Neuro exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Theories for development of MS

A

environment (away from equator)
genetic (twins)
autoimmune (attack CNS)
viral/microbial

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2
Q

Pathophysiology of MS

A

demyelination (decrease oligodendrocytes)
inflammatory response (t-cell breakdown BBB)
both

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3
Q

Primary symptoms of MS

A

visual complaints/optic neuritis
gait problems and falls
paresthesia
pain, spasticity, weakness, ataxia, speech

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4
Q

Secondary symptoms of MS

A

recurrent UTI, urinary calculi
decubiti and osteomyelitis
osteoporosis
respiratory infections
poor nutrition
depression

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5
Q

Tertiary symptoms of MS

A

financial
person/social
vocational
emotional

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6
Q

What is expanded disability status scale (EDSS)

A

0 no disability 10 death from MS

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7
Q

Factors for MS that are reported to aggravate symptoms or lead to acute attack

A

infections
anemia
fever
sleep deprivation
stress
malnutrition
childbirth
organ dysfunction
exertion

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8
Q

Diagnosis of MS

A

MRI (lesions)
CSF (IgG elevations)

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9
Q

What is an MS attack classified as

A

new symptoms lasting at least 24 hours and separated from other symptoms by at least 30 days

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10
Q

What is relapsing-remitting (RRMS)

A

no disease progression between relapses
clearly defined disease relapses

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11
Q

What is secondary progressive (SPMS)

A

develops after initial RRMS course
50% of RRMS pt develop it

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12
Q

What is primary progressive (PPMS)

A

disease progression from onset, with continuous worsening

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13
Q

What is progressive-relapsing (PRMS)

A

progressive disease from onset
continuing progression between relapses

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14
Q

Favorable prognosis of MS

A

<40 yo
female
optic neuritis or sensory symptoms
low attack frequency
relapsing/remitting disease course

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15
Q

Unfavorable prognosis of MS

A

> 40 yo
male
motor or cerebellar symptoms
high attack frequency
progressive disease course

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16
Q

What is mild MS

A

do not produce functional decline and may not require any tx
some clinicians may use PO steroids

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17
Q

What is moderate MS

A

functional ability is affected
high dose corticosteroids shorten duration of acute exacerbations

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18
Q

What is severe MS

A

manifested by hemiplegia, paraplegia, quadriplegia
no response to steroid therapy
plasma exchange every other day x7 treatments

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19
Q

Optic neuritis tx for MS

A

visual loss, blurring, hazy vision
onset of symptoms sudden and progressive
lesions on optic nerve
IV methylprednisolone

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20
Q

What do corticosteroids do for MS

A

improve recovery by decrease edema, BBB abnormality, IgG synthesis
Methylprednisolone (500-1000) 3-10 days duration

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21
Q

Avonex: MOA, indications

A

interferon 1a
suppress t cell proliferation
decrease BBB permeability
for RRMS (non-FDA: SPMS)

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22
Q

Avonex: warnings, ADRs

A

depression, seizures, albumin allergy
flu-like, inj rxn, leukopenia, depression
decrease of 1 pt EDSS

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23
Q

Betaseron: MOA, indications

A

interferon 1b
suppress t cell proliferation
decrease BBB permeability
RRMS, SPMS w/ relapses
(non-FDA: SPMS w/out replases)

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24
Q

Betaseron: warnings, ADRs

A

depression, seizures, albumin allergy
flu-like, inj rxn, leukopenia, depression

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25
Q

Copaxone: MOA, indications

A

glatiramer acetate
suppress T-cell activation
reduce inflammation, demyelination, axonal damage at MS lesion
RRMS (non-FDA: PPMS)

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26
Q

Copaxone: warnings, ADRs

A

not for IV use
inj rxn, skin rash, transient chest pain

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27
Q

Natalizumab for MS

A

pt who cant take ABC
UTI, depression, joint pain, ab discomfort, infusion rxn

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28
Q

TOUCH program (REMS)

