Pulm exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

GINA definition of asthma

A

chronic airway inflammation; history of respiratory sx (wheeze, sob, chest tightness, cough) that vary over time and in intensity, together with variable expiratory airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What term defines wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, and coughing

A

obstruction (typically occurs at night or in the early morning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All asthma patients are at risk for acute severe disease, you want to treat underlying airway inflammation with what two steps

A

control asthma
reduce asthma-associated risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common chronic disease among children

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 predictors for persistent adult asthma

A

atopy (hypersensitivity to environmental allergens, type 1 allergic rxn with IgG antibody and asthma)
onset during school age
presence of bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The severity of asthma in childhood is the predictor of severity in adulthood

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does genetic factors affect asthma

A

strong risk factor for offspring
risk increased with FH of atopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does enviornmental factors affect asthma

A

secondhand smoke exposure increase risk
outdoor pollutants
exposure to specific allergens in the workplace (late in life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does obesity affect asthma

A

child: risk factor for asthma especially girls
adult: risk factor for asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does adult-onset asthma affect people

A

atopy
nasal polyps
aspirin sensitivity
occupational exposure
recurrence of childhood asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pathophysiology of asthma

A

inhaled allergens are taken up by antigen presenting cells (t cells) activate Th2 response, b cell production of IgE and pro-inflammatory cytokines and chemokines, activation of eosinophils, neutrophils, alveolar macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the early phase response to asthma

A

activation and degtanulation of mast cells and basophils
acute bronchoconstriction that lasts over 1 hour after exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the late phase response to asthma

A

activated airway cells release inflammatory cytokines and chemokines causing more inflammation
increased airwat inflammation and hyperresponsivness that occure 4-6 hours after initial allergen challenge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is airway inflammation (chronic; although symptoms are intermittent)

A

T-lympohcytes release cytokines which cause eosinophilic infiltration, IgE production by B-lymphocytes
mast cells infiltrate airway smooth muscle and broncial epithelium causing mucous gland hyperplasia and mast cell degranulation (develop pro-inflammatory mediator, AHR and airway remodeling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is airway hyper responsiveness (AHR)

A

exaggerated ability of airways to narrow in response to stimuli
related to airway inflammation and structural airway changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does airway smooth muscle construction cause airway obstruction

A

-tone maintained by sym, parasym, and non-adrenergic
-constriction results form mediators like histamine and prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does airway edema cause airway obstruction

A

-inflammatory mediators (histamine, leukotriene, bradykinin) will increase microvascular permeability causing edema
-rigid airway limit air flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does mucus hyper secretion cause airway obstruction

A

increase number and volume of mucous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does airway remodeling cause airway obstruction

A

some pt will have fixed obstruction
characterized by epithelial damage, subepithelial fibrosis, airway smooth muscle hypertrophy, increase mucous production/vascularity of airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Range of clinical presentation and diagnosis

A

normal pulmonary function with symptoms only during acute exacerbation to significantly decreased pulmonary function with continuous symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

History of clinical presentation and diagnosis

A

FH, SH, precipitating factors, exacerbations, development of symptoms, treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symptoms of asthma

A

defining: wheezing, sob, chest tightness, coughing (worse at night)
-anxious/agitated
-mental status change lead to respiratory failure
-presence of precipitating factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Signs of asthma

A

tachypnea
tachycardia
use of accessory muscles
auscultation (end expiratory wheezes/through inspiration/expiration)
bradycardia and absence of wheezing (respiratory failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 5 defining features of lab tests (variable expiratory flow limitation)

A

spirometry
increase in PEF >20% after bronchodilator
increase IgE
(+) redioallergosorbent test (RAST)
fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) use when clinical course and spirometry is unclear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the spirometry lab test

A

FEV1/FVC <80% and at least one after bronchodilator
-increase in FEV1 if 12% or 200ml
-increase in 10% in predicted FEV1 (may be normal if pt is not symptomatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the ppb for adults and children for FeNO

A

> 50 ppb adults
35 ppb for 5-12 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is acute asthma

A

rapid (1-2 hr) more commonly deterioration over days to weeks
severity does not correspond with severity of chronic disease
sx - may be unable to communicate in full sentences
signs - pulsus paradoxus, diaphoresis, cyanosis
tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

asthma exacerbation severity: mild/moderate

A

PEF >50% predicted or personal best
dyspnea limiting activity
talks in phrases or sentences
prefers sitting to lying
possible accessory muscle use
SpO2 >90% on room air
HR <120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

asthma exacerbation severity: severe

A

PEF <50% predicted or personal best
dyspnea at rest
sits hunched forward
talks in words
agitated, diaphoretic
accessory muscle use
SpO2 may be <90% on room air
RR >30
HE >120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

asthma exacerbation severity: life-threatening

A

PEF <25% predicted or personal best
too dyspneic to speak
depressed mental status
cyanosis
inability to maintain respiratory effort
absent breath sounds
minimal or no relief from frequent inhaled SABA
bradycardia or hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second)

