Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Med III > Pulmonary Pathology Part 2 > Flashcards

Pulmonary Pathology Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a bronchoscopy

A

Use of a fiberoptic scope that is used to diagnosis and treat pulmonary conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can be done with a bronchoscopy (2)

A
  1. Secretions can be obtained

2. Visualize the upper airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 type of cough

A
  1. Dry
  2. Productive
  3. Hemoptysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a productive cough

A

Purulent sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is hemoptysis

A

Coughing up blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can hemoptysis be due to (5)

A
  1. Abscess
  2. Infection
  3. Inflammation
  4. Tumor
  5. Infarction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is dsypnea

A

Shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False:

Digital clubbing occurs to all digits

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is an acute cough seen

A

Upper respiratory infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is a chronic cough seen

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a dry cough

A

Little value, often spirals into a self perpetuated cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 3 types of sputum

A
  1. Bloody (hemoptysis)
  2. Purulent (pussy)
  3. Non-purulent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do you have non-purulent sputum

A

Post nasal drip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False:

Dsypnea is usually indicating poor ventilation or perfusion

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are 3 causes of dsypnea

A
  1. Increase awareness of normal breathing
  2. Increased work to breath
  3. Abnormal ventilatory function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is orthopnea

A

Being in a recumbent position causes SOB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What si paroxsymal nocturnal dyspnea

A

Sudden SOB at night that wakes patient up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 general types of dyspnea

A
  1. At rest

2. With exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 2 onsets of dyspnea

A
  1. Acute

2. Gradual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or False:

Acute onset of dyspnea may be indicative of a PE

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the chest pain is in the chest wall is the origin due to pulmonary dysfunction

A

Nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chest wall chest pain characteristics (2)

A
  1. Superficial

2. Localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If chest pain is visceral is the origin due to visceral organs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Visceral chest pain characteristics (2)

A
  1. Deep

2. Hard to localize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True or False:

Pulmonary chest pain can present like musculoskeletal pain

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pulmonary chest pain characteristics (3)

A
  1. Substernal or chest
  2. Directly over the involved lung fields
  3. Anterior, lateral or posterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or False:

Chest pain can radiate

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When does chest pain usually occur (4)

A
  1. Inspiration
  2. Deep breath
  3. Cough
  4. Laugh
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is cyanosis

A

Bluish tint often due to low PaO2 or HgB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is central cyanosis

A

Poor gas exchange to mucous membranes (tongue, lips) and arterial saturation is often less than 75-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is peripheral cyanosis

A

Excess peripheral oxygen extraction seen in the fingertips, toes, nose, and nails often associated with cold external temps, anxiety, heart failure, or shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is another name for clubbing

A

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is clubbing

A

Thick and wide terminal phalanges with loss of the angle between the nail and the nail bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is clubbing normally due to

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate

A

12-16 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is depth of breathing

A

Chest excursion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is effort of breathing

A

How hard one works to breathe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is apnea

A

Temporary stop in breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is tachypnea

A

Rapid shallow breathing more than 20 in a minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is bradypnea

A

Slow rate of brathing less than 12 per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or False:

Lung disease is the 2nd most common cause of disibility in adults of 65

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or False:

Lung disease is the 3rd leading cause of death in the US

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 chronic respiratory diseases

A
  1. Obstructive

2. Restrictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are 3 types of obstructive lung diseases

A
  1. COPD
  2. Asthma
  3. Chronic bronchitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are 2 types of restrictive lung diseases

A
  1. Extrapulmonary disorders

2. Parenchyma disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an obstructive lung disease

A

Increased airway resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a restrictive lung disease

A

Lungs are prevented from expanding fully

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Characteristics of COPD (4)

A
  1. Bronchial wall inflammation and fibrosis
  2. Hypertrophy and hypersecretion of submucosal glands
  3. Loss of elastic lung fibers and alveolar tissue
  4. Decreased ability to get air out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Is the TLC, FRC, and FEV1/FVC of a patient with COPD increased or decreased

A 
TLC increased (can't get air out so the more air that comes in stays in)
FRC Increased (can't get air out)
FEV1/FVC severely decreased (can't get air out)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does blood gas measurements of someone with COPD look like

A

Hypoxemia or hypercapnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is hypercapnia

A

Excess CO2 in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does an x-ray show in a patient with COPD (5)

A

Hyperinflation, flattened diaphragm, enlarged residual volume, increased costophrenic angle, increased translucency of lungs

53
Q

How does one manage COPD (8)

A
  1. Smoking cessation
  2. Pulmonary hygiene (coughing/chest PT)
  3. Exercise
  4. Drugs
  5. Control complications
  6. Avoid irritants
  7. Psychological support
  8. Diet management
54
Q

What are the goals of COPD management (8)

A
  1. Increase oxygenation
  2. Increase activity tolerance
  3. Decrease CO2 retention
  4. Decrease airway edema/inflammation
  5. Decrease secretions
  6. Decrease anxiety/depression
  7. Prevent infection
  8. Control complications
55
Q

True or False:

A patient with COPD has a poor prognosis

A

True

56
Q

IS there a cure for COPD

A

Nope but oxygen can increase survival rate

57
Q

True or False:

