Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

<p>differentiate between a suspected, probable and confirmed case of an infectious disease (e.g. a measles outbreak)</p>

A

<p>this will be defined by the case definition. suspected - clinical features (e.g. fever and rash) probable - clinical features + contact with confirmed case confirmed case - clinical features and positive microbiology, serology etc.</p>

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2
Q

<p>what is a case definition?</p>

A

<p>set of standard criteria for deciding whether or not a person has a particular disease or health related event</p>

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3
Q

<p>define prevalence</p>

A

<p>a measure of the proportion of the population that has a given disease, condition or characteristic at a given time (or time period)</p>

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4
Q

<p>define point prevalence</p>

A

<p>no. cases at a point in time, compared with the total population</p>

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5
Q

<p>define period prevalence</p>

A

<p>no. cases identified over a period of time, compared with no. people in the population over this time period.

NB - not NEW cases (that's incidence!), just existing cases</p>

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6
Q

<p>define incidence</p>

A

<p>frequency of NEW cases in a defined population in a specified time period</p>

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7
Q

<p>define cumulative incidence (risk)</p>

A

<p>no. NEW cases occurring over a given period of time in the population at risk at the BEGINNING of the time period</p>

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8
Q

<p>what 4 different relative measures come under the term "relative risk"?</p>

A

<p>prevalence ratio
risk ratio
rate ratio
odds ratio</p>

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9
Q

<p>what does relative risk measure?</p>

A

<p>measures the strength of association between exposure and disease</p>

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10
Q

<p>what are the 4 different measures of impact of a risk factor?</p>

A

<p>- attributable risk (aka excess risk)

- attributable risk fraction (or %)
- population attributable risk
- population attributable risk fraction (or %)</p>

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11
Q

<p>what is attributable risk?</p>

A

<p>the excess incidence of our outcome that can be attributed to the exposure</p>

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12
Q

<p>what does using an attributable risk fraction adjust for?</p>

A

<p>the fact that the exposed group would have had some disease anyway - AR fails to take into account the underlying, background rate.

i.e. - not all illness, even in the exposed group, will be due to the exposure</p>

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13
Q

<p>what does the attributable risk fraction tell us?</p>

A

<p>what proportion of disease IN THE EXPOSED GROUP is attributable to the exposure </p>

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14
Q

<p>what does population attributable fraction tell us?</p>

A

<p>what proportion of disease in the POPULATION that is attributable to the exposure

e.g. interpret PAF of 0.96 as "96% of (outcome) in the population are attributable to (exposure)</p>

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15
Q

<p>what is a cross-sectional study?</p>

A

<p>a study in which data are collected on each study participant at a single point in time

a SNAPSHOT

aka prevalence study</p>

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16
Q

<p>what are the two types of cross-sectional study?</p>

A

<p>descriptive and analytical</p>

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17
Q

<p>what do descriptive cross-sectional studies do?

what do they measure?</p>

A

<p>collect info on frequency and distribution of health-related exposures or outcomes, in a defined population.

measure point or period prevalence of the outcome OR exposure</p>

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18
Q

<p>how are data typically collected for a cross-sectional study?</p>

A

<p>surveys</p>

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19
Q

<p>what do analytical cross sectional studies do?</p>

A

<p>investigate the association between exposure to risk factors and the outcome of interest

(NB - the info is collected simultaneously on each individual - no temporality)</p>

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20
Q

<p>what are the differences between an analytical and a descriptive cross-sectional study?</p>

A

<p>descriptive cross-sectional studies basically just find the prevalence of an exposure or outcome, whereas analytical cross-sectional studies look at both exposures and outcomes to investigate the association between the two</p>

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21
Q

<p>what types of bias are cross-sectional studies particularly susceptible to?</p>

A

<p>recall bias - if asked about exposures that occurred a long time ago

non-response bias - always an issue with surveys - look at what the response rate is in the study</p>

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22
Q

<p>what measures are used in analysis of a cross-sectional study?</p>

A

<p>prevalence (of disease OR exposure)

| prevalence ratio and prevalence odds ratios - for outcomes or exposures</p>

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23
Q

<p>list some advantages of a cross-sectional study</p>

A

<p>- quick, cheap and easy (ish!)

- provides prevalence of risk factors and disease in a defined population
- useful for health service planning
- repeated studies can monitor changes over time</p>

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24
Q

<p>list some disadvantages of a cross-sectional study</p>

A

<p>- exposure and disease info collected simultaneously = problems with temporal sequence - disease may modify exposure etc

- studying prevalent cases = can miss out cases with quick recovery, or short survival
- bias - recall, non-response
- not useful for rare conditions</p>

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25
Q

<p>what is an ecological study?</p>

A

<p>a study carried out at the population (or group) level rather than at the individual level</p>

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26
Q

<p>what is a multi-group ecological study?</p>

A

<p>aka ecological correlation study.

| compares different groups (or areas) at a point in time</p>

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27
Q

<p>what is a time-trend study?</p>

A

<p>a type of ecological study, aka a time series study.

examines data in a population over time.
investigates if changes in incidence correlate with changes in exposures over time.

can be long (e.g. seasonal variation) or short (e.g. daily variation)</p>

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28
Q

<p>give examples of information that might be available at a population level, but not an individual level?

to study these, we do an ecological study</p>

A
<p>pollution
income
GDP and other national statistics
per-capita consumption
climate
diet
etc. etc.</p>
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29
Q

<p>give some reasons to study groups/populations

| (ecological studies)</p>

A

<p>- to investigate differences between populations

- to study group-level effects (e.g. seat belt law only works at a group level!)
- convenience and availability of group level data (e.g. air pollution data is only available at a group level)
- quick and cheap study design!</p>

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30
Q

<p>give 4 reasons why ecological studies must be interpreted with caution</p>

A

<p>1. confounders - often, you can't adjust for these due to lack of data

2. bias - data may be collected using different methods or definitions over time or in different places
3. ecological fallacy
4. migration of populations between groups can dilute differences</p>

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31
Q

<p>what is the "ecological fallacy"?</p>

A

<p>cannot assume that group level associations between exposure and outcome will also apply at the individual level

e.g. increased meat consumption and breast cancer rates - is it the meat-eaters who get the cancer?</p>

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32
Q

<p>what is a cohort study?</p>

A

<p>a "follow up" or "observational" study.
a cohort = a group of individuals sharing a common characteristic.
cohort studies take exposed and unexposed cohorts and follow them up over time, measuring incidence.
may be prospective or retrospective.
exposure is decided before outcome is observed.</p>

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33
Q

<p>what does a cohort study do?</p>

A

<p>compares INCIDENCE of an outcome in individuals with different exposure to a risk.

useful for investigating rare exposures, and/or several outcomes.</p>

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34
Q

<p>what measures does a cohort study provide?</p>

A

<p>risk ratio, odds ratio or rate ratio.
derived from incidence that is measured over the course of the study.

can use these to calculate AR and PAR</p>

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35
Q

<p>what are the two main types of cohort study?</p>

A

<p>prospective and retrospective.
prospectives start now and follow-up into future.
retrospective use existing data on exposures and outcomes.</p>

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36
Q

<p>how do retrospective cohort studies work?</p>

A

<p>all the events have already taken place, and records of them must exist.

a 'start date' for the study is in the past, and then records are checked to see what outcome(s) developed after the start date.

does NOT look back from an outcome to find the exposures!!</p>

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37
Q

<p>explain some factors that must be considered in selecting a study population for a cohort study</p>

A

<p>if it's a common exposure, select your population before classifying by exposure - if it's a rare outcome, you may need to recruit on the basis of exposure.

in selecting an unexposed group, you may choose either an internal or external comparison group, or compare with general population - but beware healthy worker effect</p>

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38
Q

<p>what are some important considerations to do with collection of outcome data in cohort studies?</p>

A

<p>might need a long follow-up period - loss to follow up (aka attrition) may be a serious problem!
data should be collected without knowledge of exposure status</p>

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39
Q

<p>how do you decide whether a risk or rate (ratio) is most appropriate for a cohort study?</p>

A

<p>if follow up times for all participants are similar, use risk.
if they vary, use rate so that person-time at risk is taken into account.</p>

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40
Q

<p>list 5 things that could explain an observed association between exposure and outcome in a cohort study</p>

A

<p>1. true association

2. bias
3. confounding
4. chance
5. reverse causality</p>

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41
Q

<p>list the 9 Bradford Hill criteria for causality</p>

A

<p>1. strength

2. consistency
3. dose-response
4. temporality
5. plausibility
6. reversibility
7. coherence
8. analogy
9. specificity</p>

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42
Q

<p>which of the 9 Bradford Hill criteria for causality do cohort studies do a good job of meeting?</p>

A

<p>temporality!

| one of the few study designs that definitely meet this criteria</p>

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43
Q

<p>define bias</p>

A

<p>any error that results in a systematic deviation from the true estimation of the association between exposure and outcome

(a systematic error which leads to a distortion of the truth)</p>

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44
Q

<p>list some of the important biases affecting cohort studies</p>

A

<p>loss to follow up (selection bias)
non-participation (selection bias)
classification of outcome and exposure (observer bias)</p>

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45
Q

<p>define confounding</p>

A

<p>situation where a factor is associated with the exposure of interest, and independetly influences the outcome, but does NOT lie on the causal pathway

e.g. grey hair and back pain are associated - is this a causal relationship?
no! age is a CONFOUNDER here.</p>

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46
Q

<p>list some strengths of cohort studies</p>

A

<p>- useful for rare exposures

- can study effect of exposure on a range of outcomes
- if accurate and detailed exposure assessment is carried out, can assess for a dose-response relationship
- data on potential confounders can also be collected (if prospective)

- meets temporality!!</p>

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47
Q

<p>list some limitations of cohort studies</p>

A

<p>- large sample size may be required

- can't use for rare outcomes
- costs (with propsective)
- time required for follow-up (with prospetive)
- retrospectives don't usually have as accurate and consistent exposure assessment, or data on confounders</p>

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48
Q

<p>what study design is useful for rare exposures?</p>

A

<p>cohort study</p>

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49
Q

<p>what study designs should be avoided for studying a rare outcome?</p>

A

<p>cross-sectional

| cohort</p>

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50
Q

<p>describe the study design of a case-control study</p>

A

<p>individuals with the outcome of interest (cases), and individuals without the outcome (controls) that match the cases on some demographic factors, are identified from a population.
then look back to identify how many individuals in each group were exposed/unexposed.</p>

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51
Q

<p>what things must be considered when deciding how to carry out case selection for a case-control study?</p>

A

<p>need a precise case definition, with clear inclusion and exclusion criteria set BEFORE selection begins.

will you be using prevalent or incident cases?</p>

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52
Q

<p>should you use incident or prevalent cases for a case-control study?</p>

A

<p>generally, incident cases preferred.

prevalent cases may be abnormally more or less severe (e.g. if less severe ones have recovered, or if more severe ones have died)
the disease influences how many cases picked up by prevalent or incident cases.
if you use prevalent cases, you can't distinguish between factors associated with the rates of the disease, and factors associated with the disease PERSISTING</p>

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53
Q

<p>what considerations must be made when selecting controls for a case-control study?</p>

A

<p>controls should represent exposure distribution of the population from which the cases were drawn.
need inclusion and exclusion criteria that are similar to that for cases (but obvs no disease!).
need to be careful where you source controls from e.g. if cases are hospital based, should controls also be hospital based? won't represent general population but would be more similar to cases...