A

normal 80-120% predicted
volume exhaled during first second of a forced expiratory maneuver started form the level of total lung capacity
-its reduced in both obstructive and restrictive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

FVC (forced vital capacity)

A

normal 80-120%
total volume of air expired after a full inspiration
pts with obstructive lung disease usually have a normal or only slightly decreased vital capacity, pts with restrictive lung disease have a decreased vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

FEV1/FVC

A

normal >0.7 of predicted
% of vital capacity which is expired the first second of maximum expiration
-healthy pt the FEV1/FVC usually around 70%
-obstructive lung disease it decreased and can be as low as 20-30% in severe obstructive airway disease
-restrictive disorders have a near normal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Do bronchodilators do anything to inflammation

A

relax constricted smooth muscle in the airway
-improve airflow into the lungs -> relief
no effect on inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PEF (Peak expiratory flow)

A

normal 80-100%
max airflow during forced expiration beginning with the lungs fully inflated; max speed of ecpiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the SABAs

A

albuterol
levalbuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the LABAs

A

formoterol (can be used as an rescue inhaler)
salmeterol (cause headache)
arformoterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the ultra LABAs

A

indancaterol (cause cough, headache)
olodaterol (cause nasopharyngitis)
vilanterol (only in combo inhalers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

beta 2 adrenergic agonists work on bronchial smooth muscle and ______ rates of metabolism and ______ duration of binding to the receptor prolonging their effects

A

decrease
increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

bronchodilator MOA

A

activate B2R decreasing Ca2+ levels and phosphorylation of proteins involved in smooth muscle relaxation
-inhibit PLC pathway
-decrease myosin actin interactions -> inhibit MLCK and activate MLC phosphatase decreasing phosphorylation of myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

SABA side effects

A

common: muscle tremor
serious: tachycardia, hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

LABA and ultra LABA side effects

A

severe asthma exacerbation and asthma-related death when used as monotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

SABA DDI

A

nonselective beta blockers
diuretics (increase hypokalemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

LABA and ultra LABA DDI

A

nonselective beta blockers
cannabinoids
haloperidol
MAOI and RCA
loop and thiazide diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Muscarinic receptor antagonists are synthetic quaternary _________ compounds, chemically related to atropine

A

ammonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the SAMAs

A

ipratropium (cause paradoxical beonchospasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the LAMAs

A

tiotropium
aclidinium bromide
umeclidinium bromide
glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Muscarinic receptor MOA

A

block Ach binding to M3R
drugs bind to M1R, M2R, and M3R
rapid dissociation from presynaptic M2R, except ipratropium decrease its effectiveness at M3R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Side effects of muscarinic receptors

A

dry mouth or xerostomia
blurred vision
urinary retention
headache
V/D
nasopharyngitis, cough, rhinitis, sinusitis, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What LAMA mat worsen symptoms of narrow-angle glaucoma

A

tiotropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are corticosteroids main effects

A

metabolic -> carbs and proteins
anti-inflammatory/immunosuppressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What specific activity does prednisone, prednisolone, and methylprednisolone have

A

mineralocorticoid activity this can increase blood pressure from Na+ and water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

corticosteroids MOA

A

bound in plasma to corticosteroid binding globulin (CBG)
enters the cell and interacts with intracellular glucocorticoid receptor
receptor changes conformation and translocated to nucleus
receptor binds to glucocorticoid response element which stimulate/inhibit gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What 3 corticosteroids have a higher GR affinity

A

budesonide
ciclesonide
fluticasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anti-inflammatory effects of corticosteroids

A

increase anti-inflam genes and decrease inflam genes
decrease pro-inflam factors secreted by cells
inhibits effect on inflammatory cells in airway epithelium and submucsoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Side effects of ICS

A

headache
pharyngitis
oral candidiasis
cough
dysphonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

side effects of systemic corticosteroids

A

GI upset, hyperglycemia, psych disturbances
chronic use: AEIOU(H)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

inhaled corticosteroids DDI

A

azole/macrolides
CYP3A4 inducers
CYP3A4 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

systemic corticosteroids DDI

A

antacids
fluoroquinolone
CYP3A4 inducers/inhibitors
Phenytoin
Warfarin
avoid live vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

IgE binding immunomodulators

A

omalizumab (IgG monoclonal antibody against IgE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

IgE binding immunomodulators MOA

A

binds to free IgE generated during first exposure inhibiting IgE binding to IgE receptor on mast cells and basophils
decrease release of mediators from cells decreasing allergic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

IL-4 and IL-13 receptor antagonists MOA

A

dupilumab (dupixent) recombinant human IgG4 monoclonal antibody that binds to IL4-R
blocks alpha subunit of IL-4 receptor
release of proinflammatory cytokines, chemokines, IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does eosinophils do in IL-5

A

eosinophils migrate to inflamed tissues
IL-5 plays a fundamental role in esoinophil differentiation. maturation, activation, and inhibition of apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

IL-5 and IL-5 receptor antagonists drugs

A

IgG monoclonal antibodies
benralizumab
mepolizumab (preferred in step 5 for 6-11yo)
reslizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

IL-5 and IL-5 receptor antagonists MOA

A

mepolizumab and reslizumab bind to IL-5
benralizumab binds to IL-5 receptor
inhibit IL-5 signal reducing production, recruitment, activation, and survival of eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Tezepelumab: Inhibitor of TSLP action

A

its a cytokine released from the airwat epithelium in response to insults
it binds to its receptor and activated the production of inflammatory cytokines
tezepelumab binds to TSLP and prevents its interaction with the TSLP receptor complex which inhibits inflammatory pathways
it reduces the activity of IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

monoclonal antibodies side effects

A

headache, injection site reaction, antibody development
BBW: anaphylaxis with omalizumab and reslizumab
dermatologic reactions and ocular effects with dupilumab
increase serum creatinine kinase with omalizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

monoclonal antibodies DDIs

A

avoid live vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Leukotriene modifiers drugs

A

montelukast
zafirlukast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Leukotriene modifiers side effects

A

headaches
montelukast: dizziness, stomach pain*, dyspepsia, diarrhea, serious neuropsychiatric events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Leukotriene modifiers MOA

A

block action of leukotrienes by binding to LT1 receptors in smooth muscle cells
reduce bronchoconstriction, bronchial reactivity, mucosal edema, mucus hypersecretion, resulting in less inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

montelukast DDI

A

CYP2C9, 2C8, 3A4/5 inducers/inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

zafirlukast DDI

A

phenytoin
CYP2C9 substrates
food decreased bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is chronic asthma

A

prevent chronic and troublesome symptoms
maintain normal or near normal pulm function
meet pt expectations of satisfaction with asthma care
prevent progressive loss of lung function
require infrequent use of SABA
maintain normal activity levels
prevent exacerbations of asthma and the need for ED visits/hospitalizations
provide optimal pharmacotherapy with min/no ADE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is acute asthma

A

correct significant hypoxemia
reverse airflow obstruction rapidly
reduce likelihood of exacerbation relapse or recurrence of severe airflow obstruction in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Modifiable risk factors for asthma

A

avoid exposure to tobacco smoke
avoid known food allergies
weight (5-10% decrease if obese)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Strategies and interventions for asthma

A

smoking cessation (at every visit, advise caregivers to avoid smoking near children)
physical activity
occupational asthma (remove trigger)
severe asthma (refer to specialist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Common asthma triggers

A

indoor/outdoor mold
tobacco smoke
medications
occupational substances
animal dander
strong odor/spray
cockroaches
pollen
cooking sources
dust mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Digital health tools for asthma

A

small sensor clipped to inhaler will transmit data to an app on pt phone
send dose reminders
informs pt of air quality in area and potential triggers
transmits data regarding inhaler usage to EHR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

MyAsthma App

A

provide info/training on asthma and inhaler techniques
include platform for asthma action plan, asthma monitoring checklist, and symptom tracker
send daily forecast to inform pt of triggers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)

A

nasal congestion and anosmia that progresses to rhino sinusitis with nasal polyps
hypersensitivity to aspirin
asthma attack
can occur w/in min to 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does non-selective beta blockers have to do with asthma

A

worsen asthma control
avoid use
beta 1 selective agents are best (metoprolol, atenolol)
(NO labetalol, carvedilol, pindolol, timolol, propranolol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Vaccinations for asthma

A

PCV-20 (adults 19+ with chronic lung disease)
annual flu shot
covid-19
RSV vaccine (once over age 60)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Counseling for asthma

A

smoking cessation
meds
-difference btw maintenance/as needed inhalers
-assess technique and clean regularly
asthma action plan
-symptom based
PEF based (adults only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Drug delivery devices for asthma

A

particles need to be 1-5 to reach the lower airways
they are deposited by inertial impaction or gravitational sedimentation
appropriate device technique is essential to achieve optimal drug delivery and therapeutic effect
pt instruction + demonstration = improved inhaler technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Corticosteroid use in asthma

A

best anti-inflammatory effect
improve beta 2 agonist response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

ICS for asthma

A

preferred for all age groups
decrease systemic effects
max high dose 3-6 months to min risk of AE
give twice daily
2 weeks to see significant result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Dose for children 6-11: Beclometasone dipropionate (HFA), Budesonide (DPI), Fluticasone propionate (DPI), Fluticasone propionate (HFA)

A

Beclometasone dipropionate: L (50-100) M (100-200)
Budesonide: L (100-200) M (200-400)
Fluticasone propionate: L (100-200) M (200-400)
Fluticasone propionate: L (100-200) M (200-500)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Dose for >12 yo: Beclometasone dipropionate (HFA), Budesonide (DPI), Fluticasone furoate (DPI), Fluticasone propionate (HFA/DPI)

A

Beclometasone dipropionate: L (100-200) M (200-400)
Budesonide: L (200-400) M (400-800)
Fluticasone furoate: L (100) M (n/a)
Fluticasone propionate: L (100-250) M (250-500)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the main thing to counsel patients on for ICS

A

rinse mouth with water and spit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How does ICS variability response occur

A

GLCCI1 (pharmacogenomics help assist with individual asthma treatment plans)

92
Q

Systemic corticosteroids for use in asthma

A

tx for acute asthma after starting SABA (4-12 h onset)
ORAL is better
cont until PEF >70% of personal best AND asthma symptoms are resoved
avoid as long-term controller meds (try to decrease always)

93
Q

Beta 2 adrenergic agonists for asthma

A

better bronchodilator in acute asthma than anticoags and are better drug of choice

94
Q

SABA for asthma

A

most effective agent for reversing acute airway obstruction
MDI + spacer is just as good as regular use
not for daily dosing
Albuterol/Levalbuterol

95
Q

Dosing for asthma based on exacerbation

A

doses doubled and changed from PRN to scheduled

96
Q

LABA for asthma

A

good for nocturnal symptoms
Step 1/2: formoterol only used in low ICS combo
Step 3/4/5: Laba indicated with low, medium, high dose ICS
NOOOOOO LABA MONOTHERAPY
can come in combo product

97
Q

Anticholinergics (muscarinic antagonists) for asthma

A

bronchodilating effects are not as effective as beta agonists

98
Q

When to use Ipratropium

A

add to SABA during mod-severe exacerbation
ONLY used in ED***

99
Q

When to use Tioropium

A

if uncontrolled on ICS + LABA, then add
not for <12 yo, can be add-on for pt w/ h/o exaverbations

100
Q

Leukotriene modifiers for asthma

A

improve FEV1 and decrease asthma symptoms, SABA use, and asthma exacerbations
less effective than low ICS (not effective if combo them)

101
Q

Leukotriene modifiers BBW

A

neuropsychiatric events

102
Q

Leukotriene modifiers are beneficial in pt with what

A

allergic rhinitis, aspirin sensitivity

103
Q

IgE binding inhibitor (omalizumab) for asthma

A

Step 5 asthma tx when asthma is not controlled by ICS and if (+) skin test or aeroallergens
decrease ICS use/number of exacerbations, improve sx and QOL, reduce OCD dose

104
Q

ADE and monitoring of IgE binding inhibitor (omalizumab)

A

inj site rxn
anaphylaxis (occur any time, provide prescription and education on use of SQ epi)
monitoring pt:
first 3 injections for 2 hours after administration
thereafter 30 minutes after admin

105
Q

IL-5 antagonist / IL-5 receptor antagonist for asthma

A

severe eosinophilic asthma thats uncontrolled on Step 4/5 tx
reduce severe exacerbations, improve qol, lung function, symptom control
decrease med OCS dose

106
Q

IL-4 receptor antagonist for asthma

A

add-on maintenance tx for step 5 eosinophilic phenotype or those requiring maintenance OCS
reduce severe exacerbations, improve qol, lung fx, sx control

107
Q

IL-4 receptor antagonist ADE

A

inj site rxn
transient blood eosinophilia
rate cases of eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)

108
Q

Thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP) antagonist for asthma

A

add-on maintenance tx for severe asthma in >12 yo
reduce severe exacerbations, improve qol, lung fx, sx control
greater clinical benefit w/ higher blood eosinophils and/or higher FeNO
insufficient evidence in pt taking maintenance OCS
tezepelumab

109
Q

Allergen-specific immunotherapy for asthma

A

adjunct tx to standard tx pharmacotherapy
need to identify and use correctly with allergen
assocaited w/ reduction in sx scores, med requirements, and improved airway hyperresponsiveness
SQ immunotherapy (SCIT) for >5 yo
guidelines against SLIT (sublingual)

109
Q

What is the preferred initial tx and alternative initial tx: infrequent asthma symptoms (1-2 d/wk or less)

A

PRN low dose ICS + Formoterol
alt: low dose ICS taken when SABA taken

109
Q

tezepelumab (TSLP) ADE

A

arthralgia, back pain, pharyngitis

109
Q

What is the preferred initial tx and alternative initial tx: asthma symptoms less than 3-5 d/wk, with normal or mild reduced lung function

A

PRN low dose ICS + Formoterol
alt: low-dose ICS + PRN SABA

110
Q

What is the preferred initial tx and alternative initial tx: asthma sx most days (4-5 d/wk or more) or waking due to asthma once a week or more, or low lung function

A

Low-dose ICS-formoterol maintenance and reliever therapy (MART)
alt: low dose ICS-LABA + PRN SABA
(or + PRN ICS-SABA)
(or + med-dose ICS + as needed SABA)
(or + PRN ICS-SABA)

111
Q

What is the preferred initial tx and alternative initial tx: daily asthma sx, waking at night w/ asthma once a week or more with low lung function

A

Med-dise ICS-formoterol maintenance and reliever therapy (MART)
alt: med-high dose ICS-LABA
(+PRN SABA)
(+PRN ICS-SABA)

112
Q

What is the preferred initial tx and alternative initial tx: initial asthma presentation is during an acute phase