A

baseline MRI
pt evaluated at 3 and 6 months
risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
risk factors: >24 months tx, prior use of immunosuppressives, h/o JCV

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29
Q

SP1s for MS

A

oral for RRMS
first dose bradycardia, need ECG at baseline
cause macular edema, need eye exam
fetal harm

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30
Q

Fingolimod DDI

A

ketoconazole
admin live vaccines before drug or 2 months after discontinuation

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31
Q

Siponimod requires genetic screening prior to _________

A

initation
CI in CYP2C19*3 genotype

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32
Q

Ozanimod is contraindicated in what

A

severe untreated sleep apnea and MAO-I use

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33
Q

Ponesimod is a ______ half-life than other S1P agonists

A

shorter (leaves body in about 1 wk)

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34
Q

Teriflunomide for MS

A

reduce activated lymphocytes in CNS decreasing inflammation and demyelination
for relapsing form of MS
BBW: hepatotxicity, tertogenicity (avoid pregnant for 2 years after stopping)

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35
Q

What are the nuclear factor-like 2 activators for MS and their MOA

A

dimethyl (texifdera)
diroximel (vumerity)
monomethyl (bafiertam) - active form
activate the nuclear factor (NrF2) pathway involved in cellular response to oxidative stress

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36
Q

nuclear factor-like 2 activators considerations for MS

A

CBC prior to therapy, w/in 6 months, then annually
cause flushing: pretreat with 325 mg ASA 30 min prior to dose
take with food

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37
Q

Alemtuzumab (lemtrada) for MS

A

anti-CD-52; deplete T and B cells
for RRMS
high inf rxns and malignancies (REMS program)

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38
Q

Ofatumumab (kesimpta) for MS

A

anti-CD-20; selctively depletes B cells
for RRMS and active SPMS
hep B screening, increase risk of infections (PML)

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39
Q

Ocrelizumab (ocrevus) for MS

A

anti-Cd-20; humanized version of the rituximab monoclonal antibody
for RRMS, and PPMS
hep B screening, increase risk of infections (PML)

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40
Q

Mitoxantron for MS

A

decrease neurologic disability +/- frequency of relapse
SPMS, PRMS, RRMS
cause alopecia, dysmenorrhea, URI, UTI, cardiac toxicity

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41
Q

Cladribine for MS

A

impairs DNA synthesis resulting in dose dependent depletion of B and T cells
RRMS and active SPMS
2 courses 1 yr apart
increase risk of infections and malignancies
teratogenicity up until 6 months after dose

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42
Q

How to manage MS gait and spasticity

A

baclofen (somnolence and confusion)
tizanidine (cause less weakness, can cause sedation, dizziness, dry mouth, hypotension)
gabapentin

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43
Q

Drugs for MS urgency, frequency, incontinence (hyper-reflexic bladder)

A

anticholinergics (oxybutynin, tolterodine, can cause falls or decrease cognition
antimuscarinic agents (trospium, solifenacin, darifenacin)
TCA

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44
Q

Drugs for MS hesitance, retention, overflow (sphincter destrusor dyssynergia)

A

beta adrenergic blockers like prazosin

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45
Q

Drugs for MS sensory symptoms

A

trigeminal neuralgia: carbamazepine
neuropathic pain: TCA, pregablin, gabepentin, duloxetine

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46
Q

Drugs for MS fatigue

A

amantadine
methylphenidate or dextroamphetamine
modafanil or armodafinal
(maybe fluoxetine)

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47
Q

Drugs for MS sexual dysfunction

A

if also depression use bupropion

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48
Q

Drugs for MS tremor

A

propranolol, primidone, isoniazid

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49
Q

What is epilepsy

A

neuro disorder that is an enduring predisposition to generate epileptic seizures

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50
Q

What causes provoked seizures

A

toxins: alcohol, benzo, barbiturate w/drawal
neuro inj: stroke, intracranial hemorrhage
electrolyte: hypocalcemia, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia
illness: eclampsia, fever, uremia