Matching can be done at individual or group level (e.g. match individual controls to a case, or e.g. if case group is 70% male, ensure control group is also 70% male)

Beware overmatching - when matching variable is closely related to exposure variable</p>

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54
Q

<p>what is a nested case-control study and why do one?</p>

A

<p>a case-control study carried out within a full cohort study.

e.g. cohort study of outcome A following exposure A, could also carry out a nested case-control looking at exposures B, C and D in relation to outcome A. (i think??)

avoids selection bias, as cases and controls arose from same population.
also avoid info bias as all the same data collection is carried out on all participants.

avoids reverse causality</p>

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55
Q

<p>what measure is used in analysis of a case-control study?</p>

A

<p>odds ratio of exposure</p>

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56
Q

<p>list some biases affecting case-control studies</p>

A

<p>observer bias - ideally, researcher collecting exposure should not know case-control status

reporting (response/recall) bias - cases may remember exposures better than controls e.g. cases of asbestosis more likely to remember that an old work place has asbestos than controls!</p>

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57
Q

<p>list some strengths of case-control studies</p>

A

<p>- relatively cheap and quick

- useful for rare outcomes
- can study effect of multiple exposures on disease risk for a single disease</p>

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58
Q

<p>list some limitations of case-control studies</p>

A

<p>- potential for selection/information bias

- problems with temporality - possible reverse causality
- no good for rare exposures
- no good for multiple outcomes for a single exposure
- can't estimate incidence or prevalence of a population</p>

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59
Q

<p>what type of study design is useful for studying rare outcomes/diseases?</p>

A

<p>case-control</p>

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60
Q

<p>what is an intervention study?</p>

A

<p>a study in which participants are actively allocated an intervention by the investigators

i.e. an experiment</p>

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61
Q

<p>what is a randomised controlled trial?</p>

A

<p>Randomised allocaation to intervention or control.

Controlled - use of a contemporary comparison arm, with participants given nothing/placebo/usual treatment.

Trial - an experimental study</p>

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62
Q

<p>why do an intervention study?</p>

A

<p>observation studies are more subject to bias and confounding.
RCTs provide GOLD STANDARD for causality</p>

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63
Q

<p>give some different types of randomisation that might be used in an RCT</p>

A

<p>stratified randomisation
blocked randomisation
systematic randomisation
simple randomisation</p>

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64
Q

<p>what are the benefits of blinding in an RCT, and who should be "blind"?</p>

A

<p>avoids measurement/reporting/analytical bias.

| investigator, participant and statistical analyst should all ideally be blind.</p>

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65
Q

<p>explain the difference between an efficacy and an effectiveness trial?</p>

A

<p>in an efficacy trial, you are testing the maximum effect of an intervention if used in a closely monitored setting (e.g. the effect of a drug when patients are supervised taking it each day, or given lots of reminders etc).

in an effectiveness trial, you are looking at what the effect of an intervention is in routine clinical practice - this is more generalisable.

i.e. in an efficacy trial a drug might have X effect, with patients receiving daily reminders to take the drug at correct dose, time etc.
but in an effectiveness trial, the drug will then have Y effect (lower than X), because some patients will take it at the wrong time of day, or miss doses etc</p>

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66
Q

<p>what is a cluster randomised trial and when might it be used?</p>

A

<p>allocation of groups rather than individuals e.g. entire schools, or GPs.

needed when the intervention is at group level e.g. free milk in schools.
also useful if contamination between intervention and control groups is likely.

BUT - need larger sample size</p>

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67
Q

<p>explain the difference between intention-to-treat analysis and per protocol analysis, as used in an RCT</p>

A

<p>ITT should always be the primary analysis of an RCT - outcome is compared between study groups according to their initial allocation, regardless of any loss to follow up, or switching between groups.
this ensures comparability and avoids potential selection biases that might arise.

a per-protocol analysis can tell you the true potential effect of an intervention, if e.g. compliance was improved.
only participants who received intervention according to protocol are included in analysis.</p>

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68
Q

<p>what measures might be used in analysis of an RCT?</p>

A

<p>risk ratio, rate ratio, relative risk reduction.
absolute risk reduction
numbers needed to treat (NNT)</p>

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69
Q

<p>briefly list some ethical issues associated with RCTs</p>

A

<p>control group actively denied the intervention

use of placebo - generally, give the current "usual" treatment, rather than replacing that with a placebo

informed consent</p>

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70
Q

<p>what are "stopping rules" in relation to RCTs?</p>

A

<p>to meet ethical requirements, RCTs will usually have predefined stopping rules to ensure that if a trial is showing clear harm or benefit early on, it is not continued.
This avoids undue risk to participants, depriving control group of an effective intervention, or continuing an ineffective intervention</p>

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71
Q

<p>give some strengths of RCTs</p>

A

<p>- minimise risk of bias and confounding (especially if properly randomised and blinded)

- can study multiple outcomes
- can measure "incidence" of outcome
- provides strong evidence of causal relationship</p>

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72
Q

<p>give some limitations of RCTs</p>

A

<p>- EXPENSIVE

- may need long follow up
- risk of high drop out rates
- ethical concerns
- RCTs may end up with conflicting results anyway</p>

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73
Q

<p>what is the aim of primary prevention?</p>

A

<p>to prevent a disease from occurring.

| carried out when no disease is present, done by reducing exposure or risk factor levels.</p>

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74
Q

<p>give some examples of primary prevention</p>

A

<p>lifestyle changes to reduce CVD risk.
fluoridation of drinking water to prevent tooth decay.
childhood imms to prevent communicable diseases.</p>

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75
Q

<p>what is the aim of secondary prevention?</p>

A

<p>detect early disease in order to alter the course of the disease.

also, prevention aimed at preventing a disease from recurring.</p>

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76
Q

<p>give examples of secondary prevention</p>

A

<p>SCREENING!
e.g. screening for breast cancer allows earlier treatment, altering course of disease.

also, treatment with aspirin to prevent recurrence of a heart attack.</p>

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77
Q

<p>what is the aim of tertiary prevention?</p>

A

<p>to minimise disability and prevent complications</p>

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78
Q

<p>give some examples of tertiary prevention</p>

A

<p>rehabilitation after a stroke.

| treatment to prevent death after a heart attack.</p>

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79
Q

<p>explain the prevention paradox</p>

A

<p>a preventative measure which brings a big benefit to the population, often offers little to each individual.

e.g. seat belt law - for every 1 life saved, 400 people have to wear their seatbelt everyday for 40 years.
so there's 399 people who have received no benefit to their survival from wearing a seatbelt daily for 40 years!

healthcare e.g. is statins for CVD</p>

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80
Q

<p>explain the population vs high risk approaches to prevention?</p>

A

<p>population approach means targeting an entire population with a preventative measure, offering each individual little benefit in exchange for a reduction in overall population risk.

high risk approaches target only those at high risk of an outcome.

NB - pop. approach isn't always EVERYONE, might be e.g. all infants</p>

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81
Q

<p>give some advantages of a population approach to prevention</p>

A

<p>- potential to benefit the whole population
- "behaviourally appropriate"
? not sure what this means - maybe that it's seen as good to spend public money on strategies that can benefit everyone?</p>

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82
Q

<p>give some disadvantages of a population approach to prevention</p>

A

<p>- small benefit to individuals

- poor motivation of subjects
- poor motivation of physicians
- benefit-to-risk ratio may be low</p>

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83
Q

<p>give some advantages of a high-risk approach to prevention</p>

A

<p>- intervention is appropriate to the individuals targeted

- subjects and physicians are more motivated
- benefit-to-risk ratio is good</p>

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84
Q

<p>give some disadvantages to the high-risk approach to prevention</p>

A

<p>- screening costs (have to identify who is at high-risk, and this costs money/resources!)

- temporary effect
- limited effect
- "behaviourally inappropriate" ??</p>

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85
Q

<p>define screening</p>

A

<p>a process which sorts out apparently well people (i.e. those without symptoms) who PROBABLY have a disease (/precursors/susceptibility to a disease) from those who PROBABLY do not.

NB - not intended to be diagnostic</p>

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86
Q

<p>what are the main purposes of screening?</p>

A

<p>primary or secondary prevention.
secondary - e.g. screening by mammogram for breast Ca to treat it early
primary - screening to identify people with risk factors and reduce risk factor levels (e.g. NHS health checks, well man/woman checks)</p>

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87
Q

<p>give some aims of screening</p>

A

<p>- reduce risk of developing disease

- provide treatment
- provide information (e.g. pre-natal screening for genetic disorders)</p>

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88
Q

<p>define sensitivity</p>

A

<p>proportion of people with the disease who are correctly identified by the screening test</p>

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89
Q

<p>define specificity</p>

A

<p>the proportion of people without the disease who are correctly excluded by the screening test</p>

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90
Q

<p>define positive predictive value</p>

A

<p>the proportion of people with a positive test result who actually have the disease</p>

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91
Q

<p>define negative predictive value</p>

A

<p>the proportion of people with a negative test result who do not have the disease</p>

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92
Q

<p>which 2 of the 4 measures of effectiveness of screening are affected by underlying prevalence?</p>

A

<p>PPV and NPV.

sensitivity and specificity are specifically about the screening TEST - they will not change unless the test is altered. </p>

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93
Q

<p>if prevalence of a disease decreases, what happens to PPV and NPV?</p>

A

<p>PPV will decrease, NPV will increase</p>

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94
Q

<p>what three criteria for screening must the CONDITION meet?</p>

A

<p>1. condition should be an important health problem

2. natural history of the condition should be understood
3. there should be a detectable early stage</p>

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95
Q

<p>what three criteria for screening must the TREATMENT meet?</p>

A

<p>1. there should be an accepted treatment for the disease

2. facilities for diagnosis and treatment must be available
3. adequate health service provision should be made for extra clinical workload resulting from screening (e.g. need to be able to do the extra breast surgeries before you start screening people for breast Ca!)</p>

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96
Q

<p>what three criteria for screening must the TEST meet?</p>

A

<p>1. a suitable test should be devised for the early stage of a condition

2. the test should be acceptable
3. intervals for repeating the test should be determined (e.g. cervical screening every 3-5 years)</p>

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97
Q

<p>what two criteria for screening must the RISKS AND BENEFITS meet?</p>

A

<p>1. there should be an agreed policy on whom to treat
2. costs must be balanced against benefits

also - risks (physical and psychological) should be less than benefits!</p>

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98
Q

<p>who came up with the 10 (ish) criteria for screening?</p>

A

<p>Wilson and Jungner

only important in case they say 'list the Wilson screening criteria'</p>

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99
Q

<p>what are the main biases that can affect studies evaluating screening?</p>

A

<p>selection bias
lead-time bias
length-time bias</p>

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100
Q

<p>what is the best study design to use to evaluate a screening programme?</p>

A

<p>RCT - individual or cluster</p>

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101
Q

<p>how does selection bias affect evaluation of screening programmes?</p>

A

<p>people who choose to participate in screening programmes may be different from those that don't bother

e. g. may be at higher risk - family hx of breast Ca = more likely to attend breast screening
e. g. may be at lower risk - women in higher SE groups are more likely to attend cervical screening, but are at lower risk</p>

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102
Q

<p>explain lead time bias</p>

A

<p>can occur when survival time is used as outcome to assess screening.

patients in screening group appear to have a longer survival time, as disease is being diagnosed earlier (at point of screening, rather than when symptoms develop) - however, survival time is actually the same.</p>

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103
Q

<p>explain length-time bias</p>

A

<p>a bias in which individuals with slower growing/progressing, less aggressive disease are more likely to be detected by screening, making screening appear to have better outcomes (as these individuals would have had a better outcome than those with a rapidly progressing, aggressive disease anyway)</p>

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104
Q

<p>give some examples of different types of screening</p>

A

<p>- population- based ("mass") screening programmes

- opportunistic screening e.g. GPs doing BPs when patients come in for any health issue
- Screening for communicable diseases
- Pre-employment and occupational medicals e.g. vision tests for commercial drivers</p>

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105
Q

<p>define bias</p>

A

<p>systematic deviation from a true estimate of the association between exposure and outcome</p>

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106
Q

<p>what are the two main categories of bias?</p>

A

<p>selection bias

| information (aka measurement) bias</p>

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107
Q

<p>define selection bias</p>

A

<p>a systematic error in selection of study participants, or in their allocation to different study groups</p>

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108
Q

<p>what type of selection bias affects cross-sectional studies?</p>

A

<p>non-response</p>

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109
Q

<p>what types of selection bias affects cohort studies?</p>

A

<p>healthy worker effect

| loss to follow-up</p>

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110
Q

<p>how can selection bias affect case-control studies?</p>

A

<p>selection of cases

| selection of controls</p>

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111
Q

<p>how can selection bias affect intervention studies?</p>

A

<p>systematic selection for intervention/control groups (rather than true randomisation)</p>

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112
Q

<p>define the validity of a measurement</p>

A

<p>the degree to which a measurement measures what it is meant to measure</p>

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113
Q

<p>define the reliability of a measure</p>

A

<p>the degree to which the results obtained by a measurement procedure can be replicated</p>

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114
Q

<p>give some examples of different types of information (measurement) bias</p>

A

<p>inaccurate measurement/classification of either exposure or outcome.

misclassification can be differential or non-differential</p>

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115
Q

<p>give some examples of sources of information bias</p>

A

<p>observer/researcher - observer bias
participant - recall bias
instrument - e.g. wrongly calibrated instrument</p>

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116
Q

<p>what does differential misclassification result in?</p>

A

<p>bias - in either direction.

e.g. measurement of BP in two samples by two nurses using two BPs</p>

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117
Q

<p>what does non-differential misclassification result in?</p>

A

<p>underestimation of any true association
(i.e. moves RR closer to 1)

this is a random misclassification, that's completely independent of exposure/outcome status</p>

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118
Q

<p>what steps can be taken to avoid information biases?</p>

A

<p>- blinding

- use of objective measures
- use of records rather than recall
- use of automated instruments rather than observers</p>

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119
Q

<p>what is confounding?</p>

A

<p>the situation where a factor is associated with the exposure of interest, and independently influences the outcome, but does NOT lie on the causal pathway</p>

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120
Q

<p>how can confounding be controlled for at the study design stage?</p>

A

<p>- restriction

- randomisation
- matching</p>

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121
Q

<p>how can confounding be controlled for in the analysis of a study?</p>

A

<p>- stratification

| - statistical modelling</p>

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122
Q

<p>equation for prevalence</p>

A
<p>no. cases of the disease at specific time point/period 
//////////////
total no. people in the population at same time point/period</p>
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123
Q

<p>equation for risk</p>

A
<p>all NEW cases of disease in population over specific time period
/////////
total population at start of time period</p>
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124
Q

<p>equation to calculate odds of getting disease</p>

A
<p>no. new cases of disease
////
no. people still disease free

(all in a specified time period)</p>

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125
Q

<p>equation for incidence rate</p>

A
<p>no. NEW cases of disease in a specified time period
////
person-time at risk in that time period</p>
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126
Q

<p>equation for risk ratio</p>

A

<p>risk in the exposed group
//
risk in the unexposed group</p>

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127
Q

<p>equation for odds ratio of outcome</p>

A

<p>odds of outcome in exposed group
///
odds of outcome in unexposed group</p>

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128
Q

<p>equation for incidence rate ratio</p>

A

<p>incidence rate in the exposed group
///
incidence rate in unexposed group</p>

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129
Q

<p>equation for attributable risk (AR)</p>

A

<p>incidence (rate) in exposed - incidence (rate) in unexposed</p>

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130
Q

<p>equation for attributable risk fraction</p>

A

<p>AR
/////
incidence in exposed group

express as decimal or %</p>

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131
Q

<p>equation for population attributable risk (PAR)</p>

A

<p>incidence in whole population - incidence in unexposed group</p>

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132
Q

<p>equation for population attributable fraction (PAF)</p>

A

<p>PAR
///
incidence in whole population</p>

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133
Q

<p>equation for odds ratio of exposure</p>

A
<p>odds of exposure among cases 
//
odds of exposure among controls</p>
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134
Q

<p>equation for absolute risk reduction/difference (ARR/ARD)</p>

A

<p>incidence in control group - incidence in treatment group</p>

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135
Q

<p>equation for number needed to treat</p>

A

<p>1 / ARR</p>

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136
Q

<p>equation for sensitivity</p>

A

<p>true positives / no. people with the disease

| (a / a+c)</p>

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137
Q

<p>equation for specificity</p>

A

<p>true negatives / no. people with no disease

| (b / b+d)</p>

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138
Q

<p>equation for PPV</p>

A

<p>true positives / no. positive results

TP / TP+FP

a / a+b</p>

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139
Q

<p>equation for NPV</p>

A

<p>true negatives / no. negative results

TN / TN+FN

d / c+d</p>

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140
Q

<p>give some examples of population approach prevention efforts</p>

A

<p>sugar tax
folic acid in flour
legislation for dietary salt reduction</p>

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141
Q

<p>give an example of a high-risk approach to prevention efforts</p>

A

<p>enhanced screening for other CVD risk factors for people with high blood pressure.
only giving BCG vaccine to babies with certain risk factors.</p>

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142
Q

<p>list some factors that contribute to promoting 'excessive energy intake" i.e. overeating, consuming too many calories</p>

A
<p>genetics
employment type (shift work)
early developmental factors
TV viewing/advertisements
characteristics of food eaten (e.g. energy density, portion size might mean more calories consumed in one sitting)
reduced physical activity (less energy needed)
sleep
environmental cues
psychological factors</p>
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143
Q

<p>define malnutrition</p>

A

<p>deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person's intake of energy and/or nutrients - includes undernutrition (stunting, wasting, underweight, micronutrient deficiencies) and overweight (obesity, diet-related NCDs)</p>

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144
Q

<p>list some chronic medical conditions requiring nutrition support

this is why Drs should have understanding of food behaviours!</p>

A
<p>cancer
CF
coeliac
IBD/IBS
T1DM
T2DM
failure to thrive
EDs
overweight/obesity

Drs should be able to understand and respond to/advise patients</p>

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145
Q

<p>list some early influences on feeding behaviour</p>

A

<p>- maternal diet and taste preference development

- breastfeeding - has role for taste preference and bodyweight regulation
- parenting practices/styles
- age of introduction of solid food
- types of food exposed to during weaning and beyond</p>

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146
Q

<p>what are some parent feeding practices that can influence infant/child feeding behaviours?</p>

A

<p>- modelling 'healthful' eating behaviours

- responsive feeding (recognising hunger and fullness cues)
- providing a variety of foods
- avoiding pressure to eat
- restriction
- authoritative parenting
- not using food as a reward
- indulgent/neglectful feeding practices</p>

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147
Q

<p>what are non-organic feeding disorders (NOFEDs)?</p>

A

<p>feeding aversion, food refusal, food selectivity, fussy eaters, failure to advance to age-appropriate foods, negative mealtime interactions.

high prevalence in <6 yo
parents with NOFEDs shown as often using maladaptive parental feeding practices.</p>

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148
Q

<p>what are the different eating disorders, as classified in the DSM?</p>

A

<p>anorexia nervosa
bulimia nervosa
binge eating disorder

OSFED - other specified feeding or eating disorder</p>

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149
Q

<p>what are the three basic forms of dieting associated with restriction of food intake?</p>

A

<p>1. restricting total amount of food eaten

2. not eating certain types of food
3. avoid eating for long periods of time</p>

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150
Q

<p>list some problems with 'dieting'</p>

A

<p>1) RF for developing eating disorders

2) often loss of lean body mass, not just fat
3) slows metabolic rate and energy expenditure
4) chronic dieting can disrupt 'normal' appetite responses and increase subjective sensations of hunger
5) weight cycling (repeated diet - relapse) often leads to 'overshoot' - accelerates overall weight gain</p>

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151
Q

<p>explain the externality theory of obesity</p>

A

<p>idea that normal weight people are responsive to internal homeostatic cues, while overweight people eat according to:

- external cues
- no compensation after preload
- time of day
- offer lurid descriptions of desserts
- sensory food cues

but this theory is a bit too broad/general</p>

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152
Q

<p>briefly explain the restraint/boundary model of dietary restraint and disinhibition</p>

A

<p>idea that 'normal' eaters have a min level of food intake (hunger boundary) and a max level (satiety) - eat intuitively within that.
restrained eaters have a 'cognitive dietary boundary' - how much they think they should eat, that's lower than satiety.
if they break that boundary (as still hungry) - 'what the hell' effect, become disinhibited, and eat to satiety or beyond (often their satiety point is higher than normal as well).
leads to overall weight gain.</p>

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153
Q

<p>give some factors that might trigger disinhibition in restrained eaters
(restraint theory)</p>

A

<p>high energy preloads/belief of high energy preload (e.g. went on a run today therefore I can eat alllll the cake)
large portion size
alcohol
stress/cognitive load
strong emotion - positive or sad (celebratory vs comfort)</p>

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154
Q

<p>what are the stages in the healthcare services planning cycle?</p>

A

<p>needs assessment --> planning --> implementation --> evaluation --> needs assessment (repeat)</p>

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155
Q

<p>what three things do health needs assessments consider?</p>

A

<p>need - ability to benefit from an intervention
demand - what people ask for
supply - what is provided</p>

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156
Q

<p>what is NICE's definition of "need" (for HNAs)?</p>

A

<p>ability to benefit from an intervention</p>

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157
Q

<p>what is a health needs assessment? NICE definition</p>

A

<p>a systematic method for reviewing the health issues facing a population, leading to agreed priorities and resource allocation that will improve health and reduce inequalities</p>

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158
Q

<p>explain the difference between health needs and health care needs</p>

A

<p>health need = need for health, concerning need in more general terms (e.g. measured through mortality, morbidity etc)

health care need = more specific, ability to benefit from health CARE - depends on potential of prevention/treatment/care services to remedy health problems.

HNAs usually cover both.</p>

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159
Q

<p>what are Bradshaw's 4 different types of need?</p>

A

<p>felt need
expressed need
normative need
comparative need</p>

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160
Q

<p>what is 'felt need' as defined by Bradshaw?</p>

A

<p>individual perceptions of a variation from normal health

i.e. they feel they're lacking in a certain aspect of health

limited by individual perceptions and knowledge of services.</p>

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161
Q

<p>what is 'expressed need' as defined by Bradshaw?</p>

A

<p>individual seeks help to overcome variation in normal health (demand)

i.e. they seek treatment/support to address an aspect of their health</p>

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162
Q

<p>what is 'normative need' as defined by Bradshaw?</p>

A

<p>where a professional defines an intervention appropriate for the expressed need

i.e. doctor says the patient needs to improve diet and exercise to reduce weight</p>

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163
Q

<p>what is 'comparative need' as defined by Bradshaw?</p>

A

<p>comparison between severity, range of interventions and cost - compare one group of people to another, what is the difference in what they have? does that mean one group needs something?

e.g. a rural village may identify a need for a well or a school if the neighbouring village has one</p>

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164
Q

<p>what are the 3 different approaches to HNA?</p>

A

<p>epidemiological
comparative
corporate</p>

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165
Q

<p>describe an epidemiological approach to HNA</p>

A

<p>very top-down approach,
basically uses surveys and secondary data sources (census, mortality and morbidity records, GP data etc) to evaluate burden of disease etc affecting a population

takes into account:
Person - who are the affected people - age, gender etc
Place - where and why, do prevalence and incidence vary geographically
Time - when do people get diseases? does it vary by season, cycles?
Statement of the problem - case definition
Prevalence and incidence
Services available and their costs
Effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of services
Quantified models of care and recommendations
Information and research requirements</p>

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166
Q

<p>what are some limitations/problems with the epidemiological approach to HNA?</p>

A

<p>very top down!
required data may not be available
variable data quality
does not consider felt needs of people affected
reinforces biomedical model of health</p>

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167
Q

<p>what types of measures for supply and demand might be used in an epidemiological HNA?</p>

A

<p>supply - staffing, budget, equipment, hospital beds, GP practices

demand - admissions, local population, waiting times</p>

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168
Q

<p>describe the comparative approach to HNAs?</p>

A

<p>compares services received by a population/subgroup with others e.g. geographically, by social class, by age etc.

looks at - health status, service provision, service utilisation, health outcomes.
measures variation in cost and service use.
fairly quick and inexpensive to achieve</p>

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169
Q

<p>what are some limitations/problems of a comparative approach to HNAs?</p>

A

<p>- may not identify the ideal/most appropriate level of provision/utilisation should be (you don't know whether your point of reference is getting it right!)

- data might not be available/may be of variable quality
- hard to find appropriate comparative population
- links between usage rates and health outcomes can be hard to demonstrate</p>

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170
Q

<p>describe the corporate approach to HNA</p>

A

<p>structured collection of knowledge and views of stakeholders - focus group, interviews used
based on the demands, wishes and perspectives of interested parties - professional, political and user/public views
recognises importance of knowledge available from those who have been involved in local service</p>

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171
Q

<p>what are some limitations/problems of a corporate approach to HNAs?</p>

A

<p>- can be difficult to distinguish between need and demand e.g. do they NEED experimental drugs, like the Charlie Gard case

- groups may have vested interests!
- may be influenced by political agendas
- dominant personalities might have undue influence</p>

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172
Q

<p>what groups of people should a corporate approach HNA ideally talk to?</p>

A

<p>patients, trust managers, doctors, nurses, public health practitioners, commissioning managers, voluntary organisations, community health councils</p>

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173
Q

<p>what are the components of Donabedian's framework for health service evaluation?</p>

A

<p>Structure
Process
[Output]
Outcome

NB - outputs usually classified under process but was originally separate</p>

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174
Q

<p>explain the three different components of the framework for health service evaluation?</p>

A

<p>structure - what is there i.e. buildings, staff, equipment e.g. number of ICU beds per 1000 population

process - what is done e.g. number of patients seen in A&amp;amp;E, what the process they go through is (e.g. where and when seen, who triaged, how is priority assessed), no. ops performed (might be classed as outputs)

Outcome - classification of health outcomes by mortality, morbidity, QoL/PROMs, patient satisfaction</p>

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175
Q

<p>what are some issues associated with using health outcomes in evaluation of healthcare services?</p>

A

<p>- link between health service provided and health outcome may be difficult to establish - lots of other factors in play

- time lag between service provided and outcome may be long e.g. childhood health eating and T2DM as older adult
- large sample sizes needed for statistically significant effects
- might not have the data
- issues with data quality</p>

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176
Q

<p>what are Maxwell's Dimensions of Quality used to assess health care quality?</p>

A

<p>Effectiveness
Efficiency
Equity

Acceptability
Accessibility
Appropriateness (relevance)</p>

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177
Q

<p>briefly explain each of Maxwell's Dimensions of Quality</p>

A

<p>Effectiveness - does the intervention produce desired effect?
Efficiency - is the output maximised for given input?
Equity - are patients being treated fairly?
Acceptability - how acceptable is the service offered to the people needing it?
Accessibility - is the service provided? geographical access, costs for patients, waiting times
Appropriateness - is the right treatment being given to the right people at the right time?</p>

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178
Q

<p>give some examples of how quantitative and qualitative methods can be used in health service evaluations</p>

A

<p>qual - consulting stakeholder (e.g. staff, patients, carers, commissioners) - observation, interviews, focus groups
quant - routine data (e.g. hospital admissions, mortality), review of records, surveys</p>

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179
Q

<p>explain the general framework for how a health service evaluation is laid out</p>

A

<p>- define what the service is

- what are the aims/objectives of service?
- framework - structure, process, outcome ± dimensions of quality
- methodology used/to be used (quant/qual/mixed methods)
- results, conclusions and recommendations</p>

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180
Q

<p>what is health psychology?</p>

A

<p>emphasises role of psychological factors in the cause, progression and consequences of health and illness.

- aims to put theory into practice by promoting healthy behaviours and preventing illness</p>

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181
Q

<p>what are the 3 main categories of health behaviour?</p>

A

<p>health behaviour - behaviour aimed to prevent disease e.g. healthy eating

illness behaviour - a behaviour aimed to seek remedy e.g. going to the doctor

sick role behaviour - any activity aimed at getting well e.g. taking prescribed medications</p>

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182
Q

<p>what are health damaging/impairing behaviours vs health promoting?</p>

A

<p>damaging e.g. smoking, alcohol use, sun exposure, unprotected sex

promoting - exercise, health eating, vaccinations</p>

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183
Q

<p>what is health promotion?</p>

A

<p>the process of enabling people to exert control over the determinants of health, thereby improving health </p>

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184
Q

<p>give some examples of health promotion interventions</p>

A

<p>health promotion/awareness campaigns - Change 4 Life, 4 a days, Stoptober, Sober October

campaigns promoting screening and immunisations - cervical smear, MMR vaccine</p>

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185
Q

<p>what are the different levels a health promotion intervention can impact? e.g. of brief primary care intervention aimed at reducing alcohol consumption among individuals</p>

A

<p>1) individual behaviour - level of consumption, individual health outcomes, incidence domestic violence

2) local community - local alcohol sales, alcohol-related crime, A&amp;amp;E attendances
3) population level - national sales/consumption, national alcohol-related crime/A&amp;amp;E etc</p>

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186
Q

<p>what factors can influence an individuals perception of risk?</p>

A

<p>1) lack of personal experience with the problem

2) belief that it's preventable by personal action
3) belief that if it's not happened now, it's not likely to
4) belief that the problem is infrequent

individuals continue to practice health damaging behaviour due to inaccurate perceptions of risk and susceptibility

e.g. "my dad smoked 40 a day from the age of 14 and lived to 102 - why should I bother quitting?"</p>

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187
Q

<p>why might an individual continue to practice health damaging behaviours?</p>

A

<p>- inaccurate perceptions of risk/susceptibility

- health beliefs
- situational rationality
- culture variability
- socioeconomic factors
- stress
- age</p>

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188
Q

<p>what are the 8 components of the NICE guidance on behaviour change?</p>

A

<p>1) planning interventions

2) assessing the social context
3) education and training
4) individual-level interventions
5) community-level interventions
6) population-level interventions
7) evaluating effectiveness
8) assessing cost-effectiveness</p>

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189
Q

<p>what does NICE recommend for doctors helping individuals to change their health behaviours?</p>

A

<p>- work with your patient's priorities

- aim for easy changes over time
- set and record goals
- plan explicit coping strategies
- review progress regularly
- remember the public health impact of lots of doctors making small differences to individuals</p>

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190
Q

<p>list some models/theories of behaviour change</p>

A

<p>1) health belief model

2) theory of planned behaviour
3) stages of change/transtheoretical model
4) social normals theory
5) motivational interviewing
6) social marketing
7) nudging (choice architecture)
8) financial incentives</p>

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191
Q

<p>explain the health belief model of behaviour change</p>

A

<p>individuals will change if they:

- believe they're susceptible to the condition in question
- believe that it has serious consequences
- believe that taking action reduces susceptibility
- believe that the benefits of taking action outweigh the costs

model says all of the above interact with health motivation (how much they care about being healthy) and cues to action to determine the likelihood of action</p>

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192
Q

<p>what are 'cues to action' in the context of the health belief model of behaviour change?</p>

A

<p>can be internal/external cues - just something which triggers action e.g. brief advice on smoking cessation from a GP

unique component of the HBM
not always necessary for behaviour change to occur though</p>

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193
Q

<p>give some limitations/critique of the health beliefs model of behaviour change</p>

A

<p>- alternative factors may predict health behaviour e.g. outcome expectant or self-efficacy (belief in ability to carry out the preventative behaviour)

- as a cognitive based model, doesn't account for influences of emotions on behaviour
- does not differentiate between first time and repeat behaviour</p>

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194
Q

<p>which factor of the health beliefs model of behaviour change has been demonstrated to be most important?</p>

A

<p>perceived barriers</p>

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195
Q

<p>briefly explain the theory of planned behaviour model of behaviour change</p>

A

<p>- best predictor of behaviour is 'intention' e.g. I intend to quit smoking.
intention determined by:
- person's attitude to the behaviour
- perceived social pressure to undertake the behaviour, or subjective norms
- person's appraisal of their ability to perform the behaviour, or their perceived behavioural control</p>

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196
Q

<p>what 3 things are most important in determining an individuals intention to change, as described in the theory of planned behaviour?</p>

A

<p>person's attitude to the behaviour

the subjective norm (perceived social pressure to undertake the behaviour)

perceived behavioural control - whether they believe they're able to change the behaviour</p>

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197
Q

<p>what 5 things can we attempt to influence when helping people to act on their intentions (theory of planned behaviour)?</p>

A

<p>- perceived control

- anticipated regret
- preparatory actions
- implementation intentions
- relevance to self</p>

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198
Q

<p>give some criticisms of the theory of planned behaviour</p>

A

<p>- lack of temporal element, lack of direction or causality

- rational choice model - ignores emotions which can disrupt our rational decision making
- doesn't explain how attitudes, intentions and perceived behavioural control interact</p>

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199
Q

<p>what are the 5 stages in the transtheoretical (or stages of change) model of health behaviour?</p>

A
<p>pre-contemplation
contemplation
preparation
action
maintenance

(relapse)</p>

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200
Q

<p>give some advantages to the transtheoretical model of health behaviour change</p>

