clindamycin, Doxy. Know the order if allergic.

137
Q

Mono: causative organism? Diagnostic test? tx? Meds to avoid? When can student return to contact sports? Classic triad?

A

-Causative organism: Epstein-Barr virus
- Diagnostic test: Mono spot
-Tx: symptomatic management
- Meds to avoid: antibiotics like penicillin due to generalized rash.
- Can return to sports 4-6 weeks
- Classic triad: fever, pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy

138
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea tx?

A

Cipro

139
Q

-What is Non-Gonococcal Urethritis? Tx?

A

is an infection of the urethra caused by pathogens other than gonorrhea. The most common and serious is chlamydia. Tx: Azythromycin or Doxy.

140
Q

-5 year old with fever, sore throat, irritability, loss of appetite, red spots on hands, feet, mouth. Oral mucosa ULCERATION. What is the most likely diagnosis?

What causes?

A

Hand, foot and mouth syndrome.

Cocksacie virus

141
Q

5 year old with high fever, peeling of skin, injection of the eye, enlarged neck lymph nodes, strawberry tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis and Tx ?

A

Kawasaki: tx: high dose aspirin and IVIG.

142
Q

-Malaria tx?

A

Doxy

143
Q

What would you treat acute otitis media effusion with?

A

decongestant and abx

144
Q

What is the most common causative organism for acute otitis media?

A

strep pneumo

145
Q

-4 year old kid with slapped cheeks, what is the most likely condition? Causative organism? Prego warning?

A

5th disease, aka Parvovirus B12. Prego can have misscariage.

146
Q

What is Treponema Pallidum? Best test to order? If positive order what?

A

-spirochaete bacterium that causes syphilis.
-Screening test: Rapid plasma reagin (RPR), confirmatory test is Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL). A positive FTA-ABS is often a sign of a syphilis infection. This test result will remain positive for life even if syphilis has been adequately treated. Therefore, it cannot be used to monitor the treatment of syphilis or determine that you have active syphilis.

147
Q

What are Janeway lesions? osler nodes?

A

-are rare, non-tender, small erythematous or haemorrhagic macular, papular or nodular lesions on the palms or soles only a few millimeters in diameter that are associated with infective endocarditis and often indistinguishable from Osler’s nodes. Osler’s nodes are on the tip of the finger or toes and painful. Janeway lesions occur on palm and soles and are non-painful

148
Q

-Prego and UTI tx?

A

Amox and cephalosporins category B.
can use macrobid

149
Q

Age Colon cancer screening recommendation?

A

age 50

150
Q

Mammogram’s screening recommendation?

A

age 50-75 ish. every 2 years. Positive family history can start sooner, age 45

151
Q

Papanicolaou screening recommendation?

A

Start at age 21 no matter sexual activity or number of partners
- Papanicolaou= GYN PAP

152
Q

At what age do we start vaccinating for Singles?

A

60
Earliest 50

153
Q

Leading cause of death ages: 0-12 mos,

A

-0-12mos: congenital abn

154
Q

Leading cause of death ages 1-44yr

A

unintentional accident

155
Q

Leading cause of death ages: 45-64 yrs?

A

cancer

156
Q

Leading cause of death ages >65 yrs?

A

heart

157
Q

Cancer causing most deaths male and female?
Cancer death female?
Cancer death male?
Most common cancer?
Most common GYN cancer?

A

Male and female lung
-Cancer death female: breast
-Cancer death male: prostate
-Most common cancer: basal cell
-Most common GYN cancer: cervical

158
Q

-Post menopausal female with spotting, what to do next? Why?

A

Warning sign cancer. endometrial?

159
Q

-Hep B vaccine schedule?

A
  1. 1mo . 6mo . Need 4 weeks between them at least.
160
Q

Immigrant woman with negative Hep B antibodies and Hep B antigen, what do you do next?

A

vaccinate

161
Q

-3 main causes of adolescent death?

A

-MVA, suicide, homocide

162
Q

when to screen for autism

A

18-24 months

163
Q

1st line tx for OCD, PTSD, GAD…

A

SSRI

*citalopram (Celexa)
* escitalopram (Lexapro)
* fluoxetine (Prozac or Oxactin)
* paroxetine (Seroxat)
* sertraline (Lustral)

164
Q

Antidepressant choice for elderly?

A

escitalopram (Lexapro) . Due to short ½ life
citalopram (Celexa)- lest interactions

165
Q

SSRIs to avoid in elderly? Why?

A

Prozac , due to long ½ life

166
Q

Topical steroids strengths?

A

class 1 is super potent, class 7 least potent.

Super potent= clobetasol #1 , least potent = OTC hydrocortisone # 7 .

167
Q

Impetigo tx?

A

muprocin

168
Q

Hidradenitis suppurativa: what it is? Tx?

A

severe acne under armpit, groin area. Painful large dark red nodules, abscesses, pustules. Overweight. Topical-PO-Acutane. Cloherxadine (mild) topical, antibacterial soap (topical), clindamycin solution with benzil peroxide, warm compress to mature abscess. Patient education: loose weight, exercise, avoid foods that are high glycemic: dairy, smoking.

169
Q

Rosacea tx?

A

Metro gel

170
Q

Patients come in with red spots like rash on palms/soles, fever, HA, myalgia.
Were hiking, what is the most likely diagnosis? Tx?

A

Mountain spotted fever
tx with doxy

life threatening so ok to give doxy to kids < 7 yrs

171
Q

What is tinea versicolor?

A

fungal infection of the skin: hypopigmented oval, non pruritic spots lighter than other parts.
tx with anti-fungal

172
Q

Itchy purplish, flat-topped bumps? Tx?

A

lichen planus. Tx: steroids.

173
Q

Erysipelas causative organism?

A

group A streptococcal bacteria

174
Q

1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th line tx for Asthma?

A

step 1: as needed low dose ICS- Budesonide, fluticasone etc. = sx < 2x month
(or low dose ICS taken when SABA is taken)

  • step 2: daily low dose ICS or as needed low dose ICS
    (or daily leukotriene receptor antagonist (ex. montelukast ) or low dose ICS taken when SABA taken) = sx 2x month or more but not daily
  • step 3: low dose ICS + LABA (salmeterol, fometerol ) = sx most days or waking w/ asthma 1x week or more
  • step 4: med dose ICS + LABA= sx most says or waking w/ asthma 2x week or more or low lung fx

Should have short acting SABA alwyas

175
Q

1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th line tx for COPD?

A

SABA, LAMA, LABA, ICS

176
Q

What causes whooping frequent and violent coughing that can make it hard for a person to breathe.
How to tx?

A

Pertussis
* paroxysmal cough
Tx with macrolide

177
Q

Patient comes in with rusty color sputum, chills, productive cough, fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Bacterial pneumonia

178
Q

2 main causative organisms for atypical pneumonia (walking pneumonia) ?

A

Chlamydia pneumonia, Mycoplasma pneumonia

179
Q

Possible side effect of aspirin?

A
  • tinnitus: Although disturbing, this side effect usually disappears when the dose is decreased
180
Q

Tylenol’s max daily dose?

A

4g

181
Q

Coumadin and Bactrim, ok to give together? Why?

A

not ok, increased risk of bleeding

182
Q

Which abx medications are safe to give to Prego?

A

Penicillins, including amoxicillin, ampicillin. Cephalosporins,
including cefaclor, cephalexin. Erythromycin

183
Q

Which BP meds OK for Prego? Which BP meds NOT OK?

A

OK: labetatlol, nifedipine, methyldopa.
* NOT OK: ACE inhibitors, statins

184
Q

What drugs to avoid with grapefruit juice?

A

statins, warfarin. Too much alcohol, cranberry products, or
grapefruit products can INCREASE warfarin’s effect and
increase your risk of bleeding

185
Q

How soon do you follow up after starting someone on Synthroid?

A

8 weeks

186
Q

What population would you avoid giving Wellbutrin to?

A

Do not give Wellbutrin to: anorexia or bulimia, or hx of seizures. Alcohol withdrawals don’t give due to increase of seizures

187
Q

Allergies to antibiotics order?

A

PCN-macrolides-doxy-levoquin.

188
Q

Food’s rich in Mg?

A

nuts, beans, laxatives, antacids

189
Q
  • Food’s rich in potassium?
A

most fruits

190
Q
  • Foods to avoid with celiac disease?
A

avoid wheat (including spelt, farro, graham, khorasan wheat, semolina, durum, and wheatberries.), rye, barley: breads, cereals, cookies.

191
Q

Foods to avoid with Gout?

A

Skip foods and drinks that are high in purines to help lower your chances of an attack.
● Beer and grain liquors (like vodka and whiskey)
● Red meat, lamb, and pork
● Organ meats, such as liver, kidneys, and glandular meats like the thymus or pancreas (you may hear them called sweetbreads)
● Seafood, especially shellfish like shrimp, lobster, mussels, anchovies, and sardines
High-fructose products like soda and some juices, cereal, ice cream, candy, and fast food

192
Q

makes it hard to see things that are close

A

-Hyperopia (farsightedness)

193
Q

makes it difficult to see things that are far away

A

Myopia (nearsightedness)

194
Q

Patient with sudden floaters, like the curtain is closing, flashes of lights?

A

retinal detachment

195
Q

Difference between hordeolum, chalazion, pterygium?

A

hordeolum: stye, acute, painful, warm compress BID.
Chalazion: meibomian gland, gradual, not acute, painless, tx I&D to ophthalmologist.
Pterygium: surfer’s eye, due to sun exposure, yellow triangular thickening

196
Q

Fundoscopic exam reveals microaneurysms, what is the condition?

A

DM

197
Q

Triglycerides >500, what sign are you looking for?

A
  • at risk for pancreatic rupture, tx is niacin or phenofibrate to sequester triglicerides . Look for Cullen sign
198
Q

Triglycerides >800, what medication to give?

A

true emergency, give something right away to sequester fenofibrate (tricor). Serious risk of pancreatitis.