Asthma is a reversible obstructive lung disease

A

True

58
Q

What is asthma

A

Chronic airway inflammation and narrowing due to airways overreacting

59
Q

What is asthma due to (6)

A
  1. Biochemical
  2. Immunological
  3. Infectious
  4. Endocrine
  5. Psychological
  6. Autonomic
60
Q

True or False:

Asthma is the most common chronic disease in adults and children

A

True

61
Q

What are the 2 types of asthma

A
  1. Extrinsic (allergic) asthma

2. Intrinsic (non-allergic) asthma

62
Q

What is extrinsic asthma triggered by

A

Environmental factors or sports

63
Q

What is intrinsic asthma triggered by

A

Unknown but may be secondary to respiratory infection

64
Q

When is asthma most likely to occur

A

Before 5 years old

65
Q

True or False:

Childhoof aasthma is 3 times more likely and severe in boys

A

True

66
Q

What makes a person more susceptible to asthma (11)

A
  1. High BMI
  2. LBW babies
  3. Premature babies
  4. Urban/industrialized setting
  5. Colder climates
  6. Poverty
  7. Exposure to smoke
  8. Dust
  9. Cockroaches
  10. Mold
  11. Gas stove
67
Q

What is the pathophys of asthma in 4 steps

A
  1. Airway inflammation due to infiltration, mucosal edema
  2. Bronchial smooth muscle spasm due to irritaiton
  3. Thick mucous production and impaired mucocilliary function
  4. Airway spasms and mucous plugs the airway so distal air is trapped
68
Q

True or False:

Asthma has VQ mismathc, hypoxemia, and increase work to breathe

A

True

69
Q

True or False:

With asthma the airway is always inflammed

A

True

70
Q

Signs and symptoms of asthma (5)

A
  1. Chest tightness
  2. Wheezing
  3. Breathlessness (prolonged expiration)
  4. Cough often worse at night
  5. Tachypnea
71
Q

What can be observed by looking at someone with asthma (3)

A
  1. Signs of fatigue
  2. Pale/cyanotic skin
  3. Dry or productive cough
72
Q

How does one prevent/treat asthma (4)

A
  1. Education
  2. Identify triggers
  3. Exercise below bronchospasm threshold
  4. Medications (bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory)
73
Q

True or False:

25% of childhood asthma resolves or the symptoms lessen

A

True

74
Q

What is status astmaticus

A

Acute asthma attack with severe bronchospasm that is a medical emergency

75
Q

What are the symptoms of status astmaticus (3)

A
  1. Diminished.absent breath sounds
  2. May lead to hypoxemia or acidosis
  3. Can lead to respiratory and cardiac arrest
76
Q

What is chronic bronchitis

A

History of a productive cough of at least 3 months in duration for 2 consecutive years

77
Q

What is the pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis

A

Inflammation and scarring of the bronchial lining

78
Q

What are effected first small or large airways

A

Larger then smaller airways

79
Q

What happens in chronic bronchitis

A

Inflammation obstruct airflow and increases mucous secretions decreasing airway clearance increasing risk of infection

80
Q

What happens when more proximal airways collapse with chronic bronchitis

A

Air becomes trapped in distal airways and there is decreased alveolar ventilation leading to hypoxia and acidosis

81
Q

Early symptoms of chronic bronchitis (5)

A
  1. Persistent cough with sputum production
  2. Worse in am and pm
  3. SOB
  4. Prolonged expiration
  5. Recurrent infection
82
Q

Later symptoms of chronic bronchitis (8)

A
  1. Decreased chest expansion, alveolar ventilation, and exercise tolerance
  2. Wheezing
  3. Cyanosis
  4. Increased PaCO2
  5. Hypoxemia leading to polycythemia
  6. Increased risk of infection
  7. Sleep distrubances
  8. Severe disability or death
83
Q

What is polcythemia

A

Overproduction of RBCs to compensate for O2 deficiency in blood

84
Q

How does one manage chronic bronchitis (7)

A
  1. Clear secretions
  2. Reduce work of breathing
  3. Maximize aerobic capacity, exercise tolerance, and strength
  4. Monitor signs of pulmonary distress
  5. Education
  6. Smoking cessation
  7. Meds
85
Q

What does the chest x-ray of someone with chronic bronchitis look like

A

Low diaphragm with decreased radiolucency due to gas being trapped in

86
Q

True or False:

Emphysema is the second characteristic of COPD

A

True

87
Q

What causes emphysema (3)

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Heredity
  3. Genetic (AAT protein deficiency)
88
Q

When is genetics considered to be the cause of emphysema

A

Someone under 40 who is a non smoker

89
Q

What is emphysema

A

Increased release of elastase that leads to destruction of elastin and loss of elasticity and recoil of lungs and overdistended air spaces or destroyed alveolar walls

90
Q

What does the loss of elasticity cause

A

Airway narrowing/collapse

91
Q

True or False:

In emphysema airway narrowing is not due to mucous production

A

True

92
Q

What are the 2 types of emphysema

A
  1. Centriacinar

2. Pantracinar

93
Q

When is centriacinar emphysema most commonly seen

A

In men who smoke with chronic bronchitis

94
Q

When is pantracinar emphysema seen

A

AAT deficiency

95
Q

What are the 2 types of centriacinar emphysema

A
  1. Centrilobular

2. Panlobular

96
Q

Where is centrilobular emphysema most common

A

UPPER lung

97
Q

What happens in centrilobular emphysema

A

Destruction of bronchioles but alveolar sacs stay intact and inflammation and edema develop around the airways

98
Q

Where is panlobular emphysema most common

A

LOWER lung

99
Q

What happens in panlobular emphysea

A

Destruction of the airspaces in the entire love beginning in the alveolie and expanding centrally creating bullae

100
Q

What is bullae

A

Dead space

101
Q

Initial symptoms of emphysema (6)

A
  1. Exertional dyspnea
  2. Cough is uncommon
  3. Tacypnea with prolonged expiration
  4. Accessory muscle use increases
  5. Thin (cachectic)
  6. Barrell chest due to hyper expansion and air being trapped in lungs
102
Q

What causes the cachectic/thin body

A

Breathing is more important than eating to the patient

103
Q

Later symptoms of emphysema (3)

A
  1. Dyspnea at rest
  2. Loss of surface area for gas exchange
  3. Cardiac complications
  4. Depression
  5. Malnutrition
  6. Insomnia
  7. Pneumonia
  8. CHF
  9. PE
104
Q

What are the cardiac complications that come with later stage emphysema

A

Dilated/enlarged right ventricle (cor pulmonale) leading to increased SV, CO, and RBC count

105
Q

What does the x-ray of a patient with emphysema look like

A

Hyperinflated, flattened hemidiaphragms, elongated heart (due to cor polmonale, may look twisted)

106
Q

How do you treat emphysema (7)

A
  1. Smoking cessation
  2. Pursed lip breathing
  3. O2 therapy is limited
  4. Education
  5. Meds
  6. Reduce work of breathing
  7. Maximize aerobic capacity, physical endurance, and strength
107
Q

How does one with emphysema normally die

A

Cardiac complications

108
Q

What is bronchiectasis

A

Extreme bronchitis that is irreversible airway destruction and dilation of medium sized bronchi and bronchioles

109
Q

True or False:

Bronchiectasis is associated with chronic bacterial infections

A

True

110
Q

What increases your risk of bronchiectasis (4)

A
  1. Tb
  2. Pneumonia
  3. Immunodeficiences
  4. Cancer
111
Q

What is the cycle seen in bronchiectasis

A

Inflammatory lung damage then irreversible fragmentation of bronchial wall then fibrosis and damage of bronchial lumen

112
Q

Where does bronchiectasis most commonly occur

A

Lower lungs

113
Q

Signs and symptoms of bronchiectasis (10)

A
  1. Persistent cough with large amound of purulent sputum with a foul smell
  2. Weight loss
  3. Anemia
  4. Fever
  5. Hemoptysis
  6. Fatigue
  7. Weakness
  8. Nasal congestion
  9. Sinusitis draingage
  10. Clubbing
114
Q

Treatment of bronchiectasis (5)

A
  1. Pulmonary PT
  2. Meds
  3. Hydration
  4. O2 therapy
  5. Surgical resection if well localized
115
Q

What are complications of bronciectasis (5)

A
  1. Spread of infection
  2. Recurrent pneumonia
  3. Lung abscesses
  4. Metastatic infections
  5. Respiratory failure
116
Q

What is bronchiolitis

A

Severe lower airway (bronchiole) inflammation due to viral infection with hyperinflation or patchy ares of atelectasis distal to inflammation

117
Q

When does bronchiolitis occur

A

Children under 2 years old

118
Q

What is bronchiolitis obliterans

A

Bronchiolitis in adults due to complication in heart-lung transplant

119
Q

True or False:

Bronchiolitis can be caused by pulmonary infection, viruses, pertussis, or measels

A

True

120
Q

True or False:

Bronchiolitis is seasonal seen in the winter and spring

A

True

121
Q

How are the organisms that cause bronchiolitis spread

A

Hand, nose, or eyes

122
Q

What is atelectasis

A

Complete or partial collapse of part lung

123
Q

What happens to air trapped distally

A

It will diffuse into the capillaries and the alveoli will collapse

124
Q

What are the signs of bronchiolitis (10)

A
  1. Upper respiratory infection
  2. Nasal discharge
  3. Mild fever
  4. Cough
  5. cyanosis
  6. dyspnea
  7. sputum production
  8. Wheezing
  9. Hypercapnea
  10. Respiratory acidosis
125
Q

Is a chest x-ray useful for diagnosis bronchiolitis

A

Nope

126
Q

How do you treat bronchiolitis (7)

A
  1. No specific treatment
  2. Steroids
  3. Humidified air
  4. Hydration
  5. Postural drainage
  6. Deep breathing
  7. Oxygen hood/tent
127
Q

What is the prognosis of bronchiolitis

A

3-10 days

128
Q

What happens when air gets into the blood stream

A

You die

Clin Med III (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions