Pulm Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common site of ADR

A

skin, GI, CNS

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2
Q

Common presentations of drug-induced pulmonary disorders

A

apnea
bronchospasm
pulmonary edema
pulmonary eosinophilia
pulmonary fibrosis

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3
Q

Risk factors for drug-induced pulmonary disorders

A

age
pre-existing lung disease
combo therapy
cumulative doses
oxygen therapy
radiation therapy
occupational risk factors

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4
Q

Diagnosis for drug-induced pulmonary disorders

A

nonspecific clinical, radiologic, and histologic findings
often at diagnosis of exclusion
characteristic pattern of reaction to a specific drug
discontinuing the drug may reverse toxicity

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5
Q

Classification of drug-induced pulmonary disorders

A

histology/pathophysiology
med class
clinical manifestation

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6
Q

meds that cause drug-induced bronchospasm

A

aspirin
beta-blockers
sulfites
contrast media
ACE
N-acetylcysteine
natural rubber/latex allergy

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7
Q

Airway obstruction/bronchospasm

A

most common drug-induced pulmonary disorders
increased risk in patients with pre-existing bronchial diseases

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8
Q

Pathophysiological mechanisms for airway obstruction/bronchospasm

A

anaphylaxis (PCN, ceph, sulfa)
direct airway irritation (N-acetylcysteine, pollutants, DPI)
beta 2 receptor blockade
cyclo-oxygenase inhibition (NSAID, ASA)
anaphylactoid mast cell degranulation (contrast dye)

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9
Q

Causes of apnea/respiratory depression

A

CNS depression
respiratory neuromuscular blockade

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10
Q

Risk factors for apnea/respiratory depression

A

Age
COPD
alveolar hypoventilation/CO2 retention
dose
multiple agents

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11
Q

ACE inhibitor induced cough

A

women > men
African Americans and Chinese
seen with all ACE-inhibitors
occurs 3 days to 1 year after initiation

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12
Q

Drug-induced pulmonary edema is a failure of any one, or combo of homeostatic mechanisms:

A

increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure due to left ventricular failure
disruptions in osmotic and oncotic pressures in vasculature
damaged alveolar epithelium
disruption in interstitial pulmonary pressure
obstructed interstitial lymph flow

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13
Q

Drug-induced pulmonary eosinophilia (symptoms of loeffler’s syndrome)

A

fever
productive cough
dyspnea
cyanosis
bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
eosinophilia in the blood

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14
Q

Drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis

A

chemo agents make up largest group
caused by:
O2 therapy
chemo
radiation
infection
inflammatory injury

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15
Q

Drug-induced pulmonary HTN

A

cocaine
oral contraceptives
amphetamines
chemo agents
anorexic agents

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16
Q

Drug-induced pleural effusions

A

methysergide, practolol (idiopathic)
drug induced lupus syndrome:
procainamide, hydralazine

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17
Q

Beta blocker induced bronchospasm

A

may increase risk of asthma
less risk in cardio-selective agents
caution with topical admin of timolol for open angle glaucoma

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18
Q

Sulfite-induced bronchospasm

A

rare, severe, life-threatening asthmatic rxn after restaurant meals and wines
-food preservative potassium metabisulfite
-could be EDTA and benzalkonium chloride

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19
Q

Management pre-treatment drugs for sulfite-induced bronchospasm

A

cromolyn
anticholinergics
cyanocobalamin

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20
Q

N-acetylcysteine

A

use via inhalation as a mucolytic
direct airway irritation
admin beta 2 agonist w/ or APAP prior to N-acetylcysteine

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21
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced pulmonary edema

A

cardiogenic
excessive IV fluids
blood and plasma transfusions
corticosteroids
opioids
idiosyncratic rxn to med/high dose narcotics
salicylate overdose

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22
Q

Treatment for opioid-induced edema

A

naloxone, oxygen, ventilator
sx improve 24-48 h
CXR clear 2-5 days
pulm fx test abnormalities may persist up to 10-12 wks

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23
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced pulmonary eosinophilia

A

nitrofurantoin
para-aminosalicylic acid
methotrexate
sulfonamides
tetracyclines
chlorpropamide
phenytoin
NSAID
imipramine

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24
Q

Drug-induced pulmonary eosinophilia treatment

A

rapid improvement in sx following disc
-complete recovery in 15 days of w/drawl
anecdotal reports steroids may be beneficial

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25
Q

Signs and symptoms of drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis

A

dyspnea
hypoxemia
nonproductive cough
diffuse alveolar damage
interstitial pneumonitis

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26
Q

Risk factors for drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis: antineoplastics