A

treat as exacerbation including short course OCS id severe; commence medium dose MART
alt: tx as exacerbation including short course of OCS if severe; commenece med/high dose ICS-LABA + PRN SABA

113
Q

Before starting initial controller tx for asthma what should you do

A

record evidence for the diagnosis of asthma
record the pt level of sx control and risk factors, including lung function
schedule follow-up

114
Q

After starting initial controller tx for asthma what should you do

A

check adherence and pt response after 2-3 months
step down tx once good control has been maintained for 3 months

115
Q

Mild asthma

A

well controlled with Step 1/2 tx (low intensity tx)

116
Q

Moderate asthma

A

well controlled with Step 3/4 tx (low/med dose ICS-LABA0

117
Q

Severe asthma

A

uncontrolled despite optimized tx with high-dose ICS-LABA or requires high-dose ICS-LABA to prevent it from becoming uncontrolled
must distinguish from asthma that is difficult to treat to inadequate or inappropriate tx, or persistent problems w/ adherence or comorbidities

118
Q

Asthma severity cannot be assess unless what 2 things happen

A

good asthma control and tx stepped down to find pt min effective dose
OR
unless asthma remains uncontrolled despite at least several months of optimized max therapy

119
Q

What is the 4 questions for asthma symptoms control (initial tx) and what constitutes as well controlled, partly controlled, and uncontrolled

A

daytime asthma symptoms more than 2x/wk
night waking due to asthma
SABA reliever for sx more than 2x/wk
any activity limitation due to asthma
0: well controlled
1-2: partly
3-4: uncontrolled

120
Q

Risk factors for poor asthma outcomes

A

assess risk factors at diagnosis and periodically
measure FEV1 at start of tx, after 3-6 months of ICS tx to record pt personal best lung function, then periodically

121
Q

Track 1 (personalized asthma)

A

Step 1/2: PRN low dose ICS-formoterol
Step 3: low dose maintenance ICS-formoterol
Step 4: med dose maintenance ICS-formoterol
Step 5: +LAMA. consider high dose maintenance ICS-formoterol, +/- anti-IgE, anti-IL5/5R, anti-IL4Ram anti-TSLP

122
Q

Track 2 (personalized asthma) with all these therapies a reliever as needed ICS-SABA or PRN SABA is used

A

Step 1: take ICS when SABA taken
Step 2: low dose maintenance ICS
Step 3: low dose maintenance ICS-LABA
Step 4: med/high dose maintenance ICS-LABA
Step 5: +LAMA. consider high dose maintenance ICS-LAMA, +/- anti-IgE, anti-IL5/5R, anti-IL4Ram anti-TSLP

123
Q

What can also be used as a last line add-on therapy for asthma

A

azithromycin (TIW)
-for persistent symptomatic asthma despite high dose ICS LABA
-sputum for atypical mycobacteria
-check ECG at baseline; ensure QTc <450

124
Q

When to review pt response after starting controller tx

A

2-3 months or earlier
before increasing therapy:
evaluate pt inhaler technique and adherence to therapy

125
Q

When to review pt response after pt have controlled asthma

A

1-6 months
once controlled for 3 months a step down can occur
use LABA for the shortest time possible

126
Q

Tx for acute asthma (exacerbation)

A

early and appropriate intensification of therapy is important to resolve the exacerbation and prevent relapse and future severe airflow obstruction
early and aggressive tx for quick resolution
optimal tx depends on severity
pt condition deteriorated over time

127
Q

Initial at home treatment

A

inhaled SABA: up to two treatments 20 min apart of 2-6 puffs by metered dose inhaler or nebulizer

128
Q

Good response to initial at home treatment

A

no wheezing or dyspnea
PEF >80% predicted or personal best
-contact clinician for followup instructions and further management
-may cont inhaled SABA q3-4h for 24-48 h
-consider short course of oral systemic corticosteroids

129
Q

Incomplete response to initial at home treatment

A

persistent wheezing and dyspnea
PEF 50-79% predicted or personal best
-add oral systemic corticosteroid
-cont inhaled SABA
-contact clinician urgently (this day) for further instruction

130
Q

Poor response to initial at home treatment

A

marked wheezing and dyspnea
PEF <50%
-add oral systemic corticosteroid
-repeat inhaled SABA immediately
-if distress is severe and non-responsive to initial tx:
call doc and process to ED, may need 911

131
Q

Discharged home for ED management

A

responding to therapy in the ED w/ sustained response to SABA
meds: SABA, 3-10d course of PO corticosteroid, ICS, other long-term controller med

132
Q

Admitted to hospital for ED management

A

do not repsond to intensive therapy w/in 3-4 h
meds: oxygen, cont nebulization of SABA, and systemic corticosteroid

133
Q

When to give oxygen in asthma

A

children, pregnant women, pt w/ coexisting heart disease, give to maintain 94-98%
all other pt five to maintain 93-95%

134
Q

Written asthma action plan

A

-part of standard of care, does not decrease mortality
-give pt freedom to adjust therapy based on personal assessment of disease control using predetermined plan