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51
Q

What are the 4 non-provoked epilepsy type seizures

A

genetic
structural
infectious
metabolic/immune

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52
Q

Dravet syndrome (genetic seizure)

A

sodium channel mutation at volt gated, type 1 alpha subunit

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53
Q

Childhood absence epilepsy (genetic seizure)

A

t-type calcium channel and GABA receptor mutations

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54
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (genetic seixure)

A

EF-hand containing protein-1 (EFHC1) and intestinal kinase (ICK) mutations

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55
Q

What are some structural seizures

A

cortical dysplasia
mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (sclerosis of hippocampus)
post-traumatic epilepsy (brain lesions)

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56
Q

What are the most common acquired infectious epilepsy in neurocysticercosis (infections)

A

parasitic infection of brain (tapeworm eggs, pork)
damage from parasite leading to structural injury

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57
Q

What are metabolic/immune seizures

A

lafora disease (glycogen metabolism)
NMDA encephalitis (tertoma tumors cause the nuronal tissue to make antibodies against NMDA)

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58
Q

What are the 2 principle neurotransmitters in the majority of seizures

A

GABA (inhibitory)
Glutamate (excitatory)

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59
Q

Generalized vs Partial Seizure

A

generalized: entire cerebral cortex of both hemispheres
partial: circumscribed area of cortex (focal)

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60
Q

General Action of anticonvulsants: reuce currents through __________ calcium channels

A

t-type
(generate spikes and bursts of energy in thalamic neurons)

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61
Q

What are L-type calcium channels

A

need strong depolarization for activation
long lasting
blocked by dihydropyridines and phenylkylamines

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62
Q

What are N, P, Q type calcium channels

A

need strong depolarization for activation
blocked by various snail and spider venoms
found in neurons

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63
Q

Barbiturates like phenobarbital are useful in treating what seizures

A

focal onset and generalized onset

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64
Q

phenobarbital MOA

A

increase Cl- conductance
block non-NMDA receptors
block N, P, L type Ca channels

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65
Q

Hydantoins like phenytoin are useful in treating what seizures

A

focal onset and generalized onset

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66
Q

phenytoin MOA

A

block voltage-gates Na+ channels by selectively binding to the channel in the inactive state (hyperpolarizes neurons)
blocks Ca2+ influx directly and indirectly

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67
Q

Carbamazepine is useful for treating what kind of seizures

A

focal and general

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68
Q

Carbamazepine MOA

A

block voltage-gated Na+ channels

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69
Q

Valproic Acid is useful for treating what kind of seizures

A

all focal and general

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70
Q

Valproic Acid MOA

A

inhibits GABA transaminase
block Na+ channels
block T-Type Ca2+ channels

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71
Q

Gabapentin is useful in treating what kind of seizures

A

focal onset

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72
Q

Lamotrigine is useful in treating what kind of seizures

A

focal and general

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73
Q

Lamotrigine MOA

A

block Na+ channels

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74
Q

Topiramate is useful in treating what kind of seizures

A

focal and general

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75
Q

Topiramate MOA

A

block Na+
may increase frequency of Cl- by binding to GABA
may act as AMPA antagonist

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76
Q

Tiagabine used for and MOA

A

focal onset
block reuptake of GABA

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77
Q

Benzos like diazepam, clonazepam, and lorazepam are used for treating what type of seizures

A

ACUTE therapy for focal and generalized
(need to be in combo with something else)

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78
Q

Benzos like diazepam, clonazepam, and lorazepam MOA

A

enhance inhibitory effect of GABA

79
Q

Phenytoin MOA

A

prolongs Na+ channel opening
prevent spread of ectopic signals to normal tissue

80
Q

Phenytoin FDA approved indications

A

partial
status epilepticus
tonic clonic
seizure ppx

81
Q

Fosphenytoin FDA approved indications

A

partial
status epilepticus
tonic clonic
seizure ppx

82
Q

Levetriacetam FDA approved indications

A

myoclonic
status epilepticus
tonic clonic

83
Q

Phenytoin Sodium Injection

A

S = 0.92
insoluble in water
dissolved in 40% propylene glycol and 10% ethanol
pH adjusted to 10-12 with sodium hydroxide to maintain solubility

