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Pulm Flashcards

1
Q

Etiology and pathophys of asthma?

A

Unknown; associated with obesity and atopy secondary to bronchial smooth muscle hypertrophy

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2
Q

What happens to expiratory phase of respiration in asthma?

A

Prolonged

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3
Q

Best initial test in acute asthma exacerbation?

A

Peak expiratory flow (PEF)/ABG

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4
Q

Most accurate test asthma exacerbation vs asymptomatic with occasional symptoms?

A

Asthma exacerbation-PFT

Asymptomatic-Methacholine or histamine challenge (>20% decrease in methacholine)

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5
Q

FEV1/FVC in asthma? TLC? RV?

A

Both decrease, but FEV1 decreases more so

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6
Q

3 PFT measures for aiding asthma diagnosis?

A

DECREASE FEV1/FVC ratio, >12% increase in FEV1 with albuterol, >20% decrease in FEV1 with methacholine/histamine challenge

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7
Q

Asthma tx. outpatient
Step 1: Mild intermittent (2 days/wk. +>2 nights/month)
Step 3: Moderate persistent (daily or >1 night/week)
Step 4: Severe persistent (continual, frequent)
Step 5: Increased IgE level
Step 6: Last resort

A

Step 1: SABA
Step 2: SABA+low dose ICS
Step 3: SABA+low dose ICS+ LABA
Step 4: SABA+HIGH dose ICS+LABA
Step 5: Omalizumab may be added to step 4
Step 6: Oral corticosteroids added to step 4 when all other therapies not sufficient to control symptoms on own!

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8
Q

Adverse effect of ICS?

A

Dysphonia and oral candidiasis

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9
Q

What vaccine should be given in all asthma patients?

A

Influenza/pneumococcal

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10
Q

Best indication of severity of asthma in acute setting?

A

RR

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11
Q

Best initial therapy for acute asthma treatment?

A

Oxygen combined wtih Albuterol (nebulization) and Bolus of steroids

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12
Q

Why and when is magnesium used in acute asthma exacerbation?

A

Magnesium helps relieve bronchospasm. It is only used when asthma not responsive to several rounds of albuterol while waiting for steroids to take effect

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13
Q

When do you need endotracheal intubation?

A

When patient does not respond to oxygen, albuterol, and steroids OR develops respiratory acidosis (increased pCO2)

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14
Q

Best initial/Most accurate COPD?

A

Best initial: CXR

Most accurate: PFT

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15
Q

What test can show an increase in RV in COPD?

A

Plethysmography

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16
Q

EKG in COPD?

A

RAH or RVH secondary to pulm HTN; AFIB or MAT

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17
Q

Tx. for improved mortality in COPD

A

1) Smoking cessation

2) Home oxygen (pO2

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18
Q

What 3 conditions would standard for home O2 be pO2

A

1) Pulm HTN
2) High HCT
3) Cardiomyopathy

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19
Q

Tx. for helping improve symptoms for COPD?

A

1) Inhaled Anticholingeric (tio/ipratropium)–> most effective in COPD
2) SABA/LABA
3) Pulmonary rehab

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20
Q

Difference in next line drug when symptoms not controlled with albuterol in COPD vs. Asthma?

A

Asthma-ICS next line

COPD-Inhaled anticholinergic next line

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21
Q

Tx. for severe COPD exacerbation before intubation?

A

NPPV (noninvasive positive pressure ventilation)

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22
Q

When is use of antibiotics indicated for COPD?

A

-Defined as requiring hospitalization OR having at least 2 of 3 cardinal symptoms (increasing dyspnea, increase suptum production, increase sputum purulence (green, brown))

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23
Q

Tx. for acute exacerbations of COPD?

A

-Bronchodilators (eg albuterol), corticosteroid therapy combined with antibiotics

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24
Q

What should coverage be provided against with antibiotic treatment of COPD exacerbation?

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis.

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25
Q

Presentation of bronchiectasis?

A

Cough, recurrent high volume mucopurulent sputum (>100 mL/day), and hemoptysis

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26
Q

Best initial/Most accurate test bronchiectasis?

A

Best initial: CXR

Most accurate: High-resolution CT scan

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27
Q

How do you determine bacterial etiology of recurrent episodes of infection in bronchiectasis?

A

Sputum culture

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28
Q

Treatment bronchiectasis?

A
  • Chest physiotherapy (“cupping and clapping”) and postural drainage essential for dislodging plugged up bronchi
  • Same antibiotics as COPD exacerbation (rotate antibiotics, 1 weekly each month)
  • Surgical resections of focal lesions may be indicated
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29
Q

What is ABPA and what patients is it seen in?

A

Hypersensitivity of lungs to fungal antigens that colonize the bronchial tree. Hx asthma/atopic disorders

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30
Q

How do you Diagnose APBA?

A

Brown-flecked sputum and transient infiltrates on CXR

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31
Q

Tx. ABPA?

A

1) Oral steroids for severe cases

2) Oral Itraconazole for recurrent episodes

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32
Q

What is underlying pathophys from mutation in CFTR gene?

A

Damage chloride and water transport across apical surface of epithelial cells in exocrine glands throughout the body

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33
Q

Most accurate test CF?

A

-Sweat chloride test (Pilocarpine) with >60 meq/L chloride leves

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34
Q

Tx. CF?

A

1) Antibiotics routine (inhaled aminoglycosides almost exclusively limited to CF)
2) Inhaled recombinant human deoxyribonuclease (rhDNase)–>breaks up massive amoutns of DNA in respiratory mucus (from neutrophils) that clogs up airways
3) Inhaled bronchodilators
4) Lung transplantation in advanced disease

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35
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

H influenzae?

A

COPD

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36
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

S. aureus

A

Recent viral infection (influnza)

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37
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

K. pneumoniae?

A

Alcoholism, diabetes

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38
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

Anaerobes?

A

Poor dentition, aspiration

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39
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

M. pneumoniae?

A

Young, healthy patients

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40
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

C. pneumoniae?

A

Hoarseness

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41
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

Legionella?

A

Contaminated water sources, air conditioning, ventilation systems

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42
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association:

C. Psittaci?

A

Birds

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43
Q

Common CAP pathogen and association

C. burnetii?

A

Animals at the time of giving birth, veterinarians, farmers

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44
Q

CAP physical findings?

A

Fever, dyspnea, cough, pleuritic chest pain (possible), and abdominal/pain or diarrhea if infection of lower lobes affecting intestines (through diaphragm). Dullness to percussion (if effusion), egophony due to “bronchial” breath sounds

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45
Q

Best initial test pneumonia?

Cause of pneumonia?

A
  • CXR

- Sputum gram stain/culture

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46
Q

Pathogen causing hemoptysis from necrotizing disease, and “currant jelly” sputum with pneumonia

A

K. pneumoniae

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47
Q

Pathogen causing foul-smelling sputum, “rotten eggs” with pneumoniae

A

Anaerobes

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48
Q

Pathogen causing dry cough, rarely severe, bullous myringitis with pneumoniae

A

M. pneumoniae

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49
Q

Pathogen causing GI symptoms (abdominal pain, diarrhea) and CNS symptoms such as head ache and confusion with pneumoniae

A

Legionella

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50
Q

Pathogen presenting as cause of pneuonia in AIDS with CD4

A

Pneumocystis

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51
Q

Dry or nonproductive cough occur because infection is where?

A

Interstitial space with more often air spaces of aleveoli are empty

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52
Q

What bugs are bilateral interstitial infiltrates seen on CXR?

A

Mycoplasma, viruses, coxiella, pneumocystitis, chlamydia

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53
Q

Infections with a dry/nonproductive cough in pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma, viruses, coxiella, pneumocystitis, chlamydia

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54
Q

Specific diagnostic test for M. pneumoniae?

A

PCR, cold agglutins, serology, special culture media

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55
Q

Specific diagnostic test for C. pneumoniae?

A

Rising serologic titers

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56
Q

Specific diagnostic test for Legionella?

A

Urine antigen, culture on charcoal-yeast extract

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57
Q

Specific test for C. psittaci?

A

Rising serologic titers

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58
Q

Specific test for C. burnetii

A

Rising serologic titers

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59
Q

PCP best initial/most accurate test?

A

Best initial? CXR

Most accurate? BAL (Bronchoalveolar lavage)

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60
Q

What should you do for new pleural effusions secondary to pneumonia?

A

TAP them. Analyze pleural effusion (empyema if pH

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61
Q

Exception to bronchoscopy being rare for CAP?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia

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62
Q

Outpatient CAP treatment:

  • Previously healthy or no ABX in past 3 months
  • Co-morbidities (cancer, COPD, CHF, renal or liver disease) or ABX use in past 3 months
A
  • Macrolide ABX or doxycycline

- Respiratory fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin or moxifloxacin) or B-lactam (eg penicillin/cephalosporins)+macrolide

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63
Q

Inpatient CAP treatment:

A

Respiratory fluoroquinolone OR cefriaxone+azithromycin

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64
Q

What are 2 single factors to hospitalize patient for CAP?

A

Hypoxia and hypotension

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65
Q

CURB65 for admission for pneumonia criteria?

A
  • Confusion, Uremia, Respiratory distress (>30 RR, pO265
  • 2 or higher benefit from inpatient treatment
  • > 4 ICU admission required
66
Q

Transudative vs Exudative pleural effusion

A

Transudative-NO light criteria; secondary to Increase hydrostatic or decrease oncotic pressure
Exudative-Pleural fluid protein/Serum protein>0.5, Pleural LDH/Serum LDH>0.6, secondary to increased capillary permability

67
Q

Definition of hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia developing >48 hours after admission or after hospitalization in last 90 days

68
Q

Empiric therapy for hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

1) Antipseudomonal cephalosporins: cefepime or ceftazidime OR
2) Antipseudomonal penicillin: Piperacillin/tazobactam OR
3) Carbapenems: Imipenem, meropenem, or doripenem

69
Q

What do piperacillin and ticarcillin need to be used with?

A

B-lactamase inhibitor (tazobactam or clavulanic acid)

70
Q

Best initial test (least accurate and easiest to do) for VAP

Most accurate test (most dangerous) for VAP

A

1) Tracheal aspirate

2) Open lung biopsy

71
Q

Initial combination treatment for VAP?

A

1) Antipseudomonal beta-lactam (cephalosporin (ceftazidime or cefepime) OR penicillin (piperacillin/tazobactam) OR carbapenem (imipenem, meropenem, or doripenem)
PLUS
2) Second antipseudomonal agent (aminoglycoside (gentamicin or tobamycin or amikacin) OR fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin))
PLUE
3) Methicillin-resistant antistaphyloccal agent (Vancomycin OR Linezolid)

72
Q

Difference in cause of aspiration pneumonia vs. pneumonitis?

A

Aspiration Pneumonia-oral cavity microbes infecting lung parenchyma
Aspiration pneumonitis-gastric contents causing lung parenchyma inflammation

73
Q

Best initial test/Most accurate test for lung abscess?

A

Best initial test-CXR/ABG(increase A-a gradient)

Most accurate test: Chest CT

74
Q

Tx. Lung abscess

A

Clindamycin or B-lactam w/B-lactamase inhibitor

75
Q

PCP always has what elevated?

A

LDH

76
Q

PCP treatment for severe (PO235) and if toxicity to TMP-SMX

A

Severe-add steroids to TMP-SMX

Toxicity-Switch to either Clindamycin and primaquine OR IV Pentamidine

77
Q

PCP prophylaxis?

A

1) TMP/SMX

2) Atovaquone or dapsone (if toxicity to TMP-SMX)

78
Q

TMP-SMX toxicity?

A

Rash/neutropenia

79
Q

TB largest risk factor?

A

Recent immigrants (in past 5 years) from either Haiti, DR, Phillipines, China, India, Mexico, Vietnam

80
Q

Best initial/Most accurate/Best screening for TB?

A

Best initial-CXR; sputum stain and culture for acid-fast bacilli must be done 3 times to fully exclude TB!
Most accurate-Pleural biopsy
Best screening-PPD

81
Q

What is best management if high clinical suspicion of TB?

A

Respiratory isolation BEFORE further diagnostic testing

82
Q

Treatment for smear positive TB?

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
1) RIPE for 2 months
2) RI for 4 months
=6 months total

83
Q

What 4 conditions is treatment extended for in TB?

A
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Miliary TB
  • Meningitis
  • Pregnancy (CANT USE PYRAZINAMIDE) or any other time pyrazinamide is not used
84
Q

Common side effect of all TB meds?

A

-Idiosyncratic liver injury with histology similar to viral hepatitis. DO NOT STOP until transaminases 3-5 time above upper limit

85
Q

Side effect Rifampin and management?
Side effect isoniazid and management?
Side effect pyrazinamide and managment?
Side effect ethambutol and management?

A

Rifampin-red/orange color urine; continue drug
Isoniazid-peripheral neuropathy, occasional pellegra with problems with niacin metabolism; prevent with pyridoxine co-administration
Pyrazinamide-Hyperuricemia; no treatment unless symptomatic
Ethambutol-Optic neuritis/color vision; manage with decreased dose in renal failure

86
Q

What is considered a positive PPD test?

A

> 5 mm (HIV/AIDS, chronic corticosteroids, close contacts with TB, calcifications on CXR, organ transplant)
10 mm (Recent immigrant, prisoners, healthcare workers, close contact w/ TB, Hematologic malignancy, alcoholics, DM)
15 mm (No other risk factors)

87
Q

For someone who has never had TB test what is necessary?

A

2nd PPD after 1st PPD if first negative. No second test if 1st PPD is positive

88
Q

Treatment for Positive PPD with active TB excluded via CXR?

A

Isoniazid for 9 months and use pyridoxine (B6)

89
Q

Does previous BCG affect recommendations for treatment?

A

NO

90
Q

Best initial step for all lung lesions found on CXR?

A

Compare to size of old X-rays; if not available, perform CT to characterize lesion.

91
Q

What do you need to do for lesion where old x-ray unavailable?

A

CT to characterize lesion

92
Q

Management of high risk/intermediate risk/low risk lesions?

A

High-surgical excision
Intermediate-Imaging+biopsy/PET
Low-Monitor with serial CT scan

93
Q

Most common adverse effect of transthoracic biopsy?

A

Pneumothorax

94
Q

What defines pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Thickening of interstitial septum of lung between arteriolar space and alveolus

95
Q 
Exposure and Disease:
1) Coal
2) Sandblasting, rock mining, tunneling
3) Shipyard workers, pipe fitting, insulators
4) Cotton
5 )Electronic manufacture
6) Moldy sugar cane
A

1) Coal workers pneumoconiosis
2) Silicosis
3) Asbestosis
4) Byssinosis
5) Berylliosis
6) Bagassosis

96
Q

Pulm fibrosis presentation

A
  • Dyspnea worsening on exertion
  • Fine rales or “crackles” on examination
  • Loud P2 heart sound
  • Clubbing of fingers
97
Q

Best initial/Most accurate test for pulm fibrosis

A
  • Best initial: CXR

- Most accurate: Lung biopsy; high res. CT scan less accurate, but more accurate than CXR

98
Q

CT scan pulmonary fibrosis shows what?

A

“Honeycombing” in periphery of lung

99
Q

Tx. pulm fibrosis

A

NOTHING, but if biopsy shows white cell or inflammatory infiltrate, prednisone can be used; can treat berylliosis with steroids (b/c presence of granulomas)

100
Q

Best Initial/Most accurate test sarcoidosis?

A

Best initial: CXR

Most accurate: Lymph node biopsy

101
Q

Tx. sarcoid?

A

Prednisone; asymptomatic hilar adenopathy needs no treatment

102
Q

What veins compose of >90% of thrombosis in DVT that become PE?

A

Deep veins of lower extremities (iliac, femoral, and popliteal)

103
Q

Best initial/most accurate test for PE?

A

Best initial: CXR/ABG/EKG

Most accurate: Angiography (rarely done)

104
Q

Next best step for history and initial labs suggestive of PE?

A

Empiric anticoagulation (enoxaparin)

105
Q

When is V/Q scan used first?

A

Pregnancy

106
Q

When is IVC filter the right answer?

A

1) Contraindication to use of anticoagulants
2) Recurrent emboli (while on heparin or fully therapeutic warfarin)
3) RV dysfunction (enlarged RV on echo with next embolus even if it is small can be fatal)

107
Q

Best initial/best long term?

A

Best initial: heparin/LMWH

Best long term: warfarin (can be started on day one)/oral agents (rivaroxaban/dabigatran))

108
Q

When are thrombolytics the right answer?

A

-Hemodynamically unstable patients (SBP

109
Q

Most patients with PE will have what on CXR?

A

NORMAL!!

110
Q

Definition of pulm. HTN?

A

SBP>25 mm Hg, DBP> 8 mm Hg

111
Q

Best initial/Most accurate test for Pulm. HTN?

A

Best initial test: CXR/CT

Most accurate test: Right heart or Swan-Ganz catheter

112
Q

Tx. of Pulm HTN?

A

1) Prostacyclin analogues (PA vasodilators): Epoprostenol. treprostinil, iloprost, beraprost
2) Endothelin antagonists: bosentan, ambrisentan
3) PDE-5 Inhibitors: sildenafil

113
Q

MCC of obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Obesity

114
Q

Most accurate test OSA?

A

Polysomnography

115
Q

Tx. for OSA?

A

1) Wt. loss/alcohol cessation (worsen apnea at night)
2) CPAP
3) Uvuloplatopharygoplasty if CPAP fails

116
Q

Difference btwn OSA and obesity hypoventilation syndrome?

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome has INCREASED bicarbonate secondary to PaCO2>45

117
Q

ARDS triad?

A

1) Severe hypoxia (increase A-a gradient)
2) Poor lung compliance
3) Noncardiogenic pulm. edema

118
Q

What defines ARDS in lab values?

A

pO2/FiO2

119
Q

ARDS tx. options?

A
  • Low TV mech. ventilation while waiting to see if lungs will recover (6 mL/kg TV)
  • PEEP when patient undergoing mech. ventilation to try and decrease FIO2
120
Q

Obstructive diseases with Low, Normal, and High DLCO?

A

Low-Emphysema
Normal-Chronic bronchitis/Asthma
High-Asthma

121
Q

Restrictive diseases with Low, Normal, and High DLCO?

A

Low-Sarcoid/Asbestosis, HF, Interstitial lung disease
Normal-MSK deformity, Neuromuscular disease
High-Morbid obesity

122
Q

Normal spirometry diseases with Low, and high DLCO?

A

Low-Anemia, PE, Pulm HTN

High-Pulm hemorrhage, Polycythemia

123
Q

Ventilation=?

A

RRxTV

124
Q

What should be lowered for mechanically ventilated patients with resp. alkalosis?

A

RR

125
Q

What is first step in initial ventilator management of ARDS?

A

Decrease FiO2 to non-toxic values (ie

126
Q

What is peak airway pressure=?

A

Resistive pressure + plateau pressure

127
Q

What is plateau pressure?

A

Pressure measured during an inspiratory hold maneuver when pulmonary airflow and thus resistive pressures are both 0

128
Q

What ventilator settings affect PaCO2?

A

Minute Ventilation; RR of 10-12 breaths is appropriate and TV of 4-8 mL/kg is appropriate in most cases.

129
Q

What ventilator settings affect PaO2?

A

FiO2 and PEEP; FiO2 should be 100% initially with quickly titrating down to lowest possible FiO2 to maintain PaO2 of 50-60. PEEP-5 cm H20

130
Q

What lung pathology will you have increased tactile fremitus?

A

Consolidation (eg lobar pneumonia)

131
Q

What is alveolar hypoventilation?

A

Presents with respiratory acidosis with decreased pH (40)

132
Q

CAP gold standard diagnosis?

A

CXR showing infiltrate

133
Q

Tx. legionella?

