Hem exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What process is the formation of blood clots (partial or complete) within the blood vessels which limits the natural blood flow

A

thrombosis

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2
Q

What process is tightly regulated where the body attempts to maintain normal blood flow in vessels despite damage/trauma

A

hemostasis

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3
Q

What are the 4 simple steps of hemostasis process

A

constriction of blood vessel
formation of a temporary platelet plug
activation of the coagulation cascade
formation of a fibrin plug

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4
Q

What is primary hemostasis: blood vessel constriction

A

started by damage to endothelium of vessel
biomarkers released to promote vasoconstriction
platelet adhesion at site injury
release serotonin, ADP, and Ca2+
activation of glycoprotein receptors
platelet aggregation
platelet plug forms (very weak, only temporary)

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5
Q

What is secondary hemostasis: activation of the coagulation cascade

A

activation of clotting factors
conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
strong plug

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6
Q

How to remember:
intrinsic
extrinsic
common pathway

A

intrinsic: TENET
extrinsic: 7 (lucky 7)
common pathway: X (x marks the spot)
from there its small bills (2-thrombin, 1-fibrin)

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7
Q

Natural anticoagulants: protein C

A

inhibits factor VIIIa (8) and Va (5)

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8
Q

Natural anticoagulants: protein S

A

cofactor for protein C

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9
Q

Natural anticoagulants: antithrombin (ATIII)

A

inhibitors of factors Xa (10) and IIa (2)

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10
Q

Natural anticoagulants: TFPI

A

tissue factor pathway inhibitor (FVIIa) (7)

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11
Q

What has a short half life and what has a long half life

A

short: 7 and 10
long: 2, C, S, and 9

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12
Q

Factor 10 primarily activated the conversion of plasminogen into what

A

plasmin (this breaks down fibrin)

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13
Q

What kind of thrombosis is this:
platelets and injury to vessel wall activates
inflammation as a result of high LDL, infection, and hypertension
platelet rich
anti-platelet therapy
ischemic stroke, acute coronary syndrome

A

Arterial thrombosis

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14
Q

What kind of thrombosis is this:
clotting cascade activates
due to stasis or state of hyper-coagulability
fibrin rich
anticoagulant therapy
DVT, PE, cardioembolic stroke

A

Venous thrombosis

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15
Q

What are the 3 components that lead to a thrombus

A

hyper-coagulability
vascular damage
circulatory stasis

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16
Q

What type of VTE etiology is from an injury due to surgery, trauma, indwelling catheters, damage to valves, leading to venous stasis

A

vascular injury

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17
Q

What type of VTE etiology is from obesity, surgery, acute illness, paralysis, older ago

A

stasis

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18
Q

What type of VTE etiology is from malignancy, factor deficiency or mutations, pregnancy, nephrotic syndrome, medications

A

hypercoaguable states

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19
Q

What is the clinical presentation of DVT

A

unilateral leg pain
swelling
homan sign (back of knee pain)
tenderness
skin discoloration
ulceration
warmth
asymptomatic

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20
Q

What is the clinical presentation of PE

A

chest pain / tightness
SOB
tachypnea
tachycardia
syncope, dizziness
cardiogenic shock
hemoptysis

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21
Q

Pathophys and clinical presentation of ischemic stroke

A

stasis in atria
emboli from heart circulates to brain causing vessel occlusion
STROKE signs

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22
Q

Pathophys and clinical presentation of factor V leiden (FVL)

A

point mutation in F5 gene
insensitive to activated protein C
recurrent VTE or asymptomatic

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23
Q

Pathophys and clinical presentation of prothrombin 20210 mutation

A

point mutation
increased concentration of prothrombin in circulation
VTE or asymptomatic

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24
Q

Pathophys and clinical presentation of protein C and S deficiencies

A

PROC and PROS1 gene
upregulation of factors 8 and 5 leading to prothrombic state due to increased thrombin production
VTE, stroke, miscariage, warfarin induced necrosis