A

cumulative dose
increased age
concurrent or previous radiotherapy
oxygen therapy
other cytotoxic drug therapy
pre-existing pulmonary disease

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27
Q

Drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis: Belomycin

A

dose dependent
generate superoxide anions
sx: cough and dyspnea
-chronic progressive fibrosis most common
-acute hypersensitivity rxn occur infrequently

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28
Q

Other chemotherapeutic agents that cause drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis

A

alkylating agents
antimetabolites
methotrexate

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29
Q

Risk factors for drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis: amiodarone

A

from wk to 6 yrs before onset
higher during first 12 months of therapy
cardiopulmonary surgery combined with the administration of high concentrations of oxygen
maintenance dose >400 mg for more than 2 months***
smaller doses for more than 2 years

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30
Q

Drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis amiodarone clinical features

A

exertional dyspnea (DOE)
nonproductive cough
wt loss
occasional low grade fever
radiographic changes are non-diagnostic
hypoxia, restrictive changes and diffusion abnormalities

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31
Q

Management for drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis

A

disc therapy
oxygen therapy
maybe corticosteroids

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32
Q

Classification of pleural disease

A

pleurisy (caused by viral pneumonia)
hemothorax, pneumothorax, chylothorax
pleural effusion

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33
Q

Pleuisy (aka pleuritis) symptoms can be treated with what

A

NSAIDS
cough suppressants

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34
Q

hemothorax, pneumothorax, chylothorax definition

A

a disruption in the pleural space and subsequent accumulation of air, blood, or lymph, resulting in compromised lung expansion

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35
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax

A

acute rapidly expanding pneumothorax; pressure exerted on the heart and greater vessels cause hemodynamic instability; may be fatal

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36
Q

Clinical presentation of hemothorax, pneumothorax, chylothorax

A

SOB
DOE
chest pain and dyspnea
tachypnea
cough

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37
Q

Management of hemothorax, pneumothorax, chylothorax

A

medical/surgical
-chest tube thoracostomy
adjunctive pharmacotherapy
-analgesia (opioides 1st line agent)
antimicrobial therapy

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38
Q

Antimicrobial therapy for management of hemothorax, pneumothorax, chylothorax

A

depend on circumstances of placement (use when placed in field)
1st gen cephalosporin (cedazolin x24 h)

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39
Q

Pathophysiology of pleural effusions

A

fluid movement into/out of pleural space determined by pressure gradient
(hydrostatic pressure from vessels, oncotic pressure from proteins in blood plasma)
“Fluid in”
“Fluid out”
Fluid accumulation due to loss of fluid homeostasis defines a pleural effusion

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40
Q

Pleural effusions: what does fluid in vs fluid out caused by

A

in: parietal pleura capillary hydrostatic pressure
out: lymphatic drainage

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41
Q

What is transudative pleural effusion

A

increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased oncotic pressure or both
pleural membrane not affected (pleurae are normal)
management: treat underlying cause
unresolved, severe, and recurrent effusions: thoracentesis, pleurodesis

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42
Q

What is exudative pleural effusion

A

result of pleural membrane disease
(caused by pneumonia or neoplastic disease)
management: treat underlying cause
requires direct intervention

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43
Q

What is pneumonia and neoplastic disease as a result of pleural membrane disease

A

pneumonia: parapneumonic effusion
neoplastic disease: lung, breast, lymph

44
Q

Transudative: pleural fluid composition, pleural membrane involvement, most common etiology, often frequent cause

A

pleural fluid composition: low protein
pleural membrane involvement: no
most common etiology: HF
often frequent cause: cirrhosis, PE, nephrotic sydrome, SVC obstruction

45
Q

Exudative: pleural fluid composition, pleural membrane involvement, most common etiology, often frequent cause

A

pleural fluid composition: high protein, cell count, LDH
pleural membrane involvement: Yes
most common etiology: pneumoniae
often frequent cause: neoplastic disease, infection (empyema), PE, drugs

46
Q

Drugs that cause exudative pleural effusion

A

methotrexate
bromocriptine
nitrofurantoin
dantrolene
amiodarone

47
Q

Diagnosis of pleural effusion

A

usually CXR (does not differentiate btw transudative and exudative)

48
Q

Who gets treated in pleural effusions

A

symptomatic
recurrent

49
Q

General approach to management of pleural effusions

A

stabilize the patient (ABC)
treat the underlying cause
provide symptomatic relief
prevent complications
prevent recurrence

50
Q

Management of pleural effusions: thoracentesis (pleuracentesis)

A

needle drainage
one-time procedure
effective, but high incidence of recurrence
often diagnostic, not therapeutic