A

<p>- acknowledges individual stages of readiness - can tailor interventions

- accounts for relapse
- some temporal element (although arbitrary)</p>

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201
Q

<p>give some critiques of the transtheoretical model of health behaviour change</p>

A

<p>- not everyone goes through each stage in sequence, can skip some, can go back and forward

- change might be more of a continuum than discrete stages
- doesn't take into account values, habits, culture, social and economic factors</p>

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202
Q

<p>what is motivational interviewing?</p>

A

<p>a counselling approach for initiating behaviour change by resolving ambivalence</p>

203
Q

<p>what is nudge theory?</p>

A

<p>'nudge' the environment to make the best option the easiest e.g. opt-out pensions, placing fruit by check outs</p>

204
Q

<p>give some different types of determinants of health</p>

A

<p>- genes

- environment - physical and socioeconomic
- lifestyle
- healthcare</p>

205
Q

<p>explain equity vs equality</p>

A

<p>equity is about what is fair and just, equality is concerned with equal shares
equity = giving everyone what they need to succeed on the same level
equality = treating everyone the same</p>

206
Q

<p>what are the three domains of public health and can you give examples of each?</p>

A

<p>1) health improvement - inequalities, education, housing etc

2) health protection - infectious diseases, chemicals, radiation, emergency response
3) improving services - clinical effectiveness, efficiency, service planning etc</p>

207
Q

<p>what factors can influence health inequalities?</p>

A
<p>PROGRESS
Place of residence (rural, urban etc)
Race or ethnicity
Occupation
Gender
Religion
Education
Socioeconomic status
Social capital or resources</p>
208
Q

<p>explain the difference between horizontal and vertical equity</p>

A
<p>horizontal = equal treatment for equal need
vertical = unequal treatment for unequal need

e.g. horizontal - all else being equal, everyone with pneumonia should receive the same treatment.
vertical - individuals with pneumonia deserve different treatment from those with a common cold
vertical - areas with poorer health may need higher expenditure on health services</p>

209
Q

<p>list some different forms of health equity</p>

A
<p>equal expenditure for equal need
equal access for equal need
equal utilisation for equal need
equal health care outcomes for equal need
equal health

listed top to bottom in order of what is more feasible to actually influence - can easily (ish) influence how much is spent on healthcare, but how easy is it to make sure everyone has completely equal health?</p>

210
Q

<p>what areas might you assess when examining health equity?</p>

A

<p>- supply of health care

- access to health care
- utilisation of health care
- health care outcomes
- health status
- resource allocation
- wider determinants of health in the area being examined

typically you'd assess inequality, then decide if inequitable - inequalities need to be justified, but remember that equality may not be equitable (e.g. people of all SE classes using same no. GP appts per year - equal utilisation, but likely there's unequal need!)

NHS likes to view equity as equal access for equal need (as harder to control whether patients actually use the services available! e.g. STI testing) - equity assessments should measure utilisation as well.</p>

211
Q

<p>what is health improvement?</p>

A

<p>domain of public health concerned with societal interventions aimed at preventing disease, promoting health, and reducing inequalities
not primarily health services - things like education, housing, employment</p>

212
Q

<p>what is health protection?</p>

A

<p>domain of public health concerned with measures to control infectious disease risks and environmental hazards</p>

213
Q

<p>what is 'improving health care services'?</p>

A

<p>domain of public health concerned with organisation and delivery of safe, high quality services for prevention, treatment and cure</p>

214
Q

<p>explain the difference between a cluster and an outbreak</p>

A

<p>cluster = aggregation of cases (may or may not be linked)
outbreak = more cases of disease than normally expected, within a specific place or group of people over a given period of time
needs 2 or more cases linked through common exposure/location
OR single case of rare/serious disease e.g. rabies, polio, diphtheria

confirmed outbreak is when the case has been confirmed through investigation</p>

215
Q

<p>define food poisoning. what actions should be taken if there's an outbreak?</p>

A

<p>'any disease of an infectious or toxic nature caused by, or thought to be caused by, the consumption of food/water'
includes illness caused by toxic chemicals if transported in food.
actions:
- identify affected cohort
- identify source
- ?close restaurant
- people sampling, food sampling, questionnaires (to detect cause)</p>

216
Q

<p>in what 4 different ways can something go wrong in terms of patient care?</p>

A

<p>- human error

- neglect
- poor performance
- misconduct

can be one or a combo of these</p>

217
Q

<p>briefly explain the swiss cheese model of 'error' as it relates to patient care</p>

A

<p>basically there lots of levels of defence - the slices of cheese - systems put in place to prevent error e.g. separate appts, fridges etc for different chemo drugs
the holes in the cheese = latent conditions leading to error e.g. patient misses first appt so decide to give drugs together (poor management decision), also poor design or procedures
active errors = mistakes made that then means all the little holes line up and there's an error in patient care</p>

218
Q

<p>what is neglect?</p>

A

<p>care falling below accepted standard
results in frequent minor mistakes
develops from culture of not caring

can involve neglect of necessary/personal care, safeguarding neglected, medical care not given

Mid-Staffs!!!</p>

219
Q

<p>what is "poor performance" - as one of the four things that can cause errors?</p>

A

<p>problem of attitude - laziness, lateness, not caring
failure to learn from mistakes or listen to advice of others
affects patient care</p>

220
Q

<p>what is misconduct - as one of the four things that can cause errors?</p>

A

<p>deliberate harm - can be minor (e.g. rough handling)
lack of candour - hiding own/others mistakes, ignoring mistakes (hoping they'll go away!), altering medical records, failure to report concerns
inappropriate relationships - patients, relatives, supervisors
fraud/theft - false expense claims, false 'sick' days, drug and alcohol problems</p>

221
Q

<p>what is "medical negligence"?</p>

A

<p>legal entity - outcome of a court case
NOT a crime - civil claim for damages - you pay these, rather than go to prison
you can be found liable (but can't be found guilty)

this is why we have MDU/MPS</p>

222
Q

<p>what are the four qus that have to be asked to demonstrate medical negligence?</p>

A

<p>- did this dr have a duty of care to the patient?

- was their a breach in the duty of care?
- did the patient come to some harm? - on the patien
- did the breach in duty of care cause the harm?</p>

223
Q

<p>how is 'duty of care' defined in medical negligence cases?</p>

A

<p>usually pretty clear
all patients - often also relatives when on the ward etc (fair of them to expect you to help if they arrested)
sometimes includes fellow passengers/passers-by
if you offer medical advice, you accept a duty of care - even if student!</p>

224
Q

<p>how is a 'breach in duty of care' defined in medical negligence cases? name the two tests</p>

A

<p>Bolam test - would a group of reasonable drs do the same?
Bolitho test - would it be reasonable of them to do so?
best defence is NICE guidelines, local or college policies</p>

225
Q

<p>how is it established in a medical negligence case whether a patient came to harm and if breach caused it?</p>

A

<p>onus is on patient
recognised complications not negligent e.g. wound infections
standard of proof is 'on the balance of probabilities' i.e. it is more likely than not that this breach in duty of care led to this harm (lower standard than criminal 'beyond reasonable doubt')</p>

226
Q

<p>how does the court decide what damages to award if a patient wins a medical negligence case?</p>

A

<p>considers:

- loss of income
- costs of care required as a result
- pain and suffering

in USA they also award punitive damages i.e. to punish the doctor</p>

227
Q

<p>what is intuitive decision making? advantages/disadvantages</p>

A

<p>'ability to understand something instantly without cognitive reasoning'
advantages - fast and frugal
disadvantages - prone to biases, cognitively overpower (i.e. you struggle to override it once you've linked one answer/diagnosis)</p>

228
Q

<p>what are 'heuritics'?</p>

A

<p>cognitive short cuts - availability, anchoring and adjustment etc
e.g. people overestimate risk of death from plane crash after there's been one in the news</p>

229
Q

<p>what 4 different types of bias/error can result from intuitive decision making?</p>

A

<p>error of over-attachment - confirmation bias (running tests to get confirmation of the diagnosis you've decided it is, rather than running full investigations), premature closure, sunk costs
error due to inherited thinking - diagnosis momentum (e.g. handed over as ?something, stay focussed on that), framing effect
error due to failure to consider alternatives - search satisfaction, multiple alternatives bias
errors in prevalence perception or estimation - availability bias, base-rate neglect, Gambler's fallacy</p>

230
Q

<p>what is analytical decision making? advantages/disadvantages</p>

A

<p>using evidence based medicine to make decisions - based on known odds/values
adv. - accurate and reliable
dis - slow (patients waiting), resource intensive, cognitively demanding</p>

231
Q

<p>how do we reduce risks associated with intuitive decision making?</p>

A

<p>1) decision environment/processes - reduce distractions, having to make multiple decisions at once, reduce interruptions etc

2) personal debiasing - acknowledging them, acknowledging our limitations (e.g. recognising when we're distracted by personal issues or just being hungry), also consciously trying to slow cognition and think things through
3) structural debiasing - training in dual process theory, cognitive strategies to reduce bias, checklists, group decision making (MDT, ward rounds)</p>

232
Q

<p>what is dual process theory?</p>

A

<p>combining intuitive cognition with analytical thinking - reduces labourious process of analytical thinking, but also reduces biases associated with intuitive decision making</p>

233
Q

<p>list the 10 basic types of human error and give brief explanation of each</p>

A

<p>1) sloth - not bothering to check results/complete exam/document fully etc

2) fixation/loss of perspective - focussed on a specific diagnosis early, so miss later signs
3) communication breakdown - unclear instructions/plans, ignoring others opinions
4) poor team working - poor direction, independent working, some members of team out of depth
5) playing the odds - choosing common and dismissing rare event
6) bravado - working beyond confidence/without supervision
7) ignorance - lack of knowledge, don't know what you don't know
8) mis-triage - over/under estimating seriousness of situation
9) lack of skill - lack of appropriate skills/teaching/practice
10) system error - environmental, tech, equipment or organisation features</p>

234
Q

<p>list some benefits of doctors using social media</p>

A

<p>- establishing wider and more diverse social and professional networks

- engaging with the public and colleagues in debates
- facilitating public access to accurate health info
- improving patient access to services</p>

235
Q

<p>list some risks of doctors using social media</p>

A

<p>- loss of personal privacy

- potential breaches of confidentiality
- online behaviour that might be perceived as unprofessional, offensive or inappropriate by others
- risks of posts being reported by media or sent to employers</p>

236
Q

<p>what are never events?</p>

A

<p>events that cause harm/death to patients
data on them published - shows gaps in provision of quality care, can affect reputation of Trust
have financial penalties
prompt visits by external agencies e.g. CQC, comissioners</p>

237
Q

<p>give some examples of never events</p>

A

<p>surgery - wrong site/implant, retained foreign object
medications - wrong preparation, wrong route, OD etc
mental health - suicide
general health - falls from windows, entrapment in bed rails etc
maternity - PPH deaths</p>

238
Q

<p>what is culture?</p>

A

<p>"socially transmitted pattern of shared meanings by which people communicate, perpetuate and develop their knowledge and attitudes about life"

"the collective programming of mind which distinguishes members of one group/category of people from another"

it informs our internal worldview (way we interpret things and events)</p>

239
Q

<p>what is medical ethnocentrism?</p>

A

<p>belief that health care providers, educated and socialised within a bio-med context have a superior value system and correct, accurate approach to healthcare (basically - drs etc know best)

bad for patients, particularly for communication - might mean patients refuse to communicate their beliefs/behaviours for fear of negative reaction, can mean significant info not obtained</p>

240
Q

<p>what is individual culture based on?</p>

A

<p>- heritage e.g. language, country of origin, ethnicity, family etc

- individual circumstances e.g. gender, age, SE status
- personal choice e.g. religion, lifestyle

dynamic entity
more than what we can see (iceberg model of culture)</p>

241
Q

<p>what are stereotypes?</p>

A

<p>generalisations about "typical" characteristics of members of a group - and we have a natural tendency to confirm stereotypes by looking for info consistent with it</p>

242
Q

<p>what is prejudice?</p>

A

<p>holding a particular attitude towards another person based solely on their membership of a group.

there are cognitive and affective components - cognitive involves stereotypes, affective involves negative or positive feelings towards someone</p>

243
Q

<p>what is discrimination?</p>

A

<p>actual positive or negative actions towards the objects of prejudice
(rather than just holding the attitude)</p>

244
Q

<p>list some challenges of working across cultural distance</p>

A

<p>- effortful - energising/exhausting

- assumptions more likely to be wrong
- humour/rapport
- language
- different expectations of roles for dr and patient
- different explanatory model

the greater the cultural distance, the more likely it is that any assumptions you make will be wrong - so you have to ask more questions of both patient and of yourself</p>

245
Q

<p>give some basic info on the human rights act</p>

A

<p>- forms part of decision making processes when making decisions about people's rights - part of all policy making
- states that all people are entitled to certain rights, regardless of age, sex, religion etc etc

rights frequently involved in healthcare - right to life, right to be free from inhuman and degrading treatment, right to respect for privacy and family life, right to marry and found a family</p>

246
Q

<p>how does the WHO constitution define health?</p>

A

<p>health is the state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity ... the highest attainable level of health is the fundamental right of every human being</p>

247
Q

<p>explain the difference between absolute rights and limited/qualified rights</p>

A

<p>absolute rights apply to everyone, always e.g. prohibition of slavery
limited/qualified rights - limited under explicit and finite circumstances e.g. right to liberty can be restricted to protect public safety</p>

248
Q

<p>is there a right to medical treatment dictated by human rights?</p>

A

<p>there's a right to life, but can't always demand right to healthcare
article 2 states - positive obligation upon the state to take appropriate steps to safeguard life - but cannot impose an impossible or disproportionate burden on authorities
e.g. we have human right to family life, but doesn't mean every patient has right to demand IVF</p>

249
Q

<p>what does the NHS act 2006 section 3 say about obligation to fund healthcare?</p>

A

<p>no absolute duty on secretary of state to provide funds for NHS, only obliged/duty to provide services to such extent as he considers necessary to meet all reasonable requirements

god knows what that means</p>

250
Q

<p>what is a judicial review?</p>

A

<p>opportunity for an individual to challenge the exercise of power by a public body - i.e. patient/groups of patients could challenge local decision makers as being 'unjust' for not providing certain healthcare</p>

251
Q

<p>what are the exceptionality criteria?</p>

A

<p>where local authorities have policy regarding healthcare provision, but can also make exceptions at their discretion - in 'exceptional circumstances', and they're able to leave those circumstances undefined

BUT this can't breach human rights e.g. can't refuse treatment cos of a patient's age</p>

252
Q

<p>give some reasons why there's an increasing need to ration healthcare</p>

A

<p>- shift from acute illness to chronic long term diseases

- normal physiological events becoming medicalised
- increase in choice and increase in expensive drugs

also - real term NHS spending not increasing annually by as much - push for more productivity and efficiency</p>

253
Q

<p>list some different principles used to determine allocation of healthcare resources, and give brief explanation of each</p>

A

<p>1) egalitarian principles - same principles that NHS founded on - emphasises providing all care necessary and appropriate to each person - not necessarily same treatment e.g. someone with T1DM costs a lot more than healthy person - equal access

2) maximising principle - same as utilitarianism - act to maximise public utility - but how do we decide what conditions achieve this really?
3) libertarian principles - state that each is responsible for their own health, wellbeing and fulfilment of their life plan - must be willing to invest in their health and pay cost of consequences e.g. German health incentive schemes - everyone contributes % of income, and there's incentives for positive health behaviour change e.g. bonuses for participating in screening or weight reduction etc, co-payment increases when non-compliance</p>

254
Q

<p>what are the four fundamental ethical principles?</p>

A

<p>1) respect to autonomy - respect people's wishes

2) non maleficence - do no harm
3) beneficence - obliged to bring about good with all actions
4) justice - treat everyone equally</p>

255
Q

<p>what is utilitarianism?</p>

A

<p>ethical principle which says best action is the one that maximises utility (utility defined various ways, just generally means best option for total overall best outcome)</p>

256
Q

<p>what is deontology?</p>

A

<p>ethical theory that the morality of an action is determined based on whether that action itself is right or wrong - not on consequences of the action (that would be consequentialism)</p>

257
Q

<p>what is virtue ethics?</p>

A

<p>states that morality of action is defined by how moral the person doing it is - an individual's character is important rather than the act itself</p>

258
Q

<p>give an example of healthcare that is needed but not demanded or supplied</p>

A

<p>intensive weight loss support

| sexual education in conservative cultures</p>

259
Q

<p>give an example of healthcare that is needed and demanded, but not supplied</p>

A

<p>local hospitals (e.g. cottage hospitals), local A&amp;amp;E departments being closed, OPD appts (long waiting lists = not enough supply)</p>

260
Q

<p>give an example of healthcare that is demanded, but not needed or supplied</p>

A

<p>specialist services/treatments e.g. Charlie Gard, new cancer drugs.
antibiotics for viral illness - although sometimes supplied!</p>

261
Q

<p>give an example of healthcare that is supplied, but not demanded or needed</p>

A

<p>repeat prescriptions e.g. for salbutamol inhalers, that are no longer used
paracetamol prescriptions

a lot of health promotion</p>

262
Q

<p>give an example of healthcare that is needed, demanded and supplied</p>

A

<p>the holy grail!

| free contraception - usually</p>

263
Q

<p>give an example of healthcare that is demanded and supplied, but not needed</p>

A

<p>cosmetic surgery

| abx for viral illness</p>

264
Q

<p>give an example of healthcare that is needed and supplied but not demanded</p>

A

<p>smoking cessation/alcohol reduction services</p>

265
Q

<p>define compliance</p>

A

<p>the extent to which the patient's behavious (taking meds, following diet/lifestyle changes) coincides with medical/health advice</p>

266
Q

<p>what is a "paternalistic relationship" in health care?</p>

A

<p>idea that patient must follow doctors orders - doctor knows best. doesn't look at patient's issues with a treatment.</p>

267
Q

<p>what is the adherence model of communication?</p>

A

<p>focus on adherence not compliance. acknowledge patient's beliefs. health professional as expert conveying knowledge. AIM FOR PATIENT-CENTRED APPROACH.</p>

268
Q

<p>give some examples of unintentional reasons for non-adherence (practical barriers)</p>

A

<p>misunderstood instructions. can't pay. forgets. problems using treatment. (capacity/resource issues).</p>

269
Q

<p>give some examples of intentional reasons for non adherence (motivational barriers)</p>

A

<p>patients' beliefs about their health/treatments personal preferences (perceptual barriers)</p>

270
Q

<p>what is the necessity concerns framework? how does it impact adherence?</p>

A

<p>key beliefs of patient divided into:
1. necessity beliefs - perceived personal need for treatment
2. concerns - about adverse effects.
adherence needs increased necessity beliefs, decreased concerns</p>

271
Q

<p>what does the patient-centred care philosophy encourage?</p>

A

<p>focus on patient as a whole with preferences situated in a social context. share control of consultation and decisions about interventions/management</p>

272
Q

<p>what are the impacts of good doctor-patient communication?</p>

A

<p>1. better health outcomes

2. higher compliance to therapeutic regimens in patients
3. higher patient and clinician satisfaction
4. decrease in malpractice risk</p>

273
Q

<p>explain the principle of concordance in the context of patient-centred care</p>

A

<p>the idea that the consultation should be a negotiation between equals. respect for patient's agenda. patient takes part in treatment decisions.</p>

274
Q

<p>give some examples of barriers to concordance</p>

A

<p>Patients - may not want to engage in discussion, may worry patient more, may want doctors to make the choice.
health professionals - communication skills, time/resources, challenging to take patient choice against evidence.</p>

275
Q

<p>what are the key steps to improving patient adherence?</p>

A

<p>1. improved communication 2. increase patient involvement 3. understand patient perspective 4. provide info 5. assess adherence 6. review medicines</p>

276
Q

<p>define substance use</p>

A

<p>ingestion of a substance affecting the CNS which leads to behavioural and psychological changes</p>

277
Q

<p>name some types of substances and their effects</p>

A

<p>opiates - euphoria, pain killers
depressants - sedation, relaxation, slow down thinking/acting
stimulants - increase activity, elevate mood
hallucinogens - alter sensory perception and thinking patterns, loss of sense of reality</p>

278
Q

<p>name some risk factors for substance abuse</p>

A

<p>family: family history, family conflict
community: availability of drugs, community norms favour drug use, community disorganization, transitions
school: academic failure, low school commitment
individual/peer: smoking/alcohol, sensation seeking and risk taking, rebelliousness, alienation, friends who use drugs, ?genetic vulnerability</p>

279
Q

<p>what are some protective factors for substance abuse?</p>

A

<p>reverse of risk - e.g. family attachment, academic achievement. opportunities for positive involvement - recognition/reward for this</p>

280
Q

<p>define addiction</p>

A

<p>physical and pyschological dependence</p>

281
Q

<p>define physical dependence</p>

A

<p>body needs more and more of a drug for same effect - tolerance. withdrawal symptoms (depends on substance)</p>

282
Q

<p>define psychological dependence</p>

A

<p>feeling life is impossible without drug. feelings of fear, pain, shame, guilt, loneliness without drug</p>

283
Q

<p>what are the 4 tiers of UK drug addiction treatment?</p>

A

<p>1. non-specialist services (primary care, ED) - info, advice, referral

2. open-access services - outreach, harm reduction/needle exchange
3. specialist community-based drug assessment/treatment - pyschosocial services, prescribing (e.g. methadone)
4. specialist residential/inpatient services - detoxification and rehab</p>

284
Q

<p>Name some risk factors for coronary heart disease</p>

A

<p>current smoking, diabetes, hypertension, central adiposity, lower socioeconomic status</p>

285
Q

<p>name some proposed protective factors for CHD</p>

A

<p>fruit/veg intake, exercise, moderate alcohol consumption</p>

286
Q

<p>explain the terms "population attributable fraction" (PAF) / "population attributable risk" (PAR)</p>

A

<p>proportion of the incidence of disease in the exposed and non-exposed population that is due to exposure.
i.e. calculating how much of the disease is due to exposure to each risk (e.g. how much CHD is due to smoking).
It is the disease incidence in the population that would be eliminated if the exposure were eliminated.</p>

287
Q

<p>describe the absolutist explanations for socioeconomic health differences vs relativist explanations</p>

A
<p>absolutist = it's about poverty, absolute measures of socioeconomic deprivation predict health status.
relativist = it's about the relative differences - larger the relative differences in society the poorer the outcomes for the poor (and for all of us!)</p>
288
Q

<p>define psychosocial factors</p>

A

<p>factors influencing psychological responses to the social environment and pathophysiological changes</p>

289
Q

<p>what is "coronary prone behaviour"?</p>

A

<p>competitive; hostile; impatient; type A behaviour</p>

290
Q

<p>how are CHD and depression/anxiety linked?</p>

A

<p>each increase the other. possibly linked by precursors (e.g. social deprivation)</p>

291
Q

<p>what is the impact of depression/anxiety on CHD prognosis?</p>

A

<p>3.4x more likely to die</p>

292
Q

<p>how does a patient's work impact their risk of MI/CHD?</p>

A

<p>high demand job / low levels of control in job ("job strain") increases risk.
working hours - 11+ per day = 67% more likely to have an MI.
WHITEHALL STUDIES</p>

293
Q

<p>How does social support influence CHD?</p>

A

<p>quantity and quality of social relationships - related to morbidity and mortality.
help patient to cope with life events, motivation to engage in healthy behaviours.</p>

294
Q

<p>how can doctors help modify psychosocial influences on CHD?</p>

A

<p>observe behaviour patterns; identify signs of depression; use assessment tools (questionnaires); ask about occupation (incl. working hrs); ask about emotional support </p>

295
Q

<p>What four possible mechanisms were set out by the Black Report to explain widening socio-economic health inequalities?</p>

A

<p>1. artefact

2. social selection
3. behaviour
4. material circumstances</p>

296
Q

<p>Suggest some reasons women tend to suffer more illness during their lives</p>

A

<p>biological - women's role in reproduction can cause ill health (e.g. post-partum depression - women are a lot more likely to get depressed throughout life time).
Ageing - live longer, more prone to ill health associated with old age.
Material - women seen as carer, implications on paid employment = poverty = ill health.</p>

297
Q

<p>Suggest some social factors explaining higher mortality rates in men</p>

A

<p>employment - occupations involving direct risk to life (machinery, weather, environmental hazards) are male dominated.
risk taking behaviour - men are socialised towards more extreme sports (motor bikes, rock climbing) higher risk of road traffic injury.
smoking - more men smoke than women (this is narrowing).
alcohol - men drink significantly more than women in all age groups.</p>

298
Q

<p>What 6 areas are included in the HSE management standards?</p>

A

<p>Demands - workload, work patterns, work environment.
Control - how much say the person has in the way they do their work.
Support - encouragement, sponsorship etc from organisation, colleagues etc.
Relationships - promoting positive working, avoiding conflict.
Role - do they understand their role within the organisation?
Change - how is organisational change managed and communicated.</p>

299
Q

<p>define incidence</p>

A

<p>the rate at which new cases occur in a population during a specified time period</p>

300
Q

<p>define prevalence</p>

A

<p>the proportion of a population that have the disease at a point in time</p>

301
Q

<p>what is the main cause of COPD?</p>

A

<p>smoking</p>

302
Q

<p>List some recognised causes/occupations of occupational COPD (15% of COPD burden)</p>

A

<p>coal dust, silica, cotton, grain, cadmium, isocyanates.

| foundry work, joiners, construction workers, welders.</p>

303
Q

<p>Give some reasons for the geographical variation seen in COPD (much more prevalent in the north)</p>

A

<p>Socioeconomic differences/deprivation - housing and nutrition.
Historic industry - ship building, steel work and coal mining.
Developing world - use of biomass fuel for indoor cooking, increasing smoking prevalence.</p>

304
Q

<p>How many different genera of influenza virus are there? which are the main human pathogens?</p>

A

<p>3: influenza A, B and C.

| A and B are the main human pathogens.</p>

305
Q

<p>name the 2 key surface antigens described on influenza A viruses, and their actions</p>

A

<p>Haemagglutinin (15 subtypes) - virus binding and entry to cells.
Neuraminidase (9 subtypes) - cuts newly formed virus loose from infected cells.</p>

306
Q

<p>describe the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift</p>

A

<p>antigenic DRIFT = minor antigenic variation, causes SEASONAL epidemics.
antigenic SHIFT = gene re-assortment and major antigenic variation, may be associated with PANDEMICS.</p>

307
Q

<p>describe the types of disease shown by infection with each of influenza A, B and C.</p>

A

<p>A: infects many species. causes the severe and extensive outbreaks and pandemics.
B: prone to mutation (like A), but tends to cause sporadic outbreaks (e.g. schools, care homes, barracks) that are less severe. more often seen in children.
C: minor disease - mild symptoms/asymptomatic.</p>

308
Q

<p>describe influenza transmission</p>

A

<p>mainly via aerosols generated by coughs and sneezes.

| also possible via hand-to-hand contact, other personal contact or fomites.</p>

309
Q

<p>list some factors that increase the mortality risk in a person infected with influenza</p>

A

<p>chronic cardiac/pulmonary diseases; old age; chronic metabolic diseases; chronic renal disease; immunosuppression.</p>

310
Q

<p>define the difference between outbreaks, epidemics and pandemics.</p>

A
<p>outbreaks = 2+ cases.
epidemics = more cases in a region/country.
pandemic = epidemics that span international boundaries.</p>
311
Q

<p>what is palliative care?</p>

A

<p>an approach to care which focuses on comfort and quality of life - focused on living with meticulous symptom control.</p>

312
Q

<p>what types of suffering does palliative care aim to alleviate?</p>

A

<p>physical suffering - pain/symptoms.
emotional suffering - depression/anxiety/loneliness.
social suffering - isolation, carer's fatigue, financial worries.
spiritual suffering.</p>

313
Q

<p>describe the care needs of older patients</p>

A

<p>multiple co-morbidites leading to greater impairment and need for care. poly pharmacy. increased psychological distress, increased social isolation and economic hardship.</p>

314
Q

<p>what constitutes a "good death"</p>

A

<p>expected, time to say goodbye. control over circumstances. dignity and privacy. symptom control. opportunity to issue advanced directives.</p>

315
Q

<p>what are the key issues in palliative care of COPD?</p>

A

<p>unpredictable illness trajectory/prognosis. poor patient understanding.</p>

316
Q

<p>what are the recommended weekly alcohol allowances?</p>

A

<p>14 units a week for men and women, spread drinking over 3+ days.</p>

317
Q

<p>what is a standard unit of alcohol?</p>

A

<p>10ml of pure alcohol</p>

318
Q

<p>how do you calculate the number of units?</p>

A

<p>% ABV x vol. in ml

| divided by 1000</p>

319
Q

<p>when does drinking become too much?</p>

A

<p>when it causes or elevates the risk for alcohol-related problems, or complicates the management of other health problems.</p>

320
Q

<p>list some acute effects of excessive alcohol/ethanol</p>

A

<p>coma and death from respiratory depression; aspiration pneumonia; oesopahgitis/gastritis; mallory-weiss syndrome; pancreatitis; cardiac arrhythmias; cerebrovascular accidents; neuropraxia due to compression; myopathy; hypoglycaemia</p>

321
Q

<p>list some chronic effects of excess alcohol intake</p>

A

<p>pancreatitis; CNS toxicity (dementia, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, cerebellar degeneration); liver damage (fatty change, hepatitis, cirrhosis, hepatic carcinoma); hypertension; peripheral neuropathy; gastritis; osteoporosis; malabsorption etc etc</p>

322
Q

<p>describe foetal alcohol syndrome </p>

A

<p>pre and post-natal growth retardation. CNS abnormalities including mental retardation, irritability, incoordination, hyperactivity. Craniofacial abnormalities. Associated abnormalities.</p>

323
Q

<p>describe the features of alcohol withdrawal</p>

A

<p>"the shakes" - tremors.
activation syndrome - characterized by tremors, agitation, rapid HR, high BP. Seizures - acute grand mal seizures can occur in alcohol withdrawal in patients who have no history of seizure. Hallucinations. </p>

324
Q

<p>list some psychosocial effects of excessive alcohol consumption</p>

A

<p>interpersonal relationships (violence, rape, depression or anxiety). problems at work. criminality. social disintegration (poverty). driving offences.</p>

325
Q

<p>describe some primary prevention campaigns to prevent alcohol abuse</p>

A

<p>'know your limits' campaign. drinkaware - alcohol labelling. THINK! drink driving campaign. restricted advertising. minimum pricing.</p>

326
Q

<p>what must you differentiate between when screening for problem drinking?</p>

A
<p>At risk drinking (hazardous) - brings about the risk of physical or psychological harm.
Alcohol abuse (harmful drinking) - pattern of drinking which is likely to cause harm.
Alcohol dependence - a set of behavioural, cognitive and physiological responses develop after repeated substance use.</p>
327
Q

<p>name some alcohol misuse screening tools</p>

A

<p>AUDIT
CAGE
FAST</p>

328
Q

<p>list the components of the FRAMES summary of motivational interviewing</p>

A

<p>Feedback about the risk of personal harm or impairment.
Stress personal Responsibility for making change.
Advise to cut down or, stop drinking.
Provide a Menu of alternative strategies for changing drinking patterns.
Empathetic interviewing style.
Self efficacy - intuitive style which leaves patient enhanced in feeling able to cope with goals they have agreed.</p>

329
Q

<p>describe some medical treatments for alcohol dependence</p>

A

<p>disulfiram - producing an acute sensitivity to alcohol.
naltrexone - competitive antagonist for opioid receptors - for rapid detoxification.
acamprosate - stabilize the chemical balance.</p>

330
Q

<p>give an example of brief interventions to help a patient with alcohol misuse</p>

A

<p>positive reinforcement for lower risk.
motivational interviewing.
higher risk - assess for dependence, MMSE, assess mental health.</p>

331
Q

<p>what tool would you use to assess someone's alcohol dependency?</p>

A

<p>Severity of dependence questionnaire (SADQ).
assesses for physical/affective withdrawal symptoms; relief drinking; frequency of alcohol consumption; speed of onset of withdrawal symptoms</p>

332
Q

<p>describe the process of assisted withdrawal</p>

A

<p>aka detoxification.
alcohol stimulates GABA (major depressive neurotransmitter) - chronic use means these receptors become tolerant of alcohol stimulation.
treatment with chlordiazepoxide (or other benzodiazpine e.g. lorazepam) allows patient to stop alcohol without withdrawal symptoms, and then dose of this medication can be reduced in a controlled, step wise manner.</p>

333
Q

<p>what is Wernicke's encephalopathy? how might you treat it?</p>

A

<p>caused by thiamine deficiency. common in severe alcohol dependency. poor diet, low vitamin intake, gastritis causing poor GI absorption.
high demand as alcohol metabolism depends on thiamine.
treat with Pabrinex and ongoing vitB/thiamine.</p>

334
Q

<p>describe how disulfiram (antabuse) tablets help prevent alcohol relapse.</p>

A

<p>disrupts oxidative metabolism of alcohol, resulting in a build up of acetaldehyde.
this gives them a hangover that's 10x worse, lasting 20hrs, for MUCH less alcohol.
flushing, tachycardia, SOB, nausea, vomiting.</p>

