Public health Flashcards
Traceability required for cattle, pigs, sheep and horses?
Cattle: 2 ear tags and passport
Pigs: slap marks/tattoos or ear tags, and movement licenses
Sheep: 1 ear tag required with flock/herd mark if <1yo, 2 ear tags if >1yo including electronic identification, and movement licenses
Horses: transponder and passport
What does Food Chain Information (FCI) include and who is responsible for obtaining and evaluating it?
Disease status
Knowledge of residues
Movement restrictions (TB or other)
More extensive in chickens
Food Business Operator (FBO) responsible for obtaining and evaluating the FCI
OV audits FBO’s decisions
FBO decides to accept, reject to apply corrective action based on this info
What are BSE passive and active surveillance ?
Active:
- emergency slaughter, AM changes (accidents or serious physiological and functional problems) in bovines >48mo if EU25, >24mo if non EU25 (doesn’t include clinical signs of BSE as in this case APHA would need to be notified)
- healthy in >30mo bovines if non EU25 (not done in EU25)
Passive:
- testing when potential cases are reported (suspicious clinical signs)
- clinical cases detected on farm and/or at AM inspection in the abattoir
- protocol same as any other notifiable disease ie notify VO etc
- brainstem (cattle) or brainstem and cerebellum (ovine/caprine) examined
Which sheep are tested as part of Scrapie active surveillance? What is tested?
Aged >18mo (>2 permanent incisors)
Sample of
- fallen goats/sheep
- healthy goats/sheep slaughtered in participating slaughterhouses
- fallen stock from compulsory scrapie flock schemes (CSFC)
Testing samples:
- brainstem
- cerebellum
- increased analytical sensitivity and atypical scrapie
When are compulsory scrapie flock schemes (CSFS) carried out? What does it involve?
Farms where positive cases identifies
Movement restrictions for 2 years
Sheep: genotyping of whole flock and slaughter of scrapie susceptible sheep or total flock slaughter with or without genotyping
Goats: whole flock slaughtered
Restocking with the more resistant genotypes
TSE surveillance for the 2 year period after CSFS measures have been enacted (all cull sheep and all fallen sheep >18mo at time of death)
Which pigs are tested for Trichinella for slaughter?
Breeding domestic swine (sows and boars)
Wild boar (any age)
Solipeds (any age)
All pigs that have not been reared in premises officially considered to apply controlled housing conditions
Exemption only applicable to domestic pigs: freezing treatment instead of testing
Controlled pig housing conditions for Trichinella?
Building construction and maintenance
Pest control programme and records
Feed provider
Storage of feed
Management of dead animals
Rubbish dump in the neighbourhood - inform and assessment of risk
Animal identification
Introduction of new animals from holdings officially recognised as applying controlled housing conditions
No access to outdoor facilities unless operator can show do not pose danger for intro of Trichinella
None of the swine for breeding and production, has been unloaded after leaving the holding of origin at an assembly centre unless meets the requirements and all originate in and come from holdings officially recognised as applying controlled
Sections of a horse passport?
Section I: owner/agent must be stated
Sections II and III: identification by the competent authority
Section IV: recording identity checks whenever laws and regulations so require
Section V and VI: all vaccinations must be recorded (equine influenza in section V and all others in section VI)
Section VII: laboratory health tests to detect transmissible diseases must be recorded
Section VIII: food chain information (FCI)
Section IX: medicinal treatment
Section IX part IIa: owner/representative declaration to stop animal from entering food chain
Vet surgeon responsible for transponder implanting and completion of sections V, VI, VII and IX (otherwise guilty of an offence)
Withdrawal periods for medicinal products for horses?
Allowed substances (table 1): specified per product Essential substances: 6 months
What can the FSA do if suspicion of residues at slaughter (authorised but above maximal residue limit, unauthorised substance, or prohibited substance)?
Detain animals for further examination
Sample tissues/fluids taken for analysis
Detain the animal/carcass or group of animals/carcases until results of the analysis are available
Signs of beta-agonist residues in live animals and PM? Sample collected?
Good conformation with little fat
Hyperaesthesia and tachycardia may be present
PM: flaccidity of the trachea
Urine collected
Signs of hormone growth promoter residues in live animals and PM? Samples collected?
Secondary sexual characteristics Teat development Restlessness behavioural changes Mounting Aggression An even level of finish in a group of cattle of different breed/types PM: injection sites - oily Blood and urine or faeces collected
When must the ante-mortem inspection by an OV be carried out at a slaughterhouse? What outcomes are there?
Within 24h of animal’s arrival at slaughterhouse and <24h prior to slaughter
Outcomes:
- Fit for slaughter
- Fit for slaughter under certain conditions
- Detained
- Unfit for slaughter (disposed as ABP)
- Humane killing whilst in the large on welfare grounds
Exceptions to OV ante-mortem inspection?
Emergency slaughter - PM performed by OV
Health certificate issued by OV or AV at farm - MHI satisfied it is satisfactory and welfare not compromised
When is emergency slaughter (unfit for transport) necessary?
a. Unable to move independently without pain or to walk unassisted
b. Present a severe open wound or prolapse
c. Pregnant females for whom 90% or more of the expected gestation period has already passed or females who have given birth in the previous week
d. Newborn and navel has not completely healed
e. Calves of <10do (unless transported <100km)
How long can animals be held in the lairage of a slaughterhouse? Food and water requirements? Other requirements?
No more than 48h (except chickens only few hours as no water or feed available)
If >12h: feed
Water at all times
Protection against adverse weather conditions
Protection against harm ex. by other animals and/or equipment and/or mal-practices
When can sick or injured animals be considered fit for transport?
a. Transport would not cause additional suffering
b. Transported for the purposes of Council Directive research programme
c. Transported under veterinary supervision for/following veterinary treatment or diagnosis (only where no unnecessary suffering or ill treatment is caused to the animals concerned)
d. Have been subjected to veterinary procedures in relation to farming practices such as dehorning or castration, provided that wounds have completely healed
In what cases can an animal be stopped from further processing at a slaughter house?
Dead on arrival (fallen stock)
Dead in lairage (fallen stock) - except emergency slaughter after OV inspection and approval
No FCI and traceability
No AM inspection by OV - except casualty slaughter, inspection by farm vet, PM inspection by OV
What is done if dead on arrivals (DOAs)?
Reported to APHA as suspected Welfare in Transport case
PM performed by APHA should the case result in a prosecution
Owner must be informed and allowed own vet to be present in PME
Lameness score by OV at AM inspection?
Score 1: visibly lame but can keep up with group
Score 2: unable to keep up with group
Score 3: requires assistance to rise, non weight bearing on one or more legs
Score 4: requires assistance to rise, non weight bearing on ne or more legs, reluctant to walk, halted movement, unable to climb steep ramps
Score 5: unable to rise or remain standing, extreme discomfort or vocalisation with assisted movement
Collect video evidence when OV reporting
Score 3-5: humanely killed without moving it elsewhere
Rules for non stun religious slaughter?
Unconsciousness before released from restraint for minimum of 20s (ovine) or 30s (bovine)
Dead before further dressed
Individually restrained -ruminants mechanically restrained
Minimise time of restraint
Only one live animal can be restrained at a time
Must be stationary for duration of the bleeding, until the animal is unconscious and for when the animal is killed without prior stunning
Restraining equipment must be checked and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions
Contraventions: approval review
AM and PM examination findings of late pregnancy at slaughter?
AM:
- udder development (occurs earlier in heifers)
- enlargement of abdomen, particularly noted on right side
- swelling of vaginal area and vulval lips
- mucous discharge from vagina
- tail slightly raised an appear in discomfort if very close to birthing
PM:
- foetus close to term, with hair formation over entire body, eyelashes, open eyes and teeth in cattle, sheep and goats, usually ‘golden slippers’ present on the feet
Estimating the stage of gestation at slaughter PM?
Days of gestation - 2.5x(Crown to Rump length(CRL)+21)
CRL = top of head to buttocks length in cm
All animal species
How old must animals be for slaughter?
> 1 week
Rule for transportation of animals slaughtered on farm?
Must be refrigerated if transport takes >2h
Methods of enforcement of slaughter regulations?
Verbal
Escalates if non-compliance not corrected to written advice and formal notices
Referral for investigation
On site duties of FSA team (OVs) (slaughter)?
Auditing FBO responsibilities Welfare investigations Reporting of notifiable diseases to APHA Inspection - FCI, AM for fit/unfit for slaughter, PM for fit/unfit for human consumption Residue sampling Lab testing
When should an OV consider Certificate of Competences (CoC) suspension of the holder?
No longer a fit and proper person
No longer competent to carry out the operations which the CoC authorises
Has failed to comply with any provision of the EU Regulation or WATOK
Has been convicted of an offence under any animal welfare legislation
What are health marks?
Applied by the OV when official controls have not identified any deficiencies that would make the meat unfit for human consumption
Undergone AM and PM inspection and fit for human consumption
Examples of reasons to withhold health mark at PM?
No AM and/or PM inspection
Loss of traceability
Presence of SRM
Contamination or gross pathology
Residues or contaminants are suspected
Water supply found to be contaminated and a risk to public health exists
Animals suffering from a notifiable disease
Meat declared by OV as unfit for human consumption
No adequate inspection facilities rendering contamination or gross pathology inconspicuous
Temperature requirements for chilling and freezing of meat for human consumption?
Chilling: - red meat: 7C - white meat: 4C - offal: 3C Freezing: -20C (internal -12C?)
FSA statutory targeted sampling by member states for residue surveillance?
Cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, horses
Also wild game, farmed salmon/trout, eggs, honey, milk
Random selection but some exceptions
Fitness state not affected
Kidney, kidney fat, liver, muscle, blood and urine
EU requirement
Number determined by the VMD
Vet medicines, pesticides and heavy metals
What cattle specified risk materials are there for BSE?
Member states with controlled risk of BSE:
- All ages - tonsils, last 4m of SI, caecum, mesentery
- > 12mo - skull excluding the mandible and including the brain and eyes, and spinal cord
Member states with negligible risk of BSE:
- >12mo - skull excluding the mandible and including the brain and eyes, and spinal cord
What sheep specified risk materials for TSEs as of TSE regs 2006?
> 12mo or permanent incisor erupted:
- skull, including brain and eyes, tonsils, spinal cord (not horns)
Same for goats
What is done if discrepancies with traceability at slaughterhouse?
Detain carcass and passport
Keeper has 48h to correct
Report and/or enforce if necessary
If complete loss of traceability, animal killed and disposed of
Lapses without loss of traceability: OV reports to local authority, trading standards department
What must happen during investigation of a notifiable disease at a slaughterhouse, by an APHA veterinary officer (VO)?
Stop entry of animals
Stop slaughter
Isolate suspects and potentially contaminated carcasses
If suspicion can’t be ruled out:
- restriction notice closing establishment
- collect whatever samples are necessary for diagnostic purposes
If negative results: meat released
If positive: disposal of affected meat, cleaning and disinfection and in some cases premises rested for a period
Types of swine fever (notifiable disease)? What if suspected at AM?
Acute - petechial haemorrhages widespread, fevered carcass and LNs almost black
Chronic - necrotic skin lesions and ulcers in the intestine
If suspected, must not enter slaughter line - VO at APHA must be notified immediately
Anthrax - aetiology? Survival in environment? Transmission? Signs? PM?
Bacillus anthracis
Forms resistant spores that can survive for many years
Infection via ingestion and inhalation (and cutaneous e.g. skin wounds)
Sudden death following septicaemia <24h - take samples and diagnose, should not enter slaughter line!
PM: spleen grossly enlarged and dark, extensive petechiae, blood clots, dark blood
Bovine brucellosis - aetiology? Clinical signs?
Brucella abortus Abortion in late pregnancy High rate of infertility Inflammation of testes and epidydimis Swelling of scrotum Oedematous placenta and foetus Hygromas on the knees, stifles, hock and angle of the haunch and between the nuchal ligament and the primary thoracic spines
What to do if animals reacted positively or inconclusively for Brucellosis at slaughter? How is a decision then made?
Slaughtered separately
Hook should be used in handling the uterus and udder
Employees should wear gloves and avoid accidental cuts
Decision:
- Meat from animals with lesions indicating acute infection: unfit
- No lesions but reacting positively or inconclusively to test: udder, genital tract and blood unfit
Enzootic bovine leukosis? Cause? Age normally affected? What does it do? What will APHA do if suspected at slaughter?
Oncovirus in family retroviridae
> 3 years
? tumours other than papillomata or haemangiomata, or of swollen lymph nodes
Young normally sporadic leukosis
If <2 permanent incisors:
- no further action apart from recorded
If >3 permanent incisors:
- VO carry investigation so OV detains: samples of tumourous swollen lymph nodes/carcass or offals, carcass and offal doesn’t need to be detained pending results if no other changes
Aims of meat inspection?
To assess:
- pathology
- presence of SRM
- contamination SRM/faeces etc
- gross pathology
- evidence for residues or contaminants
How are humans infected by Trichinella spiralis? How bad is it?
Infection by consumption of undercooked meat
Life threatening to mild symptoms in 5-20 days
Cooking temperature required to inactivate Trichinella spiralis in pork? Freezing temp?
If instantaneously core of meat >62.2C
Freezing (instead of testing): minimum is -18C for 106h, max is -37C for 0.5h
Cold treatment is not an alternative for the testing of wild boar or solipeds (only for domestic pigs)
Temperature for what minimum time required for carcasses and offal with a localised Cysticercus bovis infestation (Taenia saginata)?
- 7C for at least 3 weeks
- 10C for at least 2 weeks
Signs of toxaemia in meat inspection? What must be done?
Uraemia with severe pyelonephritis
Ketosis with fatty change in the liver
Hold carcase for 24h and check by boiling/frying test
Unfit for human consumption if smell still present
Forms of sporadic bovine lymphosarcoma? Age affected? Cause? Fit for human consumption?
Most common malignancy of cattle
Cause unknown
Young cattle 6mo - 2yo
Multicentric: all LNs massively enlarged and replaced by white homogenous tumour tissue
Thymic lymphosarcoma: large swelling in cardiac and cervical parts of the thymus
Unfit for human consumption
Mild, acute/septicaemic, chronic erisipelthrix - fit for human consumption?
Mild type (diamonds on skin, poss bacteraemia) - depends on lesions Acute or septicaemic - total rejection Chronic (arthritis, endocarditis, enlarged LNs) - local or total rejection depending on severity and extension of the lesions
Examples of meat findings which make it unfit for human consumption?
Jaundice Septicaemia Pyaemia Emaciation Toxaemia Viraemia Malignant tumours White muscle disease Hydrocachexia
Is vertebral porphyria fit for human consumption?
Partial rejection
Callus formations following fractures - fit for human consumption?
Partial rejection
Depending on extent/localisation of callus could imply welfare issue at farm
Calcification - fit for human consumption?
Partial rejection
Gross pathology with Echinococcus granulosus on meat inspection?
Thickened, laminated outer membrane and filled with clear fluid
Scolices develop from the inner lining of the cyst and form ‘hydatid sand’
Cysticercus bovis cysts (Taenia saginata)- fit for human consumption?
One or multiple localised cyst (viable or non viable) - reject affected organ/parts, cold storage of remainder
Generalised non viable (caseous/calcified) - reject affected organs/parts, cold storage of remainder
Generalised viable - reject carcass and offal
When must the FCI for poultry be received by the slaughterhouse?
24h in advance
Exceptions to birds only being accepted alive at the slaughterhouse?
Delayed eviscerated poultry, geese and ducks raised for foie gras
Animals slaughtered at the place of production
Wild game
When must poultry dead on arrival (DOA) be reported to APHA?
Smaller poultry >1.5%
Larger poultry >2.5%
Salmonella testing of poultry for slaughter?
Holding:
- >2000 broilers or
- >500 turkeys
- >250 hens
- >350 laying chickens for class A eggs and not supplying final consumer/local retailers
Organic or slow growing (>81 days broilers, 100 days turkeys) is 6 weeks PM
Breeding (<250) test every 3 weeks (chickens, turkeys) or eggs 4 weeks
Laying chicks: adults 22-26wo and every 15 weeks, pullets 2 weeks before moving to laying unit (between 14-17wo)
Samples from flocks needed within a 3 week period prior to slaughter:
- boot swab sample
- dust sample
- faecal sample
Official sampling by APHA or DARD if:
- all your flocks after your previous set of flocks texted positive
- no evidence of testing or where National control scheme (NCP) rules haven’t been followed
What must be done to slaughter when positive on farm salmonella testing for chickens?
Retain affected batch(es) and slaughter at the of the production day
After slaughter, undertake full cleansing and disinfection of all equipment and machinery
Which Salmonella serogroups are high risk?
B and D
What is the minimum space allowance for poultry at slaughter for enriched cages?
750cm squared/bird
Minimum height of 45cm
Inc facilities for perching, nesting and scratching
Stocking densities for ante-mortem inspection of poultry?
<1.6kg: 180-200 cm2/kg
1.6-3kg: 160cm2/kg
3-5kg: 115cm2/kg
>5kg: 105cm2/kg
Minimum time for poultry to be dead before further dressed where not stunned under religious slaughter practices?
Turkey or goose: 2 minutes
Other birds: 90 seconds
How long must slaughter CCTV be kept for and where must it be?
90 days
Killing and where live animals are present - unloading, lairage, stunning
Should be available to FSA Authorised Officers
Signs of avian influenza at slaughter?
Pneumonia and airsacculitis
Haemorrhage
Oedema and discolouration
Common abnormal conditions of poultry seen at slaughter?
Septicaemia/toxaemia - very prevalent
Mechanical damage - normally result of poor functioning of the poultry plant machinery, FBO must be informed by OV if not already identified the problem
What must be done if stun to kill occurring to poultry?
OV must give written advice to FBO after each incident
A WEN should be served to slow down the line if it is due to line speed, shortage of slaughter men or lack of rotation
Referred for investigation if >3/3 month, enforcement record issues or series of incidents
Requirements for retailers of wild game?
Traceability - Reg (EC) 178/2002
Hygiene requirements Reg 852/2004 including T, HACCP, transport
Ante-mortem inspection requirements of farmed game, slaughtered on farm?
Inspected at AM by OV or approved veterinarian (AV) within 3 days of slaughter
Bodies accompanied by:
- veterinary health certificate
- FCI
- humane slaughter declaration from the FBO
- if >2h transport: refrigerated
Ante-mortem inspection requirements of wild game?
Hunters declaration/documentation
Pre-processing
FBA should examine carcass prior to entry into processing area: death other than hunting, extensive contamination, HACCP
Requirements of an Approved Game Handling Establishment (AGE)?
Approved by FSA OV Duties include: - verification of the hunter's status as a trained person (ex. copy of certificate) - HACCP in place - approved protocols for handling ABP
Traceability requirements for farmed deer?
Ear tags (TB order) and passports
- DEFRA herd number, or British Deer Farmers Association (BDFA) herd registration number
- animal’s own unique number
Breeder FCI with:
- identity
- veterinary products/treatments administered inc dates and withdrawal periods
Requirements of a trained person for documenting wild game at slaughter? What must they be able to recognise?
FSA approved training Registered as food business with LA Knowledge of abnormal characteristics Abnormal behaviour: - Non apprehensive towards humans - Aggression - Isolation from herd - Locomotive difficulties - Head tilt - Abnormal gait - Abnormal posture ex. bird with neck flexed and opening beak and wings - Slow at escape Environmental contamination: - pollution - heavy metals - phytosanitary treatments Other abnormalities: - diarrhoea exc waterfowl
Causes of abnormal behaviour/locomotion of game?
Parasites CWD Tumour Infection 0 Lyme disease, Louping ill, pigeon paramyxovirus Toxaemia
Trained person duties for examining wild game bodies?
Muscle bulk
- highly active animals but no nutritional support
- lean vs emaciated
Mucosae
Natural orificesTraumatic lesions - raging, systemic repercussions
Trained person duties for examining viscera of wild game?
Odour Colour Gas Perforation Oedema/transudate/exudate Haemorrhages Adherences, parasites If abnormal: must accompany the carcass
PM of farmed and wild game?
Farmed game - same as non game species, visual only for rabbits and ostriches
Wild game - either an MHI or OV is required for PM inspection, OV will visit at least once a month
Which farmed and wild game have residue surveillance? What is used?
Farmed - deer, partridge, pheasant, red grouse, quail, breeding boar
Wild game - deer, pheasant, partridge
Large game - kidney, kidney fat, liver and muscle
Small game - entire oven ready carcass of bird, passed as fit for human consumption, traceable
What must accompany wild boar carcasses for Trichinosis surveillance?
Head and diaphragm
What must happen if slaughterhouse case of TB?
OV must notify APHA
How much of small game must be PMd?
If batch uniform and same species and source: minimum of 5%
Batches <20: 100%
Placement and size of health mark on game carcasses?
6.5 x 4.5cm high
Letters 0.8cm high
Figures at least 1cm
Temperature requirement for storage of game?
4C small wild game
7C large wild game
Which bacteria/hazards are a risk for wild game birds?
E.coli O157 Salmonella Campylobacter jejuni Mycobacterium avium Chlaydophila psittaci (handling) Lead shot (consumption)
Which bacteria/hazards are a risk for wild ducks?
E.coli O157 Salmonella Campylobacter jejuni Mycobacterium avium Clostridium botulinum Lead shot (consumption)
Which bacteria/hazards are a risk for wild deer?
E.coli O157 Salmonella Campylobacter jejuni Mycobacterium avium Mycobacterium bovis
Which bacteria/hazards are a risk for wild lagomorphs?
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis Lead shot (consumption)
Porcine notifiable diseases?
African Swine Fever Anthrax Aujeszky’s disease Classical Swine Fever FMD Rabies Swine Vesicular Disease Teschen Vesicular stomatitis
Notifiable diseases in deer?
Foot and mouth disease Bovine tuberculosis Bluetongue Epizootic haemorrhagic virus disease CWD
Chronic wasting disease in deer - Transmission? Incubation? Clinical signs? PM? Zoonotic?
Transmission: body fluids (faeces, saliva, blood, urine) Incubation: 18-24 months Fatal in cervids Clinical signs: - poor body condition - separation from herd - difficulty swallowing - drooling - increased thirst and urination - nervousness and excitement - lowering of head, stumble - apathy, walk in repeated patterns, tremors, paralysis Post mortem: - serous atrophy of adipose tissue - muscular atrophy - aspiration pneumonia - liquid or frothy ruminal contents Zoonotic risk not confirmed
Signs of pigeon paramyxovirus? Zoonotic?
Lethargy Vomiting or regurgitation Green diarrhoea Trembling of wings and heads Twisting of the neck Head flicking Anorexia Dyspnea Discharge from eyes and beak Death ~ 3 days
Potential zoonosis - very rare, direct contact, mild conjunctivitis
Lyme disease - agent? pathology?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Non-erosive inflammatory arthropathy: arthritis and immune mediated renal failure
What are the 4 parameters for ranking meat borne hazards?
PISS: Prevalence on chilled carcases Incidence of human disease Severity of human disease Source attribution
Which meat-borne hazards are high risk in the context of meat inspection?
Campylobacter in poultry
Human pathogenic STEC in bovines and ovines/caprines
Salmonella enterica in bovines, porcine and poultry
Toxoplasma gondii in ovines/caprines
Trichinella in solids
What are HEIs?
Harmonised epidemiological indicators
= the prevalence, concentration or incidence of the hazard at a certain stage of the food chain that correlates to a human health risk caused by the hazard
What meat inspection conditions would result in the entire animal unfit for human consumption?
Septicaemia Pyaemia Jaundice Emaciation Toxaemia (some exceptions) Viraemia Anaemia Uraemia
What must be inspected as a minimum at PM for all bovines >6wo?
Head and throat
Sub-maxillary, retropharyngeal and parotid lymph nodes - incision
External masseters - 2 incisions must be made parallel to mandible
Internal masseters - incised along 1 plane
Tongue (palpate, and remove to also examine mouth and fauces)
Tonsils must be removed
Trachea and main branches of bronchi - open lengthways
Oesophagus
Lungs - palpated, incised in posterior third perpendicular to main axes (if for human consumption)
Pericardium and heart - incised lengthways to open ventricles and cut through IVS
Diaphragm
Liver - palpate, incise gastric surface and base of caudate lobe to examine bile ducts
Hepatic and pancreatic lymph - palpation
nodes
GIT
Mesentery
Gastric and mesenteric lymph nodes - palpation, incision if necessary
Spleen
Kidneys - incision if necessary
Renal lymph nodes - incision if necessary
Pleura and peritoneum
Genital organs (except penis if already discarded)
Udder and LNs - palpation and incision if necessary, each half of udder must be opened by a long, deep incision as far as the lactiferous sinuses (sinus lactiferes) and the lymph nodes must be incised, except when the udder is excluded from human consumption
What happens if a notifiable disease is suspected at AM e.g. anthrax?
Animal held in isolation
OV calls duty VO at APHA
VO may decide to visit
- if suspects ND then serves restrictions, OV follows instructions and informs FVC
- if doesn’t suspect ND and OV agrees, released for slaughter
- if OV doesn’t agree, OV calls contractor/FVC
If VO decides to not visit, OV calls contractor/FVC
If OV satisfied not a ND case, animal released for slaughter
If not, calls duty OV again
What material counts as SRM?
Cattle all ages: - tonsils - intestines from duodenum to rectum - mesentery Cattle >12mo: - skull excluding mandible and including brain and eyes - spinal cord
Sheep all ages:
- spleen
- ileum (60cm of terminal SI starting from ileo-caecal junction)
Sheep >12m (or permanent incisor erupted):
- skull including brain and eyes (not horns)
- tonsils
- spinal cord
What animal by product categories are there?
Category 1:
- all body parts of animals suspected/confirmed of being infected by a TSE, or killed due to TSE eradication measures
- all body parts of pets, zoo animals and circus animals
- all body parts of experimental animals
- all body parts of wild animals when suspected of being infected with diseases communicable to humans or animals
- specified risk material (SRM)
- entire bodies of animals which had not had SRM removed at the time of disposal
- products from animals which have had prohibited substances administered or contain residues of environmental contaminants
- all animal material collected when treating waste water from category 1 processing plants and other premises in which SRM is removed, including screenings, sludge from drains etc
- catering waste from means of transport operating internationally
- mixtures of category 1 material with either category 2 material or category 3 material or both
- category 1 ABP SRM must be destroyed by incineration or rendering and then incineration at an approved premises)
- category 1 non SRM can be rendered and land filled
Category 2 = pathologically altered and infectious material
- manure and digestive tract content
- all animal materials collected when treating waste water from slaughterhouses other than if they are Cat 1
- products of animal origin containing residues of veterinary drugs and contaminants (unless they are cat 1)
- products of animal origin, other than cat 1, that are imported from non member countries and fail to comply with veterinary requirements
- animals/parts, other than those referred to in article 4, that die other than by being slaughtered for human consumption, including animals killed to eradicate an epizootic disease
- mixtures of category 2 material with category 3 material
- animal by products other than category 1 or 3
- E.g. Taenia hydatigena, hydatid cysts from Echinococcus granulosus)
Category 3 = products not used for human consumption but fit for animal consumption
- parts which are fit for human consumption but are not intended for this for commercial reasons
- parts rejected as unfit for human consumption but are not affected by any signs of diseases communicable to humans or animals and derive from carcases that are fit for human consumption
- hides and skins, hooves and horns, pig bristles and feathers originating from animals that are slaughtered in a slaughterhouse, after undergoing ante-mortem inspection, and were fit, as a result of such inspection, for slaughter for human consumption
- blood obtained from animals other than ruminants that are slaughtered in a slaughterhouse, after undergoing ante-mortem inspection, and were fit, as a result of such inspection, for slaughter for human consumption
- animal by-products derived from the production of products intended for human consumption, including degreased bones and greaves;
- former foodstuffs of animal origin, or former foodstuffs containing products of animal origin, other than catering waste, which are no longer intended for human consumption for commercial reasons or due to problems of manufacturing or packaging defects or other defects which do not present any risk to humans or animals;
- raw milk originating from animals that do not show clinical signs of any disease communicable through that product to humans or animals;
- fish or other sea animals, except sea mammals, caught in the open sea for the purposes of fishmeal production;
- fresh by-products from fish from plants manufacturing fish products for human consumption;
- shells, hatchery by-products and cracked egg by-products originating from animals which did not show clinical signs of any disease communicable through that product to humans or animals;
- blood, hides and skins, hooves, feathers, wool, horns, hair and fur originating from animals that did not show clinical signs of any disease communicable through that product to humans or animals;
- catering waste other than as referred to in Article 4(1)(e).
If categories mixed, becomes highest risk
Septicaemia:
- clinical signs?
- PM findings
- fit for transport?
- fit for human consumption?
Clinical signs: dehydration, pyrexia, muscle tremors, tachycardia, tachypnoea, depression, congestion, petechia
PM findings:
- decreased onset of rigor mortis
- deficient exsanguination seen as diffuse congestion of subcutaneous blood vessels
- fatty degeneration of liver
- diffuse lymphadenitis
- splenomegaly
- jaundice if haemolysis
- disseminated petechial haemorrhage if DIC
Unfit for transport (welfare)
Unfit for human consumption (detect on AM)
ABP category 2 (if no SRM present)
Emaciation: PM findings? Repercussions? For for transport? Fit for human consumption?
PM findings:
- diffuse skeletal muscle atrophy with prominent bones
- poor onset rigor mortis
- oedema (hypoproteinaemia)
- serous atrophy of adipose tissue
Reduced drug/toxin clearance so even if withdrawals met residues may be present
Immunosuppression
CNS disturbances
Shorter shelf life
Further action taken if welfare compromised
Unfit for human consumption
ABP category 2
Arthritis: implications? Fit for human consumption?
Further action if welfare compromised
If lesions indicate ongoing septicaemia , whole carcass unfit
If localised and no evidence of ongoing septicaemia, rejection of affected tissues
What is the SICCT test for TB? Restults? Se? Sp?
Single intradermal comparative cervical tuberculin skin test
- Day 1 - injection of avian (upper, or left if small) and bovine tuberculin (lower)
- Day 2 - read test 72 (+/-4)h later
Pass/negative:
- negative bovine reaction with a positive or negative avian reaction
- or positive bovine reaction equal to or less than a positive avian reaction
- if entire herd negative, no action taken or retraction may be lifted
Inconclusive (retest):
- positive bovine reaction no more than 4mm greater than a positive avian reaction
- or positive bovine reaction with negative avian reaction where difference is 4mm or less
- owner must decide whether to euthanase and test, or retest animal on farm after 60d
Reactor/Fail (remove):
- positive bovine reaction >4mm greater than a negative or positive avian reaction
- isolate, value, slaughter, examine, PM, sample, milk discard
- lab tests, culture, molecular methods
Se 80%
Sp 99.98%
What documentation is needed for a cow from a TB restricted premise?
Emergency slaughter certificate
TB movement licenses
Electronic notification by APHA sent to OV by noon the day before kill
What is done differently for slaughter from a TB restricted premise if animals from non TB restricted premises are also slaughtered there?
The slaughter should be done separately to avoid contamination of adjacent carcases
- last in the day before full cleaning and disinfection
- at any other time as long as cleaned and disinfected before slaughter of non suspect animals
- in separate slaughter hall used for diseases animals or those suspected of being diseased
Farmer must have marked animal with an orange stripe along the back
What is inspected for a TB reactor and slaughterhouse suspected cases of TB at PM if required by APHA?
Visual inspection, palpation and incision (criss-cross) of LN
Routine anyway: - retropharyngeal - parotid - submandibular/submaxillary - bronchial and mediastinal - lungs - pleura - hepatic - liver - mesenteric - supramammary Udder
Additional for TB:
- prescapular
- superficial inguinal
TB lesions most commonly found in retropharyngeal, bronchial, mediastinal, lungs and udder LNs
Is a TB animal fit for human consumption?
Generalised TB or TB lesions with emaciation = entire carcass and blood and offal rejected
Localised TB in a number of organs/areas = all unfit
Lesion in lymph nodes of only one organ or part of carcass = only affected organ/part and the associated lymph nodes are unfit
Reactor but no lesions - no further action, samples collected for further examination
What is sent for TB sampling after PM?
APHA decide based on herd history and current status
Altered supra-mammary nodes always submitted
If no lesions found, all bronchial, mediastinal, paired retropharyngeal lymph nodes are collected and any others if enlarged, abnormal and/or haemorrhagic
Ear sampling of TB?
DNA marking tag of reactor animals is required at day 2 of TB testing
Collects a small sample of tissue at time of tagging
What must be done if TB slaughterhouse case?
OV places carcases and parts immediately in detained area before additional detailed inspection carried out
Notify APHA immediately
If required by APHA take samples etc
Make decisions in terms of fitness
What do TB lesions look like?
Often encapsulated
Granuloma with caseous and often partly mineralised centre
Can liquefy and become suppurative
How to know if a cysticercus bovis cyst is viable or non viable?
Non viable = caseous/calcified
Can determine by incubating in 1 70% saline solution and 30% bile at 37C for 30 mins - evagination of head if viable
ABP category for general pneumonia? Fitnesss for human consumption?
Rejection of affected tissues
All unfit if ongoing septicaemia e.g. multiple sites with abscesses
ABP 2
Are the following fit for human consumption? ABP category if not?
Mycoplasma like pneumonia in sheep Pasteurella like pneumonia in sheep Dictyocaulus filaria/viviparus Muellerius capillaris Lung melanosis
Mycoplasma like and Pasteurella like pneumonia in sheep: ABP 2, parts (lung) affected are unfit for human consumption
Dictyocaulus filaria/viviparus: ABP 2, parts (lung) affected are unfit for human consumption
Muellerius capillaris and lung melanosis: ABP 3, parts (lung) affected are unfit for human consumption
What is “Blood splash”?
Petechial/echymottic haemorrhages on sub pleural surface of the lung and epicardial surface of the heart
Predisposed by stress and dehydration at time of stunning
Sudden increase in BP at electrical stunning
When to suspect anthrax at slaughter? What to do?
Dark unclothed blood from openings
Suspect and animals in direct contact must be detained, isolated and reported to APHA duty VO immediately
If suspected at PM:
- carcase and associated parts detained away from human contact until results received
- all other carcases/offal should be detained
- stop entry of further animals
- lairage not to be cleaned or waste removed unless APHA authorised (if confirmed/inconculisve FBO to thoroughly clean and disinfect)
What to do with a DOA/DIL?
DOA reported to APHA/referred to LA as a suspected welfare in transport case
Ov not to perform necropsy since no conditions in lairage
DOA/DIL - carcass should not be opened, risk of anthrax, APHA notified immediately
Bovines >48mo FBO reports to a collector to be later tested for TSE
If TB reactor, OV reports APHA which will inform if samples required
Cysticercus tenuicollis: Aetiology? Pathogenesis? PM findings? Zoonotic? Fit for human consumption?
Taenia hydatigena
Sheep ingest eggs, larvae migrate through interstitial wall to liver, migrate through liver to abdominal cavity
Bladder like cysts
Can be mineralised
Not zozonotic
Affected tissues unfit (local rejection, affected organs disposed at category 2 ABP)
Hydatid cysts: Aetiology? PM findings? Zoonotic? Fit for human consumption?
Echinococcus granulosus
Thickened outer membrane, filled with clear fluid and ‘hydatid sand’
Human infection by ingestion of eggs in soil
Generalised (multiple locations) - whole carcass unfit
If not generalised, rejection of affected part
Disposal as category 2 ABP on public health grounds
Fluke: PM findings? Zoonotic? Fit for human consumption?
Haemorrage with immature parasites
Fibrosis of bile ducts
Nodular hyeprplasia
Human ingestion of metacercaria shed by water snails
Only liver unfit, unless lesions indicate hepatic function impaired greatly (in which case whole carcass unfit) ABP 3 (if no evidence of hepatic function impairment)
Are hepatic abscesses fit for human consumption? Appearance?
All unfit if septicaemia (multiple sites with abscesses)
Otherwise just rejection of affected tissue
ABP 2
Yellow pus with Staph/Strep
Green pus with Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
Onion ring like abscess with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Tumours: fit for human consumption?
Must consider possibility of enzootic bovine leukosis (notifiable)
Otherwise, entire carcass unfit if malignancy (infiltrative behaviour, metastases) or just affected tissues if benign
ABP 2
Ascaris suum: fit for human consumption?
Affected lobes of liver unfit (milk spot)
ABP 3
What is the FBO responsible for having in place?
SOP GGP If >1000 animals, AWO with GoC CoC for all stadd handling live animals Keeping records for 1 year
Responsible for HACCP and good practices (GAP, GMP etc) and risk assessments and FCI - OV audits the FBOs decision
What action is taken if an animal at a slaughterhouse is in pain and/or movement of animal would cause additional suffering?
If routine processing would not cause additional suffering:
- process routinely and OV to collect evidence
If routine processing would cause additional suffering:
- if FBO has not put procedures in place yet, instruct for animal to be killed in situ ASAP
- if FBo not aware and didn’t take measures, see where system failed and take enforcement measures
- if FBO aware take enforcement measures
Fitness for human consumption for animals with welfare problems?
If systemic condition, all carcass unfit
If localised, affected tissues trimmed and unfit
Can detain carcass/parts as evidence when enforcement is to be followed
ABP category if animal killed/found dead in lairage?
If ruminant with SRM = ABP 1
If other = ABP 2
What evidence is used for welfare problems at slaughter?
Clinical exam recordings Videos (e.g. lameness) Photos Detention of carcass CCTV Info regarding haulier/farmer etc
Who are farm/transport welfare cases reported to?
If urgent, reported to LA for transport or referred to APHA and reported to LA for farm
If non urgent, reported to APHA who will then contact LA if required
Recorded in FSA day book
Owner informed by FBO and allowed to also examine evidence
What is the FSA scoring for welfare states at slaughter?
Score 1 = compliance achieved
Score 2 = no immediate risk
Score 3 = potential risk to welfare but no harm caused (e.g. inadequate maintenance)
Score 4 = welfare critical (if unavoidable enforcement will not apply) - e.g. severely lame animal moved to stunning pen, DOA
What does religious non stun slaughter involve?
Ruminants:
- must be held upright in approved restraining pen, a head restraint required
- support to animal is required during and after slaughter
- not allowed in restraining pen unless ready
- fast and continuous incision through both carotid arteries and both jugular veins with sharp knife
- can’t be moved before 20 seconds (sheep) or 30 seconds
(cattle) and until animal is unconscious - animal can’t be further dressed before death
- back-up stunning system for emergencies
Birds:
- fast and continuous incision through both carotid
- can’t be further dressed/scalded before death and not before 2 mins in turkeys/geese and 90 seconds for others
What is done if a dirty or wet animal is found in the lairage?
Retained in lairage on clean bedding to clean/dry possibly overnight (no more than 48h)
Clipped to remove contaminated areas of wool/hair
Particular attention paid to areas where the first incision is made through the skin inc. ventral neck, sternum, linea alba and hocks
Killed in the lairage and carcase disposed - ABP disposal category dependent on species and material contained
Animal is slaughtered with a reduction in line speed to allow special care to be taken
Rejected if category 3 or 4 unless animal welfare grounds etc
Rejected if category 5
What is done if contaminated material found at PM?
E.g. Gi content, foreign material
Best practice is to trim affected area
Avoid washing as can spread contamination
What are anthacosis and carotenosis? Fit for human consumption?
Anthacosis = black pigment (carbon) in lung Carotenosis = yellow pigment of adipose tissue (most often in corn fed animals or older due to age related pigment accumulation) - fit for human consumption (ddx jaundice - unfit)
Deficient exsanguination: Appearance? Fitness for human consumption?
Dark red discolouration in the most ventral position of the carcass (head and neck when shackled by feet) and multifocal larger sized clots
Affected tissues unfit (more perishable)
If severe may be whole carcass unfit
How to determine if haemorrhage seen at PM was acute or chronic?