51
Q

Management of pleural effusions: tube thoracostomy

A

drainage
instillation of pharm agents
tx of loculated effusions (intrapleural meds)

52
Q

tx of loculated effusions in tube thoracostomy

A

streptokinase 250,000 units/urokinase 100,000 (units in 50-100 ml NS instilled once or twice daily)
alteplase 10 mg in NS 50 ml BID x6 doses
dornase alfa 5 mg in NS 50 ml BID x6 doses
alteplase + dornase alfa

53
Q

Management of pleural effusions: pleurectomy

A

radical, side effects, rarely used

54
Q

Management of pleural effusions: pleuroperitoneal shunt

A

impractical/inconvenient, complicated, rarely used

55
Q

What is chemical pleurodesis

A

admin of a sclerosing agent into pleural space to induce a chemical pleuritis, which will form symphyses

56
Q

Chemical pleurodesis: candidates

A

symptomatic, recurrent effusions
symptomatic improvement (decrease SOB) w/ complete lung re-expansion following thoracentesis
no intrabronical obstruction

57
Q

Chemical pleurodesis: administration needs to have the following

A

ability of lung to expand
complete drainage of accumulated fluid
complete distribution of agent
absence of loculations

58
Q

Chemical pleurodesis: agents commonly used

A

doxycycline (500-1000 mg x1-3 doses; repeat 2-3 d prn)
talc (must be sterile, asbestos-free, larger particle; thprascopic insufflation vs slurry via chest tube)
bleomycin (chemo agent)

59
Q

Chemical pleurodesis: lidocaine

A

adjunctive therapy for local anesthesia
15-25 ml of a 1% soln (OR 3-4 mg/kg) instilled 15 min before procedure

60
Q

What kind of channel is CFTR

A

cAMP activated anion (Cl-) channel it increased volume of secretions and decreased viscosity of lung mucus

61
Q

What are the 6 different CFTR mutations

A

1: no protein
2: no traffic
3: no function
4: less function
5: less protein
6: less stable

62
Q

What CFTR modulators are potentiators

A

ivacaftor
deutivacaftor

63
Q

What CFTR modulators are correctors

A

lumacaftor
tezacaftor
elexacaftor
vanzacaftor

64
Q

Potentiators do what

A

increase opening time of the CTFR channel resulting in higher ion flow

65
Q

Correctors do what

A

facilitate the processing of mutated CFTR protein substrate leading to improved delivery to the cell membrane

66
Q

Amplifers do what

A

selectively increase the amount of immature CFTR protein in the cell providing additional substrate for correctors and potentiators to act upon

67
Q

Ivacaftor MOA

A

improve function of defective CFTR that reaches the cell surface
binds to defective protein at cell surface and opens chloride channel
improve gating capacity of CFTR activation of chloride channel of CFTR

68
Q

Lumacaftor MOA

A

correct the processing and trafficking of defected CFTR
CFTR can reach the cell surface
at cell surface, the drug can further enhance the channel function

69
Q

What drug causes chest discomfort and can increase bronchial secretions and productive cough

A

Orkambi
Trikafta (only does increase secretions)

70
Q

What drug causes cataracts and can increase serum bilirubin and transaminases

A

Alyftrek
Trikafta (only does increase serum)

71
Q

What is dornase alfa and its side effects

A

mucolytic agent
chest pain, voice disorder, pharyngitis, rhinitis, skin rash

72
Q

Dornase Alfa MOA

A

rhDNase which hydrolyzes the DNA in mucus of CF patients which decreases mucus viscosity

73
Q

In CF, impaired anion transport results in decreased secretion of more acidic fluid leading to what

A

precipitation of secreted proteins which decreases action of digestive enzyme causing malabsorption intraluminal obstruction of ducts leads to progressive pancreatic damage and atrophy

74
Q

Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (pancrelipase)

A

Creon, pancreaza, pertyze, ultresa, viokace, zenpep
acts on GI tract
contain combo of lipase, amylase and proteases
natural product from porcine pancreatic glands
causes neck pain, ad pain, nasal congestion

75
Q

What are the organs effected by CF

A

lungs, digestive system, reproductive organs

76
Q

What is the most common mutation of CF

A

delta F508
autosomal recessive disease

77
Q

Pathophysiology of gene mutations CF

A

mucosal obstruction
chloride transport
expression of other gene proteins involved in inflammatory processes, ion transport, cell signaling

78
Q

Pathophysiology of sweat glands CF

A

CTFR regulates ion transport and salt homeostasis
chloride fails to be reabsorbed which impacts sodium ion reabsorption
results in sweat with high salt

79
Q

Pathophysiology of lungs CF

A

abnormal Cl conductance on apical membrane, decrease airway surface liquid cause ciliary collapse and decreased mucociliary transport
causes mucus obstruction, infection, inflammation