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25
Q

Pathophys and clinical presentation of antithrombin 3 deficiency

A

reduced levels of AT lead to uncontrolled thrombin generation and fibrin deposition
VTE, heparin resistance, stoke

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26
Q

Pathophys and clinical presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)

A

APLA
upregulation of tissue factor, decreased nitric oxide, increased endothelial injury
DVT, PE, stoke, catastropic APS, miscarriage

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27
Q

What drugs can not be used in triple positive

A

DOACs

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28
Q

Pathophys and clinical presentation of hyperhomocysteinemia

A

variation in MTHFR gene
endothelial injury and inflammation
VTE, CVD

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29
Q

What lab monitoring:
time it takes plasma to clot after adding TF reagent
INR deeloped by WHO to standard values
INR= (patient PT/control PT)
mostly used for warfarin

A

PT/INR

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30
Q

What lab monitoring:
time it takes plasma to clot with reagent (not TF)
no standard
must calibrate range with reagent change
therapeutic range = 1.5-2.5*control
used for heparin, argotroban, bivalirudin

A

aPTT

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31
Q

What lab monitoring:
time it take whole blood to clot with a reagent (not TF)
range depends on lab/reagents
useful as a POC test when large doses of herparin used for cardiopulmonary bypass or cardiac catherizations

A

ACT

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32
Q

What lab monitoring:
measures in units the level of enzymatic activity
calibrated to measure levels based on the specific anticoagulant
no reagent/variability
normal range is 0

A

Anti-Xa

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33
Q

What is the heparin therapeutic range for its anti-Xa

A

0.3-0.7

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34
Q

What are the indirect parental anticoagulants

A

unfractioned heparin (UFH)
low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
fondaparinux

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35
Q

What are the direct parental anticoagulants

A

argutraban
bivalriduin

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36
Q

What are the common indications when to use anticoagulants

A

VTE (DVT or PE)
ACS
mechanical circulatory support
bridging for a mechanical heart valve or a fib
hemodialysis

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37
Q

When to use anticoagulants with caution

A

thrombocytopenia (<100,000)
recent bleeding event
increased bleed risk
recent hemorrhagic stroke
concomitant antiplatelet use
severe liver disease
renal failure
bleeding disorders
elderly

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38
Q

What are the contraindications of anticoagulants

A

active significant bleeding
severe thrombocytopenia (<30-50)
heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
enoxaparin/fondaparinux BBW with neuraxial anesthesia or spinal punctures

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39
Q

Heparin chain must have ___ saccharide units to bind thrombin

A

18

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40
Q

heparin MOA

A

binds antithrombin and creates a conformational change that accelerates the rate which antithrombin inhibits clotting enzymes (factors 2 and 10a) which inactivates factors 9a, 11a, and 12a

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41
Q

What labs to monitor for heparin

A

aPTT (q6h after starting drip or rate change)
anti factors Xa
CBC
check AM labs once daily when therapeutic

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42
Q

Heparin dosing

A

prophylaxis: 5000-7500 SQ q8-12h
therapeutic: fixed dose or weight based
VTE: bolus of 80 units/kg1, max 10,000, then start 18 units/kg/hr
ACS: bolus of 60 units/kg
1, max 4,000, then start 12 units/kg/hr

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43
Q

heparin ADE

A

bleeding, bruising
osteoporosis
hyperkalemia
elevated thransaminases
HIT

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44
Q

Enoxaparin and dalteparin MOA

A

accelerated factor Xa inhibition through conformational changes in antithrombin by pentasaccharide binding

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45
Q

Enoxaparin dosing

A

ppx: 30-40 mg daily SQ, BID in obesity and trauma
tx: 1 mg/kg q12h or 1.5 mg/kg qd
ACS dose based on weight/timing
RENAL: crcl<30 then VTE ppx=30 mg qd and tx is 1 mg/kg