135
Q

What does a written asthma action plan include

A

instruction on daily management
how to recognize and handle worsening asthma
-evaluate sx/monitor PEF
-early signs of deterioration (increase nocturnal symptoms, increase use of SABA, not responding to increased use of SABA)
Pt may get script for oral corticosteroid to use on a PRN basis

136
Q

Peak expiratory flow measurement is considered for pt with

A

mod to severe asthma
poor perception of worsening asthma or airflow obstruction
unexplained response to enviornmental or occupational exposures
measured daily upon wakening and when asthma symptoms worsen

137
Q

For PEF based asthma action plans what should you do

A

pt personal best PEF establish over 2-3 wk period when pt is receiving optimal therapy
subsequent PEF measurements are evaluated in relation to their variability from the pt best PEF measurement

138
Q

What is green zone

A

PEF 80-100% of personal best
current therapy is acceptable

139
Q

What is yellow zone

A

PEF 50-79% of personal best
impending exacerbation, intensify therapy with SABA, possibly add oral corticosteroid, call physician

140
Q

What is red zone

A

PEF <50% of personal best
medical alert, use SABA immediately, take oral corticosteroid, go to ED

141
Q

Special Populations for asthma: Pregnancy

A

1/3 of women will experience worsening asthma
using meds to achieve good symptom control and prevent exacerbations is justified even when safety in pregnancy has not been unequivocally proven
manage aggressively
use Budesonide category B
albuterol DOC for tx of asthma sx and exacerbations

142
Q

Special Populations for asthma: Young Children

A

tx 0-4 yo is extrapolated from studies completed in adults and older children
albuterol and ICS are DOC
montelukast is common due to formulation
nebulization is commonly used
MDI + VHS becoming more popular due to decreased time of admin compared to nebulization
bedesonide: only corticosteroid available as nebulization and is approved for this age group

143
Q

What are the phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

Methylxanthines (theophylline)
Phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor (roflumilast)
Phosphodiesterase 3/4 inhibitors (ensifentrine)

144
Q

What are the main effects of phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

Bronchodilation and decrease inflammation

145
Q

Difference between theophylline and caffeine

A

Theophylline has more selectivity for smooth muscle than caffeine

146
Q

Does theophylline cross the placenta

A

Yes and it is also secreted in milk

147
Q

Theophylline MOA

A

Inhibitor of phosphodiesterase (PDE) non selectively which acts on cAMP and cGMP
The inhibitory effects on number and activity of inflammatory cells in airway epithelium/submucosa
Prevent translocation of pro inflammatory transcription factors into the nucleus

148
Q

Which drugs decrease theophylline clearance

A

Cimetidine
Microliters
Allopurinol
Propranolol
Quinolones

149
Q

Which drugs increase theophylline clearance

A

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Moricizine

150
Q

Theophylline side effects

A

Headache
N/V
Insomnia
Arrhythmias
Seizures
Death

151
Q

The higher concentrations of theophylline cause adenosine effects which are

A

Increase HR and vasoconstriction
Decrease bronchi construction

152
Q

Roflumilast MOA

A

Selective inhibitor of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4)
Inhibit PDE4 which decreases cAMP leading to decreased inflammatory effects, fibrosis and relaxes smooth muscle l

153
Q

Side effects of roflumilast vaccine

A

N/V
Wt loss
Decreased appetite
(NO cardiac effects because it doesn’t antagonize the adenosine system)

154
Q

Ensifentrine MOA

A

Dual inhibitor of PDE 3 and 4
Works on cAMP and cGMP which increases them
NOT 5 and 7
Causes bronchodilation, anti inflammatory effects, and mucocillary clearance

155
Q

Definition of COPD by the GOLD standard

A

heterogeneous lung condition characterized by chronic respiratory symptoms (dyspnea, cough, sputum production, and/or exacerbations) due to abnormalities of the airways and/or alveoli that cause persistent airway obstruction

156
Q

What are some characteristics of COPD

A

progressive
airflow limitation that is not reversible
persistent exposure to noxious particles/gases
lung airways and parenchyma are susceptible to inflammation
causes extra pulmonary effects

157
Q

What are the 2 classifications of COPD

A

Chronic bronchitis
-mucus secretion with cough
Emphysema
-destruction of alveoli, no fibrosis

158
Q

Causes of COPD

A

cig smoking or second hand smoke
occupational exposure
environmental air pollution
genetics

159
Q

Host factors for COPD

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency causes emphysema
AHR
recurrent infections

160
Q

Pathophysiology of COPD

A

change in central airway, peripheral airway, lung parenchyma, and pulmonary vasculature from repeated exposures to noxious particles and gases and chronic inflammation

161
Q

What is the mechanistic triad of COPD

A

Inflammation
Imbalance between proteases and antiproteases
Oxidative Stress

162
Q

mechanistic triad of COPD: Inflammation

A

neutrophils, macrophages, and CD8 T cells
leukotriene B4, IL-8, TNF-alpha
elastase, cathepsin G, protease 3
mediators sustain inflammation causes damage to lung structure
eosinophils may be increased