84
Q

Max rate of phenytoin admin for adult <60 yo and >60 yo

A

<60: 40-50 mg/min
>60 yo: 20-25 mg/min
(flush line with 50 mL NS after each admin)

85
Q

Oral Phenytoin Formulations S values

A

1: chew, suspension, elixir
0.92: capsules

86
Q

How long does it take fosphenytoin sodium to change into phenytoin

A

hydrolysis to active phenytoin: 8-15 min
S = 0.92
diluted to 1.5-25 mg in D5W
max rate of 150 mg PE/min

87
Q

What is hypoalbuminemia categorized as

A

albumin <3.5 g/dL

88
Q

max single PO dose of phenytoin

89
Q

What is the Vmax and Km value

A

Vmax: 7
Km: 4

90
Q

What increases Vmax

A

enzyme induction:
fever, pregnancy, trauma
phenobarbital, carbamazepine

91
Q

What decreases Vmax:

A

hepatic cirrhosis
-decreased hepatocytes
-decreased enzyme activity
non-competitive inhibition

92
Q

What increases Km

A

competitive inhibition
-amiodarone
-cimetidine
-chloramphenicol

93
Q

What decreases Km

A

change in protein binding
protein displacement:
valproic acid, salicylates, penicillin, bilirubin, p-HPPH, fatty acids

94
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin

A

10-20
(>15 cause 88% decrease in seizures)

95
Q

Phenytoin adverse effects

A

death
ams, coma
ataxia

96
Q

What is the typical level for phenytoin LD

A

15-20 mg PE/kg

97
Q

What is the typical level for phenytoin MD

A

4-6 mg/kg/day

98
Q

VPA MOA

A

chemically related to free fatty acids
inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels in the CNS
decrease neuronal excitability and rate of signal transduction
increase GABA

99
Q

Therapeutic range for VPA

A

50-100
(only relevant when used as an AED)

100
Q

What are the hepatic mechanisms that VPA is eliminated

A

glucuronidation
beta oxidation
alpha hydroxylation

101
Q

What is carbamazepine used for

A

monotherapy and adjunctive therapy in tonic clonic and focal seizures

102
Q

carbamazepine MOA

A

enhance inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels

103
Q

carbamazepine therapeutic monitoring

A

4-12 mcg/mL
(needs to be titrated over 2-3 wks)

104
Q

carbamazepine ADE

A

derm
blood dyscrasia
hyponatremia (SIADH)
osteoporosis

105
Q

carbamazepine dose adjustments

A

CTP score >8 = reduce by 25-50%
pregnancy in 3rd trimester
hemodialysis

106
Q

Clonazepam used for

A

monotherapy or adjunctive for myoclonic, akinetic, and absence seizures

107
Q

Clonazepam MOA

A

competitively binds the GABA-A receptor and potentiates the effect of GABA via modulation of chloride efflux

108
Q

Benzo BBW

A

respiratory depression w/ opioids

109
Q

Clonazepam clinical pearls

A

physiological dependence and w/drawal common
CNS depression effects
cause hallucinations, worsen ICU delirium, increase aggression

110
Q

Ethosuximide used for

A

monotherapy or adjunctive for absence seizures
DOC

111
Q

Ethosuximide MOA

A

inhibition of T-type Ca2+ channels

112
Q

Ethosuximide drug monitoring

A

40-100 mcg/mL

113
Q

Ethosuximide interactions and ADE

A

VPA, phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin

114
Q

Ethosuximide clinical pearls

A

worsens tonic clonic seizures
causes hiccups

115
Q

Phenobarbital used for

A

generalized and focal seizures

116
Q

Phenobarbital MOA

A

binds GABA-A receptor and potentiates GABA via modulation of chloride efflux

117
Q

Phenobarbital drug monitoring

A

20-40 mcg/mL

118
Q

Phenobarbital ADE

A

other AED
SJS and TEN

119
Q

Phenobarbital clinical pearls

A

not FDA approved for anything
off-label for alcohol w/drawal

120
Q

Primidone used for

A

tremor
(Prodrug of phenobarbital, Converted to active intermediary metabolite phenylethylmalo-n-amide)