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46
Q

What are the different Enoxaparin syringes

A

30, 40, 60, 80, 120, 150

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47
Q

Enoxaparin ADE

A

bleeding
osteoporosis
HIT
decreased risk compared to heparin

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48
Q

Dalteparin dosing

A

ppx: 5000 units qd
tx: 200 units/kg qd or 100 units/kg q12h
renal: crcl<30 AVOID

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49
Q

Dalteparin ADE

A

bleeding
elevated transaminases
HIT

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50
Q

Fondaparinux (synthetic heparin product) MOA

A

catalyzes factor Xa inhibition by binding antithrombin

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51
Q

Fondaparinux dosing

A

ppx: 2.5 mg qd (avoid if <50kg)
<50 kg: 5 mg qd
>100: 10 mg qd
renal: crcl<30 contraindiacted

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52
Q

Fondaparinux ADE

A

bleeding
elevated transaminases

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53
Q

Heparin, LMWH (Enoxaparin), Fondaparinux: monitoring labs and risk of HIT

A

Heparin: aPTT, anti-Xa, high
LMWH (Enoxaparin): anti-Xa, kinda high
Fondaparinux: n/a, +/-

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54
Q

Argatroban MOA

A

univalent inhibitor that directly targets the active site of thrombin, hepatic metabolism

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55
Q

Argatroban dosing

A

2 mcg/kg/min for HIT
hepatic impairment/critically ill: 0.25-1 mcg/kg/min

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56
Q

Argatroban ADE

A

bleeding
hypotension
INR prolongation

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57
Q

Argatroban monitoring with and without heparin

A

aPTT 2 hr after drip or change then once daily in AM
warfarin: hold Argatroban for 2-3 hr then check INR, or stop once INR >4 and recheck

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58
Q

Bivalirudin MOA

A

bidivalent inhibitor that directly targets the active site (N-terminus) and exosite 1 (C-terminus) of thrombin

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59
Q

Bivalirudin dose

A

HIT: 0.15-0.2 mg/kg/hr
reduce in renal impairment

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60
Q

Bivalirudin ADE

A

bleeding
hypotension
prolong INR

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61
Q

Bivalirudin monitoring with and without warfarin

A

aPTT 2 hr after drip or change then once daily in AM
warfarin: hold Argatroban for 2 hr then check INR, or stop once INR >2 and recheck

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62
Q

Apixaban MOA

A

directly inhibits Xa, prevents thrombin and fibrin formation

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63
Q

What are the direct and indirect factor Xa inhibitors

A

indirect: heparin, LMWH, fondaparinux
direct: apixaban, edoxaban, rivaroxaban

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64
Q

What are the direct and indirect thrombin inhibitors

A

indirect: heparin
direct: dabigatran, argatroban, bivalirubin

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65
Q

Heparin is a mixture of _________ glycosaminoglycans

A

sulfated (causing it to be highly acidic)

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66
Q

Heparin has a pentasaccharide sequence that has high affinity for AT (antithrombin) which is important for what activity

A

anticoagulant activity

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67
Q

Heparin has a contraindication for what kind of allergy

A

pork

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68
Q

Can haparin be used in pregnancy

A

yes

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69
Q

Heparin with >18 saccharide units inhibit what, while <18 inhibits what

A

> 18: thrombin
<18: Xa

70
Q

AT helps regulate blood clot formation which inactivates several factors, its activity is increased when what binds to it

71
Q

What does AT inhibit in the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways

A

intrinsic: 9,10,11,12
extrinsic: 7

72
Q

Which binds to heparin AT or factor 10

A

AT because factor 10 only binds to AT so when there are smaller units then factor 10 is only inhibited

73
Q

What is the antidote for heparin and how does it work

A

protamine (positive charge) completely reverse effect
binds to heparin and prevents it from activating antithrombin

74
Q

What is the BBW for protamine

A

hypersensitivity (fish)