163
Q

mechanistic triad of COPD: Imbalance between proteases and antiproteases

A

proteases are part of the normal protective and repair
increase production of destructive proteases
decrease production or protective antiproteases
AAT (inhibit proteolytic enzymes, decreased protease activity causing destruction of alveolar walls and parenchyma)

164
Q

mechanistic triad of COPD: Oxidative Stress

A

hydrogen peroxide and nitric oxide found in epithelial, breath, urine
promotes inflammation
protease imbalance
oxidants cause airway narrowing and damage to lung extracellular matrix

165
Q

Central airways: inflammatory cells and mediators stimulate what

A

mucus secreting gland hyperplasia
mucus hyper-secretion
-cause cough and sputum production

166
Q

Peripheral airways (major site of airflow obstruction)

A

airway blocked by inflammatory exudates + mucus hyper secretion
loss of elasticity and destruction of alveolar attachments
infiltration of inflammatory cells, increased smooth muscle tissue, and fibrosis

167
Q

As airflow obstruction worsens what happens

A

rate of lung emptying is slowed (increased air left in lung after exhalation)
-pt breathes at higher vol
-decrease amount if air pt inhales (dyspnea)
Air trapping -> pulmonary hyperinflation
-flattening the diaphragm

168
Q

Impaired gas exchange causes hypoxemia and hypercapnia what are those

A

hypoxemia: inequality in Va/Q, increase erythrocytes to get more oxygen
hypercapnia: elevated CO2 levels in blood

169
Q

Extra-pulmonary effects of COPD

A

CVD comp, late COPD after hypoxemia, lead to cor pulmonale with PE
progressive loss of skeletal muscle

170
Q

Symptoms of COPD

A

chronic cough (>3 months)
chronic sputum production
dyspnea on exertion
recurrent LRT infections

171
Q

Signs of COPD

A

use of accessory muscles
pursed lip breathing
increased RR
shallow breathing
hyperinflation of chest
auscultation
cyanosis, tachycardia
cor pulmonale

172
Q

Lab tests for COPD

A

polycythemia (elevated hematocrit by 55%)
FEV1 <35% check pulse ox
O2 <92% check ABG
AAT level if <45 yo and present with COPD

173
Q

How can medical history contribute to COPD

A

risk factor exposure
past MH
FH of COPD
pattern of sx development
h/o exacerbations or hospitalizations
presence of comorbidities (heart disease, osteo, malignancy)
impact of disease on pt life

174
Q

Diagnosis of COPD

A

post bronchodilator FEV1/FVC <0.7 confirms presence of persistent airflow limitation
spirometric assessment required to establish diagnosis

175
Q

What is GOLD 1 (mild) in pt with FEV1/FVC <0.7

A

FEV1 >80% predicted

176
Q

What is GOLD 2 (moderate) in pt with FEV1/FVC <0.7

A

50% < FEV1 <80% predicted

177
Q

What is GOLD 3 (severe) in pt with FEV1/FVC <0.7

A

30% < FEV1 <50% predicted

178
Q

What is GOLD 4 (very severe) in pt with FEV1/FVC <0.7

A

FEV1 <30% predicted

179
Q

Assessment of symptoms in COPD diagnosis

A

measure breathlessness
CAT recommended
- measure of health status impairment, 0-40 score

180
Q

Assessment of exacerbation risk in COPD diagnosis

A

largest COPD burden on healthcare system
increase decline in lung function and deterioration in health status
poor prognosis with increased risk of death

181
Q

What category of COPD are you in if you have 2 or more moderate exacerbations or 1 or more leading to hospitalization

182
Q

What category of COPD are you in if you have 0 or 1 moderate exacerbations (no hospital)

A

A: mMRC 0-1, CAT <10
B: mMRC >2, CAT >10

183
Q

Green zone COPD

A

doing well
usual activity
take daily med

184
Q

Yellow zone COPD

A

bad day or COPD flare
more breathless
more cough
cont daily meds and add reliever inhaler, oral corticosteroids, and/or macrolide

185
Q

Red zone COPD

A

urgent medical care needed
severe SOB
cough blood
call 911

186
Q

What are the brief aids in smoking cessation

A

5 R’s
5 A’s

187
Q

How is addiction behavioral and physiological

A

behavioral: break habit
physiological: reduce and eliminate dependence

188
Q

What does pulmonary rehabilitation do

A

improve dyspnea, health status, exercise tolerance
decrease hospital and death
all pt with high symptoms
6-8 wks

189
Q

What are the 3 components of pulmonary rehabilitation

A

exercise training
breathing techniques
education

190
Q

Timing for pulmonary rehabilitation

A

at diagnosis of COPD
hospital discharge

191
Q

Bronchodilators for COPD

A

mainstay of tx for systematic COPD
inhaled preferred
long acting (more expensive, better for outcome)
beta 2-agonist (SABA, LABA)