121
Q

Phenytoin used for

A

Focal seizures, tonic-clonic seizures
Seizure prophylaxis post-operatively and in traumatic brain injury

122
Q

Phenytoin MOA

A

Enhances inactivation of voltage-gated ion channels

123
Q

Phenytoin significant interactions and adverse drug effects

A

SJS/TEN
DDI w/ warfarin
purple glove syndrome

124
Q

Fosphenytoin used for

A

Focal seizures, tonic-clonic seizures
Seizure prophylaxis post-operatively and in traumatic brain injury

125
Q

Fosphenytoin MOA

A

Enhances inactivation of voltage-gated ion channels
Phosphorylated pro-drug of phenytoin, activated by serum esterases

126
Q

VPA used for

A

Focal seizures, general seizure disorders
Most utilized drug for absence seizures in patients >10

127
Q

VPA interactions and ADE

A

Black Box Warning for hepatoxicity
Hyperammonemia
Associated with nail bed abnormalities, hirsutism, alopecia

128
Q

VPA clinical pearls

A

Contraindicated in urea cycle disorders
Pregnancy Category D
Used off-label for migraines, mood/behavioral augmentation

129
Q

Felbamate used for

A

Focal onset seizures with or without tonic-clonic seizures

130
Q

Felbamate MOA

A

Antagonizes N-methyl-D-aspartic acid receptors as well as GABA-A receptors

131
Q

Felbamate drug monitoring

A

30-60 mcg/mL

132
Q

Felbamate BBW

A

Black Box Warning for aplastic anemia and hepatoxicity
Aplastic anemia risk = >100-fold increase from general population

133
Q

Felbamate clinical pearls

A

Only indicated for super-refractory seizures

134
Q

Gabapentin used for

A

Adjunctive therapy in most seizure types, with the exception of absence
seizures and tonic-clonic seizures

135
Q

Gabapentin MOA

A

Binds to alpha-2 subunit of calcium channel, with unknown effects on
seizures

136
Q

Gabapentin drug monitoring

A

2-20 mcg/mL

137
Q

Gabapentin clinical pearls

A

Rarely utilized in seizure disorders
Commonly utilized in:
* Neuropathic pain
* Restless leg syndrome
* Post-herpetic neuralgia
* Alcohol withdrawal
* Chronic refractory cough

138
Q

Lamotrigine used for

A

Adjunctive therapy for focal-onset seizures without tonic-clonic motion

139
Q

Lamotrigine MOA

A

Enhances fast inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels

140
Q

Lamotrigine drug monitoring

A

4-20 mcg/mL

141
Q

Lamotrigine ADE

A

Significant interaction with valproic acid:
* Max dose of lamotrigine if on VPA: 500 mg
* Max dose if on VPA: 200 mg
Black Box Warning for dermatologic reactions (SJS/TEN)

142
Q

Lamotrigine clinical pearls

A

Utilized for bipolar disorder, headaches, and trigeminal neuralgia

143
Q

Levetiracetam used for

A

Workhorse of modern anti-epileptic agents
Utilized in focal-onset, myoclonic, JME, tonic-clonic seizures
* Second or third line for absence seizure

144
Q

Levetiracetam MOA

A

inhibits synaptic vesicle SV2A which prevents neurotransmitter release

145
Q

Levetiracetam drug monitoring

A

10-66 mcg/mL
Not correlated with clinical efficacy or safety
* Not routinely measured other than to confirm adherence

146
Q

Levetiracetam ADE

A

Minimal drug-drug interactions
Negative behavior effects

147
Q

Levetiracetam clinical pearls

A

100% oral bioavailability
Can be administered as an undiluted IV push
* Useful in status epilepticus