199
Q

A patient tests negative for hep B antibody and positive for the antigen, what do you do?

A

Tx with Hep B Vax and Hep B immune globulin

200
Q

Acute, sudden, eye pain, injection of the eye, headache. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Closed angle glaucoma

201
Q

Acute onset of calf pain, swelling, tenderness, redness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

DVT

202
Q

-Goal A1C: elderly? Young adult?

A

A1C: goal 65 yrs and older8.0
Under 7.0 if young adult

203
Q

How can you diagnose DM2?

A

fasting >126 x 2, random sugar grater 200, A1C > 6.5, 2 hr plasma >200.

204
Q

How much and how often can you increase insulin Lantus?

A

2-3 units every 2-3 days

205
Q

Patient comes in with bronze skin, dizziness, fatigue, nausea. Dx?

A

Addisons
tx= steroids

206
Q

Goal TSH level?

A

between 0.5 to 2.5 mU/L.

207
Q

-Beta Blocker side effects?

A

fatigue, depression

208
Q

ACE/ARBs side effects?

A

ACE: dry cough. ARBS: HA, dizziness

209
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers side effects?

A

HA, ankle edema

210
Q

Best HTN medication for elderly? Why?

A

CCB open things up

211
Q

Patient with sudden palpitations, dizziness, fatigue, inability to exercise, weakness, SOB?

A

Afib. Most common arrhythmia in US, most common cause of stroke, risk factors: HTN, nicotine. Sudden palpitations classic give away. ED

212
Q

Mid systolic click

A

MVP

213
Q

S2 fixed split.

A

septal defect

214
Q

What is the ASCVD? Its cutoff?

A

Tool for hyperlipidemia
7.5%. Above that treat for hyperlipidemia

215
Q

Most likely condition with a bruit over the carotid artery?

A

arterial narrowing and atherosclerosis

216
Q

BP goal >65? <65?

A

> 60 or older: <150/90. Goal
* <60, <140/90 or less.

217
Q

BP goal DM or chronic kidney diseases all ages

A

<140/90

218
Q

HTN tx non black and black pts

A

ACE, ARBs, CC, THZ.
Black: CC, THZ.

219
Q

HTN meds for Kidney disease, dm

A

ACE or ARB

220
Q

What is coenzyme 10 good for?

A

heart health

221
Q

When should a patient call the provider with CHF?

A

weight gain 3 lbs in 24 hrs or 5 lbs 1 week

222
Q

What is paroxysmal atrial tachycardia?

A

a type of arrhythmia, or irregular heartbeat. Paroxysmal means
that the episode of arrhythmia begins and ends abruptly. Atrial
means that arrhythmia starts in the upper chambers of the heart
(atria). Tachycardia means that the heart is beating abnormally
fast

223
Q

INR interpretation and goal

A

2-3. INR low means your blood is taking longer to clot. When your PT or INR is too high, you have an increased risk of bleeding

2.5-3.5 if heart valve

224
Q

a condition where the corners of the mouth become
inflamed, which can lead to cracking and pain at the corners of the mouth. The cracks can split and bleed; they can also make it difficult to yawn, chew, or talk.

A

Cheilosis

225
Q

Low levels platelets = increased bleeding
Easy bruising, petechiae, epistaxis, gingival bleeding

A

ITP

decreased platelets, anything less than <100,000 consider ITP <30,000.

226
Q

Tx for ITP

in kids?

A

Glucocorticoids

In children, ITP usually resolves without any treatment. Adults commonly need treatment
with medications for bleeding. Rarely the spleen may need to be removed.

227
Q

may occur when the immune system mistakenly
attacks platelets. In children, it may follow a viral infection. In adults, it may be chronic.

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

228
Q

also known as spoon nails, is a nail disease that can be a
sign of hypochromic anemia, especially iron-deficiency anemia

A

Koilonychia

229
Q

It is used for culturing and primarily isolating
pathogenic Neisseria bacteria, including Neisseria gonorrhoe, as the medium inhibits the growth of most other microorganisms.

A

Thayer-Martin agar

230
Q

CAGE

A

C-cut down, A- annoyance, G-guilty, E-early morning
drink.

231
Q

Stethoscope: when is the bell vs diaphragm used?

A

diaphragm used for high pitched, bell for low.

232
Q

What is the drug used for trigeminal neuralgia? What is the cream used?

A

Tegretol
cream= capsacian

233
Q

Best test to diagnose diverticulitis?

A

CT

234
Q

Best test to diagnose cholelithiasis?

A

US

235
Q

Best test to diagnose appendicitis?

A

CT

236
Q

Cluster HA tx: immediate in office, prophylaxis, and abortive?

A

Cluster HA: O2, medication prophylaxis (CC like verapamil to open
things up) and abortive. (triptans)

237
Q

Gout: long vs short term tx?

A

Gout: acute tx with Indocin (indomethacin). Colchicine to relieve pain.

For long term tx allopurinol.

238
Q

Diagnostic test for giant cell?

A

Biopsy