75
Q

heparin and lmwh DDI

A

anticoag
antiplatelets
thrombolytics

76
Q

Which crosses into breast milk deltaparin or enoxaparin

A

deltaparin

77
Q

Does argatroban cross into breast milk

A

yes
hepatic metabolism by CYP3A4

78
Q

Is dabigatran a prodrug? Can you use it in pregnancy

A

prodrug (oral use)
no pregnancy

79
Q

dabigatran DDI

A

NSAID
Rifampin
Antacids
CCB
p-gp

80
Q

dabigatran BBW

A

thrombotic events with premature discontinuation

81
Q

dabigatran MOA

A

inhibitors reversibly bind to catalytic active site of thrombin which blocks the interaction of thrombin with its substrates

82
Q

antidote for dabigatran

A

idarucizumab (IV)
fragments bind to its metabolites
can cause headache or constipation

83
Q

Bivalirudin MOA

A

binds to N terminal and C terminal
transient inhibition of thrombin -> reversible inhibition
cleavage of NH2 restores thrombin catalytic site

84
Q

inhibition of pro coagulant functions causes a decrease in formation of what

A

final blood clot
-inhibition clotting factor activation and activation of platelets

85
Q

inhibition of anti coagulant functions causes an inhibition of what protein activation

A

protein C (serine protease)

86
Q

Thrombin activation of clotting factors causes what

A

factor 5: accelerates formation of prothrombinase which accelerates formation of thrombin, and activates factor 13

87
Q

Thrombin activation of platelets causes what

A

reinforces platelet aggregation

88
Q

Can you use protamine in fondaparinux

89
Q

fondaparinux MOA

A

binds to and induces a conformational change in AT, then binds and inactivates factor 10
*it does not inactivate thrombin

90
Q

fondaparinux DDI

A

NSAID
(also prolonged elimination in older than 75 y)

91
Q

What do direct factor 10 inhibitors do

A

selective and reversible inhibition of factor 10
indirectly inhibits thrombin formation and platelet activation/aggregation by thrombin

92
Q

Antidote for apixaban and rivaroxaban

A

Andexanet Alfa (IV)
binds to 10a inhibitors with high affinity, leading to release of endogenous FXa, which FXa can then resume normal function

93
Q

Andexanet Alfa (IV) BBW

A

thrombosis, ischemic events, cardiac arrest, sudden death

94
Q

direct factor Xa inhibitors DDI

A

NSAID
inducers and inhibitors of CYP3A4

95
Q

direct factor Xa inhibitors BBW

A

increased risk of thrombotic events with premature discontinuation
not for pregnancy

96
Q

Does warfarin cross the placenta

A

yes
(also takes 2-5 days for action onset leaving pt to maybe having to take something else prior to it working)

97
Q

What warfarin mixture is more potent

A

S (warfarin is hydroxylated which is metabolized to alcohols by reductases)

98
Q

What is the main target for Warfarin

A

VKOR (this enzyme takes the oxidized vitamin K and converts it to reduced active vit K which allows for clotting factors to get activated)

99
Q

VKOE activity is required for post-translational modification of what clotting factors

A

2, 7, 9, 10, protein C and S

100
Q

Warfarin side effects

A

bleeding from gums after brushing teeth
bruising
diarrhea
hair loss

101
Q

Warfarin DDI

A

NSAIDs
fluconazole, omeprazole, lovastatin
antacids
foods rich in vit K

102
Q

What are the antidotes for Warfarin

A

vit K (SOB, tachycardia, flushing, taste change)
fresh frozen plasma (FFP) (headache, nausea, itching)
recombinant factor VII
prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
-Feiba
-Kcentra

103
Q

What factors does feiba, kcentra, and nocoseven (antidotes for warfarin) have

A

feiba: inactive 2, 9, 10, and active 7
kcentra: inactive 2, 7, 9, 10 and antithrombotic C and S
nocoseven : recombinant factor 7 (active)

104
Q

What genetic mutations and polymorphisms contribute to genetic factors to warfarin dosing

A

CYP2C9: slow metabolism causing dose decrease
VKORC: larger doses needed

105
Q

Which VKORC1 mutations cause a higher dose A or B

A

B require higher doses which is mainly seen in african americans, then europeans, then asians
A = decrease warfarin resistance = derease dose
B = increase warfarin resistance = increase dose

106
Q

Apixaban MOA

A

directly inhibits FXa, prevents thrombin and fibrin formation

107
Q

Apixaban dosing

A

NVAF: 5 mg BID or 2.5 mg BID* (meet 2/3 criteria: >80 yo, <60 kg, SCr >1.5)
DVT/PE: 10 mg BID x7 d then 5 mg BID
VTE ppx: 2.5 mg BID
THA/TKA: 2.5 mg BID for 10-35 d

108
Q

Apixaban ADE

109
Q

Apixaban/Dabigatran/Rivaroxaban BBW

A

abrupt w/drawl increase risk of thrombotic events
spinal hematoma/epidural ICH

110
Q

Dabigatran MOA

A

directly inhibits FIIa, prevents thrombin and fibrin formation

111
Q

Dabigatran dosing (avoid if crcl <30 ml/min)

A

NVAF: 150 mg BID
DVT/PE: 150 mg BID after minimum 5 days parental AC
THA: 110 mg day if surgery then 220 mg d x10-35d
TKA: same as THA, off label use

112
Q

Dabigatran ADE

A

bleeding
GI upset

113
Q

What weight to use in DOACs

A

actual body weight to calculate CrCl

114
Q

Edoxaban MOA

A

directly inhibits FXa, prevents thrombin and fibrin formation

115
Q

Edoxaban ADE

116
Q

Edoxaban BBW

A

abrupt w/drawl increase risk of thrombotic events
spinal hematoma/epidural ICH
increase risk of ischemic events if CrCl >95 ml/min for AF
(do not use in <15 or >95 CrCl

117
Q

Rivaroxaban MOA

A

directly inhibits FXa, prevents thrombin and fibrin formation

118
Q

Rivaroxaban dosing

A

NVAF: 20 mg daily with largest meal (use 15 mg if CrCl 15-50)
DVT/PE: 15 mg BID x21 d then 20 mg d
VTE ppx: 10 mg d (avoid in <30 ml/min)
THA/TKA: 10 mg BID x10-35d

119
Q

Rivaroxaban ADE

120
Q

CYP3A4 inducers can ________ DOAC concentrations and increase thrombotic events, while CYP3A4 inhibitors can _________ DOAC concentrations and increase bleeding risk

A

reduce
increase

121
Q

P-gp inducers (reduce DOAC concentrations and increase thrombotic risk)

A

carbamazepine, phenytonin, rifampin, st johns wart (avoid DOAC)

122
Q

P-gp/CYP3A4 inhibitors

A

clarithromycin, ketoconazole, itraxonazole, ritonavir (avoid DOAC or reduce eliquis dose)

123
Q

Strong CYP3A4 inducers

A

phenobarbital, primidone (avoid apixaban, rivaroxaban)

124
Q

SNTT for Warfarin

A

seven: short half life
nine: short half life
ten: long half life
two: long half life

125
Q

The full effect of warfarin is depending on clotting factor 2 which is the longest, this causes the full INR to not be seen for how long

126
Q

What is the most common bridging for warfarin

A

heparin or enoxaparin
overlap must continue for 24-48 hours after INR in therapeutic range and for minimum 5 days

127
Q

Warfarin ADE

A

major or fatal bleeding
purple toe syndrome
microemboli
skin necrosis
decreased bone mineral density
bruising

128
Q

Warfarin drug-disease interactions

A

hepatic dysfunction/alcohol abuse
end stage renal disease
anemia
acute decompensated heart failure
hyper/hypothyroidism
elderly
low body weight/obesity
malignancy

