Pul 0 Flashcards

1
Q

Which lymph node does duodenum, jejunum cancer most frequently metastize?

A

Superior mesenteric nodes.

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2
Q

Which lymph node does Sigmoid colon cancer most frequently metastize?

A

Colic nodes.

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3
Q

Which lymph node does rectum cancer most frequently metastize?

A

Inferior iliac nodes or inferior mesenteric nodes.

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4
Q

Which lymph node does testes cancer most frequently metastize?

A

Para-aortic nodes.

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5
Q

Which lymph node does scrotal cancer most frequently metastize?

A

Superficial inguinal nodes.

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6
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms in multiple sclerosis?

A
  1. Scanning speech.
  2. Intention tremor.
  3. Nystagmus.

Can also inlcude bowel and urinary incontinence, internuclear ophtalmoplegia, and optic neuritis.

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7
Q

Which lysosome storage disease has accumulation of GM2 ganglioside?

A

Tay-Sach disease.

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8
Q

Which lysosome storage disease is associated with renal failure?

A

Fabry disease.

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9
Q

Which lymph node does stomach cancer most frequently metastize?

A

Celiac nodes.

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10
Q

What nerve is the most vulnerable in fracture of the shaft of the humerus?

A

Radial nerve.

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11
Q

What nerve is the most vulnerable in fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus>

A

Axillary nerve.

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12
Q

What nerve is the most vulnerable in supracondylar humerus fracture?

A

Median nerve.

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13
Q

A high school kid falls of his bike and the radiograph shows a midshaft fracture of the humerus. Which nerve and artery are most likely damaged? What muscular problems might be affected?

A

A radial nerve and deep brachial artery. Wrist drop and loss of brachioradialis reflex.

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14
Q

What is the female equivalent of scotum?

A

Labia majora.

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15
Q

What is the female equivalent of prostate gland?

A

Urethral and paraurethral glands of Skene.

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16
Q

What is the female equivalent of glans penis?

A

Glans clitoris.

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17
Q

What is the mechanism of Type IV hypersensitivity?

A

Sensitized T-lymphocytes bind antigen and release lymphokines. This is a T-cell mediated (delayed) hypersentivitiy.

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18
Q

What immunodeficiency has neutrophils that fails to respond to chemotactic stimuli?

A
  1. Job syndrome (hyper IgE syndrome).

2. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome.

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19
Q

What immunodeficiency has adenosine deaminase deficiency?

A

SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency).

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20
Q

What immunodeficiency is caused by failure of endodermal development?

A

DiGeorge syndrome.

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21
Q

What immunodeficiency has defective tyrosine kinase gene?

A

Bruton agammaglobulinemia.

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22
Q

What immunodeficiency is associated with high levels of IgE?

A

Hyper IgE syndrome (Job syndrome).

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23
Q

What bacterial structure mediates adherence of bacteria to the surface of a cell?

A

Fimbria or pilli.

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24
Q

What bacterial structure protects against phagocytosis?

A

Capsule.

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25
Q

What is the bacterial space between the inner and outer cellular membranes in G(-) bacteria?

A

Periplasm.

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26
Q

What bacterial structure forms attachment between two bacterial during conjugation?

A

Sex pilus (F pilus).

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27
Q

What bacterial structure holds genetic bacterial structure within bacteria that contains genes for antibiotic resistance?

A

Plasmid.

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28
Q

What structure arise from the perimesonephric ducts?

A

The fallopian tubes, uterus and upper portion of the vagina.

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29
Q

Which neurodegenerative disease causes senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles?

A

Alzheimer disease.

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30
Q

Which neurodegenerative disease is present at birth as “floppy baby”?

A

Werdnig-Hoffman disease.

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31
Q

Which neurodegenerative disease causes Lewy bodies?

A
  1. Parkinson disease.
  2. Diffuse Lewy body dementia.
  3. Alzheimer disease (Lewy body type).
32
Q

What drugs are composed of antibodies against TNF?

A
  1. Etanercept: Not an antibody, TNF inhibitor.
  2. Infliximab: Monoclonal antibodies.
  3. Adalimumab: Monoclonal antibodies.

The last two end in -mab: monoclonal antibodies.

33
Q

What eye abnormality is seen in a patient with MS and internuclear opthalmoplegia?

A
  1. On lateral gaze: abducting eye has nystagmus and adducting eye is unable to adduct.
  2. Converge is normal.

-Medial rectus palsy only shows up during lateral gaze and not with convergence.

34
Q

What exotoxin causes inhibition of ACh release, causing flaccid paralysis?

A

Botulinum toxin.

35
Q

What exotoxin causes stimulation of adenylate cyclase, causing CL- and water into gut, causing diarrhea?

A
  1. Chorea toxin.

2. Heat labile E. Coli toxin fron enterotoxic E. Coli.

36
Q

What exotoxin causes scarlet fever?

A

Erythrogenic and pyogenic exotoxins of Strep pyogenes.

37
Q

What exotoxin causes inactivates EF-2 causing pseudomembranous pharyngitis?

A

Diphtheria toxin.

38
Q

What exotoxin blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine?

A

Clostridum tetani.

39
Q

What CD marker is displayed only by helper T cells?

A

CD4.

40
Q

What CD marker is displayed only by cytotoxic T cell and regulatory T cells?

A

CD8.

41
Q

What CD marker is found on all T cells?

A

CD3.