A

Resp fluoroquinolones or macrolides

134
Q

Recurrent pneumonia causes in same part of lung?

A
  • Local anatomic obstruction (bronchial compression (eg neoplasm, mediastinal adenopathy, vascular anomaly), intrinsic bronchial obstruction(eg bronchiectasis, retained foreign body))
  • Recurrent aspiration
135
Q

Pneumonia causes in different part of lung?

A
  • Sinopulmonary disease (eg CF, ciliary dyskinesia)
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Noninfectionous (eg vasculitis, bronchiolitis obliterans with organizing pneumonia)
136
Q

Asbestosis imaging?

A

Pleural plaques

137
Q

Tx. for aspergilloma vs. invasive aspergillosis?

A

Aspergilloma-surgical resection

Invasive aspergillosis-voriconazole/itraconazole

138
Q

What is Wells criteria for DVT?

A

+3 points: Clinical signs DVT or alternate diagnosis less likely than PE
+1.5 points: Previous PE/DVT, HR>100, recent surgery/immobilization
+1 point: Hemoptysis, Cancer
>4PE likely–>CT angio
D-dimer

139
Q

What anticoagulation you use in severe renal insufficiency and why?

A

Unfractionated heparin OVER LMWH, fondaparinux, rivaroxabn b/c reduced renal clearance increases activity and bleeding risk

140
Q

Management of flail chest?

A

Positive pressure mechanical ventilation

141
Q

MCC cor pulmonale?

A

COPD

142
Q

Gold standard diagnosis cor pumonale?

A

Rt. heart cath: RV dysfunction, pulm. HTN and no left heart disease

143
Q

COPD antibiotics?

A

Macrolides, fluoroquinolones or penicillins/b-lactamase inhibitors for 3-7 days

144
Q

Symptom presentation of GERD induced asthma?

A

Adult onset asthma worse after exercise, lying down, or eating

145
Q

Massive Hemoptysis initial management?

A

A-airway
B-breathing
C-circulation

146
Q

Tx. for nonallergic rhinitis?

A

Mild-intranasal antihistamine or glucocorticoids

Moderate to severe-Combination therapy

147
Q

Tx. for allergic rhinitis?

A

Intranasal glucocorticoids/antihistamines

148
Q

ARDS cause?

A

Non-cardiogenic pulm edema from leaky alveolar capillaries

149
Q

Tx. for upper airway cough syndrome (ie postnasal drip)

A

Oral 1st gen antihistamine (eg chlorpheniramine) or combined antihistamine-decongestant (eg brompeniramine and pseudophedrine)

150
Q

Most common presenting symptom of superior sulcus tumor (pancoast tumor)?

A

Shoulder pain

151
Q

Definition of idiopathic pulm HTN?

A

> 25 mmHg at rest SBP or >30 mmHg with exercise

152
Q

Presentation of large cell lung carcinoma?

A

Peripheral, smokers, associated with gynecomastica and galactorrea

153
Q

Side effect of B2 agonist/systemic steroid for acute asthma?

A

hypokalemia

154
Q

If you have AERD and need to be on NSAIDS, how do you get around it?

A

Montelukast for desensitization

155
Q

When should you intubate if looking at lab values?

A

PCO2>50 of PO2

156
Q

Best way to reduce pulm complications post operatively?

A

Stop smoking preoperatively especially if stopped 8 weeks before surgery

157
Q 
Typical vs. Atypical pneumonia
Prodrome?
Fever?
Age?
CXR?
Pathogen
Antibiotic?
A

TYPICAL (102, >40, Lobular, S. pneumo, Ceftriaxone)

ATYPICAL (>3 days,

158
Q

Child with recurrent pneumonias. what is it?
Same spot?
Different spots?

A

Same spot-foreign body aspiration

Different spots-immunodeficiency, CF

159
Q

Why get follow up CXR in patient >40 with pneumonia?

A

Make sure ABX responds and if it does not clear up by 4-6 weeks, suspect something else like bronchoalveolar carcinoma

160
Q

Cause of infant RDS?

A

Atelectasis from surfactant deficiency

Step 2 CK (16 decks)

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