129
Q

Warfarin DDI (FAB 5(F) + macrolides)

A

flagyl, amiodarone, bactrim, fluoroquinolone, macrolides
(amiodarone increase INR)

130
Q

Warfarin drug-nutrition interactions

A

vit K consistency
malnutrition led to warfarin sensitivity
feeding tubes can increase warfarin requirements
stomach/intestine resections can increase or decrease warfarin sensitivity

131
Q

How much of a percent to change warfarin dosing

A

10% change a week
double/half the dose if inpatient

132
Q

What is the normal INR baseline

133
Q

What is the warfarin INR goals

A

2-3 (AF, DVT, PE)
mechanical mitral valve/mechanical aortic valve + 1 risk factor (AF/HF) 2.5-3.5

134
Q

How often to check INR in warfarin patients

A

monthly; every 2-3 months if patient is VERY stable

135
Q

Warfarin other labs to check

A

CBC, liver function test, albumin

136
Q

During titration phase in patient how often to check warfarin INR? During maintenance phase how often to check warfarin INR

A

2-3 days
1-2 weeks
ALWAYS check compliance

137
Q

Warfarin education perals

A

tell everyone on warfarin even dentist
tell before you start/stop herbals or OTC
missed dose by 12 hours, skip and take at regular time
tell provider of doses missed dates
consistant vit K
monitor for bruising/bleeding or sings of clot
no alcohol
if hit head go to ER
avoid NSAID/aspirin

138
Q

Types of DVT

A

upper extremity DVT
cerebral vein thrombosis
splanchnic thrombus
proximal DVT
distal DVT
superficial vein thrombosis

139
Q

DVT diagnosis

A

treat until proven otherwise
ACs can cause major bleeding, avoid diagnosis if not reasonable certainty

140
Q

DVT test/labs

A

elevated D-dimer (fibrin degradation prodcut)
venous duplex ultrasound/compression ultrasound
MRI/CT

141
Q

DVT TX: acute phase nonpharm

A

rapid anticoag therapy
ambulation and compression stocking can help resolve pain and swelling
outpatient (hemodynamically stable, not on dialysis, not bleeding, no major trauma, compliant)

142
Q

DVT TX: acute phase pharm

A

heparin, LMWH, fondaparinux
DOAC: apixaban (10 mg bid x7d), rivaroxaban (15 mg BID x21 d)
VKA: warfarin

143
Q

DVT tx: chronic phase pharm

A

1: DOAC
2: warfarin (INR goal 2-3)
3: LMWH, fondaparinux (alt if pt cant take oral anticoag)

144
Q

DVT complication: postthrombotic syndrome (PTS)

A

occur when blood flow not returned after thrombosis
chronic damage to venous valves
-edema, stass dermatitis, stasis ulcers, chronic pain
pulmonary embolism (sudden death)

145
Q

Types of PE

A

submassive if systolic BP >90 but has 1:
-RV dysfunction (right heart strain)
-myocardial necrosis (elevated troponins)
massive if one:
-sustained hypotension (<90 mmHg for >15 min)
-obstructive shock (requires inotropic support)

146
Q

PE diagnosis

A

if suspected, treat until proven otherwise
ACs can cause major bleeding, avoid diagnosis if not reasonable certainty

147
Q

PE labs/tests

A

Elevated D-dimer
ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan
computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA)

148
Q

PE tx: acute phase nonpharm

A

rapid anticoag therapy
assess for hemodynamic instability (<90 mmHg, HR >110 BPM, O2 <90%)
only low risk treated outpatient

149
Q

PE tx: acute phase thrombolytics

A

only for massive PE
reduced elevated PA pressure and normalizes RV dysfunction
major bleed risk but multisystem failure outweighs risk
alteplase 100 mg IV over 2 hours
for DVT: no improvement, consider extensive proximal DVT