80
Q

Sinus and pulmonary clinical presentation of CF

A

chronic infection and nasal polyps in sinus cavity
SOB/cough w/ sputum production
flat chest, decreased FEV1
bacterial overgrowth

81
Q

GI system clinical presentation of CF

A

obstruction of pancreatic ducts and intestinal tract, can not digest essential nutrients
infants: meconium ileus, steatorrhea, fail to thrive
older pt: severe constipation and insulin deficiency

82
Q

reproductive system clinical presentation CF

A

male: blockage of or congenital bilateral absence of vas defs -> azoospermia
females: decrease water content in cervics which decrease fertility

83
Q

Diagnosis of CF

A

IRT
QPIT (sweat chloride test)
<29 normal, 30-59 intermediate, >60 diagnostic (collect test from second site to confirm)

84
Q

Non pharm tx for CF

A

want normal wt in adults and normal growth in kids
110-200% energy intake (eat more food)

85
Q

What vitamins to take with PERT

A

A, D, E, K (fat soluble)
30 or greater ng/mL

86
Q

Dosing for PERT

A

500-2000 lipase units/kg/meal
10,000 lipase units/kg/day
4,000 lipase units/gm of dietary fat/day
risk: <12 yo, doses >6,000 lipase units/kg/meal for >6 months, h/o meconium ileus, intestinal surgery, ibd

87
Q

Formulations for PERT

A

capsules (can be mixed with food, do not let sit)
Do not crush tablets
can take with H2-antagonist or PPI

88
Q

Risk factors for bone health and vitamin supplementation

A

malabsorption of vit D
poor nutritional status
physical inactivity
glucocorticoid therapy
antibiotics that require protection from sunlight exposure

89
Q

DXA t/z score: >-1.0, >-2.0, <-2.0

A

> -1.0: repeat in 5 years (opt vit D, ca, vit K)
-2.0: repeat 2-4 years (improve nutrition, aggressive pulmonary tx, min steroid dosing, treat Cf-related diabetes)
<-2.0: repeat yearly (improve nutrition, consider bisphosphonate)

90
Q

ACT airway clearance therapy steps

A

bronchodilator
hypertonic saline
dornase alfa
chest percussion
aerosolized antibiotics

91
Q

What are the 2 types of anti-inflammatory therapy for CF

A

Ibu (20-30 mg/kg BID) for 6-17 yo and FEV >60%
Azithromycin (for pseudomonas)

92
Q

Indications for antibiotic therapy for CF

A

acute pulmonary exacerbation, chronically infected w/ pasudomonas, require prevention of chronic psedudomonas
use aerosolized antibiotics

93
Q

Pathogens for CF

A

early: staph
late: psedudomonas (need drug for cell wall destruction and inhibit cell wall synthesis)
pathogens never fully eradicated

94
Q

What to use for CF pt with stenotrophomonas

A

SMZ-TMP
doxycycline

95
Q

Vaccinations for CF pts

A

flu shot >6 months
PCV
COVID-19

96
Q

Counseling for females and males with CF

A

female: OCP safe, DDI with OCP and antibiotics, patches may not adhere to skin
male: not infertile

97
Q

CFRD (cystic fibrosis related diabetes) clinical features

A

18-21 years
females predominance
yearly beginning at age 10 with OGTT
insulin is therapy of choice

98
Q

Ivacaftor indication and approved age

A

class 3, >1 month

99
Q

lumacaftor/ivacaftor indication and approved age

A

delta F508 mutation, >1 year

100
Q

tezacaftor/ivacaftor indication and approved age

A

delta F508 mutation, >6 year

101
Q

elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor indication and approved age

A

at least 1 delta F508 mutation, >2 years

102
Q

vanzacaftor/tezacaftor/deutivacaftor indication and approved age

A

at least 1 delta F508 mutation or another responsive mutation in CFTR gene, >6 years

103
Q

Pregnancy CF

A

high risk
monitor levels in first trimester to avoid toxicity while cont A, D, E, K vitamins
need more calories for breast feeding
complications: increased o2 uptake, blood volume, cardiac output, may cause right sided-HF

104
Q

Peds CF

A

education of pt and child

105
Q

Transplant CF

A

those for severe disease <30%
others: nutritional status, diabetes, number of CF exacerbations, compliance to care or immunosuppressant therapy

106
Q

follow up for CF

A

q1-3 months

107
Q

Desired outcomes in CF patients

A

sinopulmonary (prevent exacerbations, clearance of airways, bacterial colonization)
GI (optimize growth and nutrition, calorie intake)
psychosocial (education)