148
Q

Oxcarbazepine used for

A

Focal-onset seizures

149
Q

Oxcarbazepine MOA

A

Enhances inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels

150
Q

Oxcarbazepine ADE

A

Inhibitor of CYP 2C19 and inducer of CYP 3A4

151
Q

Oxcarbazepine clinical pearls

A

Structural analog of carbamazepine with fewer adverse effects
* Considered safer alternative with regard to dermatologic reactions
Eslicarbazine (Aptiom) and oxcarbazepine are metabolized to same intermediary compound

152
Q

Lacosamide used for

A

Focal-onset seizures, generalized tonic-clonic, and status epilepticus
Post-injury prophylaxis in neurologic injury/traumatic brain injury

153
Q

Lacosamide MOA

A

Mediates voltage-gated ion channels

154
Q

Lacosamide ADE

A

Substrate of CYP 3A4, 2C9, 2C19
Requires dose adjustment in hepatic impairment

155
Q

Lacosamide clinical pearls

A

May be necessary to decrease doses of concomitant agents by up to 20%:
* Carbamazepine
* Phenytoin
* Phenobarbital
* Primidone

156
Q

Perampanel used for

A

Focal-onset seizures, tonic clonic seizures
* Commonly as adjunctive therapy

157
Q

Perampanel MOA

A

Non-competitive antagonist of glutamate receptors on post-synaptic neurons

158
Q

Perampanel ADE

A

Black Box Warning for significant psychiatric events, including suicidal and homicidal ideation
Dose-dependent CYP enzymatic inducer

159
Q

Perampanel clinical pearls

A

Schedule III controlled substance
Associated with weight gain

160
Q

Clobazam used for

A

Adjunctive therapy for non-absence seizure classifications

161
Q

Clobazam MOA

A

Binds GABA-A receptors and potentiates GABA via modulation of chloride conductance

162
Q

Clobazam drug monitoring

A

0.03 – 0.3 mcg/mL

163
Q

Clobazam ADE

A

BBW for profound sedation and respiratory depression in combo w/ BZD and opioids, addiction, inhibitor of CYP 2C9, inducer of CYP3A4

164
Q

Clobazam clinical pearls

A

Schedule IV controlled substance
Moderate association with dermatologic reactions

165
Q

Cannabidiol used for

A

Primarily used in Dravet syndrome and Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
* More commonly being prescribed for refractory status epilepticus, NORSE, and FIRES

166
Q

Cannabidiol ADE

A

Increases lamotrigine levels
Increases clobazam metabolite concentration by 300%

167
Q

Cannabidiol MOA

A

Hepatotoxicity and respiratory failure are significant
May be associated with ICU delirium and poor sleep hygiene

168
Q

Why is status epilepticus a medical emergency

A

associated w/ brain damage and potentially death
long term consequences after 30 minutes of ongoing seizure activity

169
Q

status epilepticus definition

A

cont seizure activity for 5 minutes or multiple seizures w/out return to baseline over 5 min
(pharm resistance and mortality increase w/ prolonged duration)

170
Q

Type 1 vs Type 2 SE

A

1: absence of structural lesions
2: presence of structural lesions

171
Q

Type 1 SE causes

A

alcohol
systemic infection
CNS infection
metabolic dysregulation
subtherapeutic AED levels

172
Q

Type 2 SE causes

A

anoxia/hypoxic brain injury
CNS malignancy
CVA/TIA (ischemic or hemorrhagic)
Drug overdose
TBI

173
Q

pathophysiology of SE what decreases

A

GABA
adenosine, K, neuropeptide Y, opioid peptides, galanin

174
Q

pathophysiology of SE what increases

A

glutamate
Ca, Na, substance P, neurokinin B

175
Q

What is phase 1 of SE

A

0-30 min
active: E, NE, insulin, cAMP
presentation: hypertensive, tachycardia, hyper then hypoglycemia, tracheal secretions