150
Q

IVC filter

A

only for contraindication to AC
remove 90-120 d once bleeding resolves, then start conventional AC therapy
may be permanent with chronic VTE
risk of dislodgment, migration, perforations, hemorrhages

151
Q

EKOS

A

catheter directed thrombolysis
alteplase: 0.5-2 mg/hr for 2-15 h (depend on clot)
resume AC after procedure

152
Q

Thrombectomy/Embolectomy

A

PE last line
for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy, failed thrombolytics, or likely to die before thrombolysis
suction out clot or incision in blood vessel to remove clot

153
Q

DVT/PE tx duration

A

first provoked VTE: 3 months
first unprovoked VTE: at least 3 months (6-12 if risk)
second/recurrent VTE: indefinite
cancer related: continue until cancer remission

154
Q

VTE goals of therapy

A

prevent thrombus extension
prevent embolization
reduce recurrence risk
prevent long term complications
prevent death

155
Q

Test for predicting who needs VTE ppx

A

PADUA
very low risk - ambulation only
low risk - GCS and EPC cuffs
moderate to high - LMWH, UFH, fondaparinux, rivaroxaban (score >/= 4)

156
Q

VTE nonpharm therapy

A

ambulation
graduation compression socks (GCS)
EPC/IPC cuffs (18 h/d)

157
Q

VTE PPX for acute medically III pharm

A

UHF: 5000 u SQ q8012h (7500 for obese)
enoxaparin: 30-40 mg sq qd (avoid in dialysis)
fondaparinux: 2.5 mg sq qd (CI if crcl <30)
rivaroxaban: 10 mg po qd

158
Q

VTE PPX for orthopedic surgery

A

TKA/THA: ASA 81 mg or DOAC, up to 35 days, could use UFH, fondaparinux, warfarin
Hip frature: LMWH, UFH, up to 35 days, could use ondaparinux, warfarin
(cardio, general, neuro) LMWH, UFH no long term

159
Q

TX vs PPX in VTE

A

tx: have clot or suspected clot (symptoms, elevated d-dimer), full therapeutic higher dosing
ppx: have risk factors for clot, no current clot, prophylactic, lower dosing

160
Q

ESRD VTE patients are at increased bleed risk due to platelet dysfunction. They are also at an increase thrombotic risk due t the activation of what

A

clotting cascade, increase homocysteine, decreased levels of protein C and S

161
Q

Agents to use for ESRD

A

warfarin
UFH (IV)
Apixaban

162
Q

Enoxaparin monitoring in ESRD

A

steadt state (4-5 doses)
0.7-1.0 mg/kg/d
check at trough level (30-60 min before next dose)
goal through: <0.5 units/mL

163
Q

Agents to use for pregnancy

A

LMWH
UFH (IV)
LOWWWWW dose heparin (<5 mg if in 2nd or 3rd trimester)

164
Q

Enoxaparin monitoring in pregnancy

A

increase eGRF causes faster clearance
1 mg/kg q12h may increase to q8h
goal aXa: 0.6-1.0 units/mL

165
Q

Agents to use for cancer

A

Apixaban (w/out GI lesions)
LMWH (w/ GI lesions)
UFH (IV)

166
Q

Cirrhosis in DVT is caused by what

A

coagulation factor deficiencies
thrombocytopenia
vik K deficiencies
decreased protein C, S, and antithrombin

167
Q

Agents to use for cirrhosis

A

enoxaparin
UFH (IV)
(warfarin if INR is not elevated at baseline)

168
Q

Agents to use for obesity

A

Apixaban
Rivaroxaban
Warfarin
UFH (IV)

169
Q

Enoxaparin monitoring in obesity

A

0.7-1.0 mg/kg/q12h (cap at 120-150 mg)
check peak level (4 hours after dose)
peak goal: 0.6-1 units/mL

170
Q

Agents to use for antiphospholipid syndrome: anticoagulation

A

Warfarin
LMWH
UFH (IV)
(no DOACs because its triple positive)