192
Q

LABA key points for COPD

A

decrease exacerbations and improve exercise tolerance , dyspnea, and QOL
pt should receive a SABA PRN

193
Q

Tiotropium key points for COPD

A

significant decrease exacerbations
good in combo
also need SABA PRN

194
Q

Methylxanthines indication in COPD

A

pt who cannot use inhaled meds or ate symptomatic despite appropriate use of inhaled bronchodilators

195
Q

Methylxanthines concentrations for COPD

A

5-15: target
>15 ADE
<20: HA, n/v, insomnia

196
Q

Conditions that affects theophylline concentrations

A

increase: HF, liver disease
decrease: high protein diet

197
Q

Aminophylline to theophylline conversion

A

multiply by 0.8

198
Q

When to use corticosteroids for COPD

A

group E with LABA + LAMA, is eosinophils >300

199
Q

PDE4-I indication for COPD

A

severe or very severe COPD and a h/o exacerbations
for pt not controlled on long-acting bronchodilator or on fixed dose of LABA/ICS combo
onset is 4 wks

200
Q

When to add IL-4 receptor antagonist for COPD

A

pt with COPD, chronic bronchitis, h/o >2 moderate exacerbations or >1 severe exacerbation in last year despite triple therapy and blood eosinophil >300

201
Q

When to use long-term oxygen therapy in COPD

A

increase survival in pt with severe chronic hypoxemia
PaO2 <55 mmHg or SaO2 <88% with evidence of right sided HF, polycythemia, or pulmonary HTN

202
Q

AAT augmentation therapy for COPD

A

AAT deficiency and mod airflow obstruction (35%-60% FEV1)

203
Q

What to use in group E COPD

A

LABA + LAMA + SABA PRN
(add ICS if eos >300)

204
Q

What to use in group A COPD

A

bronchodilator + SABA PRN

205
Q

What to use in group B COPD

A

LABA + LAMA + SABA PRN

206
Q

Strong favor of ICS use in COPD

A

h/o hospital exacerbations
>2 mod exacerbations
eos >300
h/o concomitant asthma

207
Q

Against use of ICS use in COPD

A

repeated pneumonia events
eos <100
h/o mycobacterial infection

208
Q

When patient had dyspnea and is on LABA or LAMA what do you do

A

LABA + LAMA

209
Q

When to use azithromycin in COPD

A

preferentially in former smokers after LABA + LAMA + ICS

210
Q

When to use rofluilast in COPD

A

FEV1 <50% and chronic bronchitis after LABA + LAMA + ICS used

211
Q

When to use dupilumab in COPD

A

when eos >300 and have chronic bronchitis after LABA + LAMA + ICS

212
Q

COPD exacerbations definition

A

an event characterized by increased dyspnea and/or cough and sputum that worsens <14 days which may be accompanied by tachypnea with increased local and systemic inflammation caused by infection, pollution, or other insult to airway

213
Q

COPD exacerbations etiology

A

RTI (viral or bacterial)
-number of pt have bacteria colonizing their lower airways in the stable phase of disease
-bacterial burden increased during some exacerbations
Peaks in air pollution

214
Q

Diagnosis for COPD exacerbations

A

relies exclusively on pt complaining of an acute change of symptoms: dyspnea, cough and/or sputum production

215
Q

Tests for COPD

A

pulse ox
ABG
chest x-ray
EKG
CBC
presence of purulent sputum
biochem tests

216
Q

First line therapy for COPD exacerbations

A

bronchodilators
SABA +/- short acting anticholinergics
cont LABDs +/- ICS or initiate as soon as possible

217
Q

When to use oral corticosteroids

A

shorten recovery time and length of hospital stay
improve lung function and arterial hypoxemia
pred 40 mg po qd x5d

218
Q

Antibiotics for COPD exacerbations

A

3 cardinal symptoms
dyspnea, sputum volume, sputum purulence
presence of 2 cardinal symptoms (one must be sputum purulence)
5-7 days

219
Q

Antibiotics for uncomplicated exacerbations: <4 exac/year, no comorbid illness, FEV1 >50% of predicted

A

macrolide
sec/third gen cephalosporin
doxycycline

220
Q

Antibiotics for complicated exacerbations: >65 yo and >4 exac/year, FEV1 <50% but >35%

A

augmentin
fluoroquinolone

221
Q

Antibiotics for complicated exacerbations with risk of p. aeruginosa

A

fluoroquinolone
IV beta lactamase resistant penicillin with antipeudomonal activity
3/4 gen cephalosporin w/ antipseudomonal activity

222
Q

Oxygen therapy for COPD patients

A

titrate to improve hypoxemia with target of 88-92%

223
Q

NIV Assisted ventilation indications

A

respiratory acidosis (pH <7.35 and PaCO2 >45 mmHg)
severe dyspnea with clinical signs suggestive of respiratory muscle fatigue such as use of accessory muscles and paradoxical ad motion

224
Q

Invasive assisted ventilation indications

A

for pt with more severe symptoms
pts failing NIV