176
Q

What is phase 2 SE

A

> 30 min
active: lactic acid, insulin, temp, dysregulation, hypoxia, acidosis
presentation: hypotension, shock, hypoglycemia, azotemia

177
Q

What labs to order before SE tx

A

CBC, BMP, UDS, blood cultures, ABG, drug levels

178
Q

What is SE stabilization phase

A

ABCDE (airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure)
vitals
time of onset
oxygen
ECG
blood glucose (adults thiamine then dextrose)
IV assess and collect electrolytes, CBC, tox, ASM

179
Q

Initial tx for SE (5-20 min)

A

lorazepam IV 0.1 mg/kg/dose (max 4 mg) x2
midazolam IN 0.15-0.3 mg/kg (max 10 mg) x2
midazolam IM 0.2 mg/kg/dose (max 10 mg) x2
diazepam IV 0.15-0.2 mg/kg/dose (max 10 mg) x2

diazepam IN or PR
Midazolam buccal

180
Q

Second phase tx for SE (20-40 min): first line tx

A

Fosphenytoin IV 20 mg PE/kg (max 1500) x1
VPA IV 40 mg/kg (max 3,000 mg) x1
keppra IV 60 mg/kg (max 4,500 mg) x1

181
Q

Second phase tx for SE (20-40 min): 2nd and 3rd line tx

A

2: Phenobarbital IV 15 mg/kg x1
3: Lacosamide IV 5-10 mg/kg (max 400 mg) x1

182
Q

Third phase tx for SE (40-60 min)

A

begin EEG monitoring
Midazolam IV 0.2 mg/kg bolus, 0.05-2 mg/kg/hr
Phentobarbital IV 5-15 mg/kg, 0.05-5 mg/kg/hr
Propofol IV 1-2 mg/kg, 20 mcg/kg/min

183
Q

BZD for SE

A

first line for first 30 min
diazepam is lipophilic and shirt half life (bad)
lorazepam hydrophilic (protect for 24 hr)
midazolam short half life need bolus or cont IV

184
Q

Phenytoin for SE

A

Considered second-line agent to benzodiazepine-
refractory or recurrent seizures
ADE: bradycardia, hypotension, phlebitis

185
Q

Alternatives for AED for SE

A

Fosphenytoin
Levetiracetam: 60 mg/kg max 4500 mg IV
Valproate: 40 mg/kg max 3000 mg IV

186
Q

What is considered refractory SE

A

Up to 15% of patients will fail benzodiazepine + 1 ASM, and are considered refractory

187
Q

What is considered super-refractory SE

A

seizure activity for >24 hours

188
Q

Anesthetic Medications for SE

A

midazolam (Versed): caution w/ respiratory depression and hypotension, avoid flumazenil
Pentobarbital (Nembutal): need vent produces coma min 72 hr get neuro exam
Propofol (Diprivan): need vent, produce coma

189
Q

Propofol-Related Infusion Syndrome risk factors

A

dose >4 mg/kg/hr
duration: >48 hr
low glycogen stores
neuro compromise (traumatic brain injury)
underlying hyper-TGL
liver disease

190
Q

Potentially Useful Agents in Status Epilepticus

A

Ketamine (Ketalar): 0.5-3 mg/kg bolus followed by 0.1-4 mg/kg/h (increases BP and HR, increased secretions and hallucinations) use BZD
Topiramate: may use NG

191
Q

New Onset Refractory Status Epilepticus: (NORSE)

A

No previous history of seizures or neurological disorder with out a clear metabolic or toxic cause
present w/ fever -> febrile infection-related epilepsy syndrome (FIRES)
autoimmune or infection

192
Q

Goal for NORSE

A

keep patient stable and stop seizure activity
-Typically burst suppression on EEG with IV anesthetics is required
-May start immunotherapy early

193
Q

NORSE drugs to use

A

Monotherapy: pentobarbital
Combination therapy: midazolam and propofol
Patient should be seizure free for 24-48 hours before weaning
IV steroids, immunoglobulin, plasmapheresis