Minimal clotting if happened close to death
If 8h pre-slaughter, fibrin strands usually apparent
If within 24h pre-slaughter, red to red-blue and jelly like substance
If more than 24-48h prior to death tissue pigment will start being apparent and a soapy texture develops 72h post trauma
Fibrosis if older
What test is done if uraemia suspected due to the smell of a carcass?
Hold carcass for 24h and perform boiling test to assess if ureic smell prevails
Renal infarcts: fitness for human consumption?
If evidence of systemic involvement e.g. uraemia - entire carcass unfit
If localised lesion, only affected parts unfit
ABP 2
Hydronephrosis and urinary cysts: fitness for human consumption?
If localised only affected parts unfit
If systemic involvement ie uraemia all unfit
ABP 2
How is milk produced? What are the 3 types of milk secretion?
Synthesis (milk fat, protein, lactose) and diffusion (water, minerals, vitamins)
Milk secretion:
- merocrine = movement through epithelial cell membrane without injuring membrane (cows)
- holocrine = entire epithelial cell disintegrates to become part of the secretion (goats)
- apocrine = migration of secretory products to apex of epithelial cell, rupture of cell membrane to release (goats)
pH of milk, yogurt, better and cheese?
Yogurt: 4.4
Butter 6.1-6.4
Milk: 6.4-6.8
Cheese 4.8 (cottage) - 7.4 (camembert)
Water activity of whole milk?
> 0.9
What are the D and Z values?
D value = heat resistance of an organism, time at given temperature required to reduce population by 1log10 (90%)
Z value = temperature change required to alter D value by factor of 10
Types of pasteurisation? And UHT?
Low temp long time (LTLT): 63.5C for 30 mins
High temp short time (HTST): 72C for 15 seconds (25s recommended)
Flash: 88C for 1s
UHT: 135C for 1s
What is partially dehydrated and totally dehydrated milk?
Partially: up to 25% solids
Totally: no more than 5% water
Stages of cheese production?
Milk treatment and standardisation
Acidification: lactic acid producing bacteria or vinegar
Coagulation: proteins coagulate at low pH (rennet)
Suneresis: concentrating fat and protein in the curd
Maturation: secondary cultures plus drying
Main pathogens to be aware of in cheese?
Salmonella
Listeria
What is the phosphatase test?
Statutory test to assess efficiency of pasteurisation
Phosphatase enzyme should be inactivated during pasteurisation
Activity indicates pasteurisation not complete/contaminated
What is the peroxidase test for milk?
Lactoperoxidase is the enzyme most abundant in milk
Destroyed when >78C for 15s
Decrease indicates overheating = qualitative test
What is the resazurin test for milk?
Oxidation-reduction indicator in cell viability assays for bacteria and mammalian cells
Indicates contamination
pH and alcohol test for milk?
Femernation leads to release of alcohol and lactic acid
Indicates spoilage of normal milk
Delvo test for milk?
Presence of antibacterial substances
Based on inhibition go growth of Bacillus stearothermophilus var calidolactis (thermophilic bacteria v sensitive to many antibiotics and sulpha compound)
What microbiological criteria are there of milk?
Raw milk for consumption tested by farmer/processing/retailer:
- plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <100,000 (2 samples per month, 2 month average)
0 SCC <400,000 (1 sample per month, 3 month average)
Raw milk for direct human cnsumtpino:
- plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <20,000
- coliforms/ml <100
Raw milk by manufacturer:
- plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <300,000
Processed milk by manufacturer:
- plate count (TVC) at 30C/ml <100,000
Definition of raw milk? Where banned? Rules?
Not been heated beyond 40C
Banned in Scotland and Ireland
May only be sold by registered holdings
Tb free cow/buffalo herd
Brucella free
Must have health warning (harmful in england, advise against children etc drinking in Wales)
Inspections twice a year for cow herds, only on risk basis for sheep/goats/buffalo
Cows: sampled and tested quarterly for TVC and coliforms
Main egg health risks?
Salmonella enteriditis - vertical transmission
Residues - pesticides, PCBs, anthelmintics, coccidiostat, antibiotics
Antibiotic defences of the egg shell?
Cuticle: made of glycoprotein, covers shell’s pores
She: calcium carbonate
Inner and outer membrane: protein fibres
Albumin: viscosity impedes microbe movement, pH 9.2, proteins:
- avidin: binds with biotin
- lysozyme: against gram positives
- ovotransferrin or conalbumin: antimicrobial
- ovoinhibitor: inhibits fungal proteases
Control principles for eggs?
Eggs that go for further processing: - from infected farms - damaged eggs - dirty eggs - old eggs Temperature at storage 20C for no more than 28d
Categories of eggs?
Class A: normal, clean, undamaged shell and cuticle, air space <6mm
Class B: normal shell, dirty, damaged cuticle, air space <9mm
Class C: Cracked or misshapen etc shell dirty, damaged cuticle, air space >9mm or damaged
What do egg stamps 0-3 mean?
0 = organic 1 = free range 2 = barn 3 = cage Plus individual producer code
Council Regulation (EC) 5/2001
What do double yolked eggs and blood spots mean?
Double yolk = young, highly productive laying hen had 2 ovulations
Blood spot = normal in or around yolk, blood vessel broke at time of yolk release, increased if high disturbance, less with free range due to rooting
What are meat spots and watery whites of eggs?
Meat spots = brown spot in albumin, more common in brown hens, small pieces of body tissue eg internal wall of oviduct
Watery whites = usually older birds, old eggs, IB
What causes green yolks and mobile/bubbly air spaces?
Green yolks = consumption of green herbage to excess
Mobile bubbly airspace = shell structure fault, airspace in albumen caused by ruptured inner membrane
What do black, red or green rots of eggs mean?
Bacterial or fungal contamination
Causes of coated egg shells?
Additional calcium (pink/lilac colour) when in shell gland for extended period of time, often in young flocks
Cause of a rough shelled egg?
2 eggs in shell gland at same time
Cause of pale shelled eggs?
Brown laying hens
Older laying hens in free range flocks
Disease