42
Q

What CD marker is used to identify B cells?

A
  1. CD19.
  2. CD20.
  3. CD21.
43
Q

What is the cause of achalasia? And how is it diagnosed?

A

Destruction of the myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus, causing the inability to relax the lower esophageal spincters. It is diagnosed with a Barium swallow (bird’s beak sign) or manometry.

44
Q

How does the mechanism of hypersensitivity II differs from hypersensitivity III?

A

Type II: Antibodies against self-antigens on the surface of cells.
Type III: Antibodies against soluble antigens in the circulation and the interstitium, causing immune complexes being deposited in tissues.

45
Q

What does transmural inflammation on intestinal biopsy suggest what disease?

A

Cron’s disease.

46
Q

What area of the colon is most susceptible to ischemic damage?

A

Watershed area of the splenic flexure.

47
Q

What is enzyme is inhibited by PPI and what are some common PPIs?

A

H/K ATPse: hydrogen into the lumen for potassium into the cell.

  • Omeprazole.
  • Lansoprazole.
  • Pantoprazole.
  • Esomeprazole.
48
Q

What cocktail medication is commonly taken by patients suffering from severe cirrhosis?

A
  1. Lactulose.
  2. Vitamin K: to max clotting potential.
  3. Diuretics: prevents ascitis and edema.
  4. Beta-blockers: to prevent bleeding from esophageal varices.
49
Q

What are the C’s of Huntington disease?

A
  1. CAG repeats on Chromosome Cuatro (4).
  2. “Cuarenta” - age 40 starts the symptoms.
  3. Cognitive decline (or dementia).
  4. Chorea.
  5. Caudate and putamen atrophy.
50
Q

In what disease do we see anti-mitochondrial antibodies?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis.

51
Q

In what disease do we see anti-TSH receptor antibodies?

A

Grave’s disease.

52
Q

In what disease do we see anti-centromere antibodies?

A

CREST scleroderma.

53
Q

In what disease do we see anti-basement membrane antibodies?

A

Goodpasture syndrome.

54
Q

In what disease do we see anti-neutrophil antibodies?

A
  1. Granulomatosis w/ polyangiitis.
  2. Microscopic polyangiitis.
  3. Churg-Strauss syndrome.
  4. Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis.
55
Q

A man in his 40s develops dementia and uncontrollable movements of his upper extremities. What portion of the brain do you expect to see atrophy?

A

Caudate and putamen: for Huntington disease.

56
Q

What is the homologue of the female counterpart for Corpus spongiosum?

A

Vestibular bulb.

57
Q

What is the homologue of the female counterpart for bulbourethral glands?

A

Vestibular (bartholin) glands.

58
Q

What is the homologue of the female counterpart for ventral shaft of the penis?

A

Labia minora.

59
Q

What portion of the brachioplexus is injured in Erb’s palsy and what are the symptoms?

A

-It is in C5-C6 roots (upper trunk of brachioplexus), causes loss of abductors, loss of lateral rotators, loss of biceps.

60
Q

What is the most common salivary gland tumor?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma.

61
Q

What are the different sinuses that can become infected and cause sinusitis?

A
  1. Maxillary sinus.
  2. Frontal sinus.
  3. Ethmoid sinus.
  4. Sphenoid sinus.
62
Q

What is the clinical appearance of intranuclear opthalmoplegia?And what disorder is commonly associated with?

A
  • Normally on lateral gaze: one eye is abducting away from the midline and the other is adducting towards the midline.
  • Intranuclear opthalmoplegia: paralasis on the eye that is supposed to be adducting and the abducting will have nystagmus.

-It is associated with multiple sclerosis and MLF syndrome (medial longitudinal fasciculus).

63
Q

What neurodegenerative disease is associated with dementia often associated w/ frequent falls and/or syncope?

A

Lewy body dementia.

64
Q

What neurodegenerative disease is associated with atrophy of caudate nucleus resulting on chorea?

A

Huntington disease.

65
Q

What neurodegenerative disease is associated with depigmentation of substantia nigra?

A

Parkinson disease.

66
Q

What neurodegenerative disease is associated with both upper and lower motor neuron sings (spasticity and weakness)?

A

ALS (Lou Gehrig’s disease).

67
Q

What neurodegenerative disease is associated with dementia and visual hallucinations?

A

Lewy body dementia.

68
Q

What neurodegenerative disease is associated with dementia and personality changes and/or aphasia?

A

Pick disease.

69
Q

What CD marker is found on all NK cells and bind to the constant region of IgG?

A

CD16.

70
Q

What CD marker inhibits complement C9 binding?

A

CD55 and CD59.

71
Q

What endotoxin receptor found on macrophages?

A

CD14.

72
Q

What nerve is most at risk in a Fracture of the medial epicondyle?

A

Ulnar nerve.

73
Q

What nerve is most at risk in a anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Axillary nerve.

74
Q

What nerve is most at risk in an injury to the carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve.

75
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease has accumulation of dermatin sulfate?

A
  1. Hurler disease.
  2. Hunter syndrome.
  3. Scheie syndrome.
76
Q

Which lysosomal storage disease has a deficiency in hexosaminidase?

A

Tay-Sach disease.

77
Q

What is the difference between direct bilirubin and indirect bilirubin?

A
  • Direct bilirubin: Conjugated w/ glucuronic acid.

- Indirect bilirubin: Unconjugated.