335
Q

<p>describe how nalmefine helps prevent alcohol relapse</p>

A

<p>it's an opioid receptor antagonist. it modifies activity at receptor sites linked to reward mechanisms. effects of alcohol still present, but reduced feeling of reward/pleasure.</p>

336
Q

<p>give 3 examples of drugs used to prevent alcohol relapse</p>

A

<p>acamprosate
disulfiram
nalmefine</p>

337
Q

<p>what is anorexia nervosa?</p>

A

<p>restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight.
intense fear of gaining weight/becoming fat - even though underweight.
disturbance in how one's body weight/shape is experienced etc.</p>

338
Q

<p>what are the subtypes of anorexia nervosa?</p>

A

<p>restricting

| binge/purging subtype</p>

339
Q

<p>what is bulimia nervosa?</p>

A

<p>recurrent episodes of binge eating characterised by eating large amounts in a discrete time period (e.g. 2h), and sense of lack of control over eating during an episode.
inappropriate compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain - purging.
undue influence of body shape/weight on self-evaluation.</p>

340
Q

<p>describe the features of a binge-eating episodes</p>

A

<p>eating a large amount of food in a 2h period.
lack of control over eating.
eating much more rapidly than normal. eating until uncomfortably full. eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much they're eating. feeling disgusted/depressed/guilty afterwards - marked distress.</p>

341
Q

<p>what are some "maintaining factors" the causes initially disordered eating to continue?</p>

A

<p>initially - positive reinforcement for weight loss/control.
then, terror at losing control - body image disturbance, emotional instability, family and professionals trying to take control of your body to make you eat etc</p>

342
Q

<p>list some things you would look/test for in assessing a patient with a suspected eating disorder</p>

A

<p>severe food/fluid restriction.

| electrolyte imbalance. bone deterioration. physical damage (oesophageal tears, blood in vomit). substance misuse.</p>

343
Q

<p>list some URGENT signs to look for when assessing an eating disorder patient</p>

A

<p>muscular weakness. breathing difficulty. deterioration of consciousness. cardiac signs (tachy/brady, low BP). rapid weight loss (not low weight necessarily!). risky behaviours (e.g. suicidal intent).</p>

344
Q

<p>what is the first choice treatment for eating disorders?</p>

A

<p>cognitive behaviour therapy.

| (alternatives - guided self-help, psychotherapy, family therapy)</p>

345
Q

<p>list some non-infective causes of diarrhoea</p>

A

<p>neoplasm; hormonal; inflammatory; radiation; irritable bowel; chemical; anatomical</p>

346
Q

<p>list the points in the chain of infection</p>

A
<p>AGENT.
mode of transmission.
portal of entry.
HOST.
person to person spread.
RESERVOIR.
portal of exit.</p>
347
Q

<p>list some types of transmission of infection</p>

A

<p>direct.
faecal-oral route.
vector-bourne.
airborne - respiratory route.</p>

348
Q

<p>list some causative organisms of diarrhoea</p>

A

<p>rotavirus; shigella; E Coli; salmonella typhi; salmonella paratyphi; hepatitis A; hepatits E; vibrio cholerae</p>

349
Q

<p>describe the features of norovirus, and where it typically occurs</p>

A

<p>"winter vomiting" - vomiting, diarrhoea, nausea, cramps, headache, fever, chills.

hospitals, care homes, schools, cruise ships etc.</p>

350
Q

<p>how is C diff spread?</p>

A

<p>faecal-oral route.

| spores in environment (highly resistant to chemicals - alcohol hand wash won't destroy!)</p>

351
Q

<p>what are the components of the WHO diarrhoea prevention package?</p>

A

<p>1. rotavirus and measles vaccinations.

2. promote early + exclusive breastfeeding, and vit A supplementation.
3. promote hand washing with soap
4. improve water supply quantity and quality.
5. community-wide sanitation promotion</p>

352
Q

<p>what are the components of the WHO diarrhoea treatment package?</p>

A

<p>1. fluid replacement to prevent dehydration

| 2. zinc treatment</p>

353
Q

<p>list some upper limb and neck conditions that may be work related</p>

A
<p>shoulder/rotator cuff/bicipital tendinitis.
shoulder capsulitis (frozen shoulder).
cervical spondylosis.
tension neck
lateral/medial epicondylitis.
carpal tunnel
De Quervain's disease of the wrist.
Repetitive strain injury (RSI).</p>
354
Q

<p>what is thoracic outlet syndrome?</p>

A

<p>pinching of the nerves of the thoracic outlet, e.g. those under collar bone, those between scalene muscles, those under the pec minor (pinched when arms lifted above head).</p>

355
Q

<p>how does thoracic outlet syndrome manifest?</p>

A

<p>sensory - pain and tingling.
MSK - wasting of hands.
vascular - +ve Adson's test.</p>

356
Q

<p>describe the features of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis).</p>

A

<p>F:M = 2:1. unknown cause.
equal restriction of active and passive movements in capsular patterns (external rotation > abduction > internal rotation).</p>

357
Q

<p>what causes medial and lateral epicondylitis / olecranon bursitis?</p>

A

<p>repetitive bending and straightening of elbow.

| olecranon bursitis - people that lean on their elbows (students, DSE, miners).</p>

358
Q

<p>describe the features of carpal tunnel syndrome</p>

A

<p>F>M.
pain/tingling/numbness in median occupations with repetitive/forceful wrist movements, adverse wrist postures (DSE - display screen equipment).</p>

359
Q

<p>describe the features of tensoynovitis.</p>

A

<p>local tenderness and swelling of tendon sheath.
pain on resisted movements.
F>M.
manual workers.
For De Quervain's = wrist - common flexor tendon to thumb sheath. as above + seen in rowers.</p>

360
Q

<p>describe the features of hand-arm vibration syndrome</p>

A

<p>need to be exposed to sufficient vibration.
vascular HAVS - blanching.
sensorineuronal HAVS - pain, numbness, tingling.
MSK HAVS - wasting, dexterity.
usually asymmetrical.</p>

361
Q

<p>describe "simple" (mechanical) back pain</p>

A
<p>present age 20-55.
lumbosacral region, buttocks and thighs.
mechanical pain.
varies with physical activity and time.
90% recover from acute attack within 6 weeks.</p>
362
Q

<p>describe neurological back pain</p>

A

<p>nerve root pain.
unilateral leg pain worse than low back pain. radiates to foot or toes.
numbness/paraesthesia in same distribution.
motor, sensory, or reflex change.
50% recover from acute attack within 6wks.</p>

363
Q

<p>what are the red flags for possible serious spinal pathology.</p>

A
<p>onset 55yrs.
violent trauma.
constant, progressive, non-mechanical pain.
thoracic pain.
PMH carcinoma, systemic steroids, drug abuse, HIV.
systemically unwell, weight loss.
widespread neurology.
structural deformity.</p>
364
Q

<p>list some causes of meningitis</p>

A

<p>bacteria - meningococcus, pneumococcus.
viruses - coxsackie virus, echovirus, herpes virus, mumps virus
medications/cancers/SLE</p>

365
Q

<p>what are the symptoms and signs of meningitis?</p>

A

<p>photophobia, stiff neck, fever, altered consciousness, headache, painful joints and muscle aches.
Kernig's sign - knee.
Brudzinski's neck sign.</p>

366
Q

<p>what are the additional symptoms of septicaemia caused by meningitis?</p>

A

<p>rash, severe aches and pains, cold hands and feet, rigors, abdominal cramps.</p>

367
Q

<p>what are the symptoms of septicaemia in babies?</p>

A

<p>fever with cold hands and feet. petechial (non-blanching) rash. floppiness, severe sleepiness. rapid/unusual patterns of breathing. skin that is pale, blotchy, or turning blue. shivering. vomiting. refusing to feed. irritability from muscle aches or limb/joint pain.</p>

368
Q

<p>what are the symptoms of meningitis in babies?</p>

A

<p>fever. drowsy and less responsive. difficult to wake. floppy and listless, OR stiff with jerky movements. high-pitched, moaning cry. irritable when picked up. refusing feeds, vomiting. skin that is pale, blotchy or turning blue. bulging fontanelle.</p>

369
Q

<p>describe the spread of Neisseria meningitidis</p>

A

<p>found naturally in throat/nose - only occasionally pathogenic.
transmitted person-to-person by inhaling respiratory secretions from the mouth/throat, or by direct contact (kissing)</p>

370
Q

<p>list some sequelae of meningitis</p>

A

<p>brain abscess, brain damage, seizure disorders, hearing impairment, focal neurological disorders, organ failure, gangrene, auto-amputation, death.</p>

371
Q

<p>how is meningitis managed?</p>

A

<p>immediate benzylpenicillin/cefotaxime/ceftriazone. IV, IM or IO (intraosseous).
supportive care.</p>

372
Q

<p>what investigations would be done in a suspected case of meningitis?</p>

A

<p>bloods - FBC, blood glucose.
blood cultures.
lumbar puncture - CSF sent for MC&amp;amp;S, PCR and biochemistry tests (protein, blood and glucose).
throat/nasal swabs.</p>

373
Q

<p>who should be "notified" if a notifiable disease presents to you?</p>

A

<p>the "proper officer of the local authority"

| or, public health england</p>

374
Q

<p>what 3 things must consent be?</p>

A

<p>voluntary. informed. made by someone with capacity.</p>

375
Q

<p>what information should be given to a patient about their treatment to meet the requirements of INFORMED consent?</p>

A

<p>what, how, risks, benefits, alternatives and their risks/benefits</p>

376
Q

<p>what does the Mental Capacity Act state?</p>

A

<p>1. a person must be presumed to have capacity unless it is established that he doesn't
2. any act done or decision made on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be in their best interests.</p>

377
Q

<p>what 4 things must a person be able to do to be deemed capable of making a decision?</p>

A

<p>1. understand the relevant information (incl. consequences).

2. retain this info for long enough to decide.
3. use or weigh it to make a decision.
4. communicate the decision.</p>

378
Q

<p>when acting on behalf of a patient without capacity, in their best interest, what must be considered?</p>

A

<p>1. whether the patient could have capacity + when that might occur.

2. the patient's past and present wishes and feelings.
3. patient's beliefs and values that would be likely to influence any decision.
4. other factors he might consider to decide.
5. consultation about 2-4 with anyone named as needing to be consulted (e.g. carers, family, lasting power of attorney).</p>

379
Q

<p>give some examples of incidents a patient may experience in hospital that put their safety at risk</p>

A

<p>failure/delay to diagnose.
failure/delay in clinical monitoring and management.
looking at wrong patient!
failure to document.</p>

380
Q

<p>give 3 main contributory factors leading to patient safety incidents</p>

A

<p>communication, orientation/training, patient assessment, staffing levels, physical environment, compentency, alarm systems</p>

381
Q

<p>give the 5 elements of a positive safety culture and a brief definition</p>

A

<p>1) open culture - staff able to discuss incidents/issues

2) just culture - staff, patients and carers treated fairly and with empathy when involved with an incident
3) reporting culture - staff aren't blamed/punished when reporting an incident, reporting process is easy and accessible
4) learning culture - organisation learns safety lessons, communicates them to colleagues and remembers them.
5) informed culture - organisations has learnt from past events and is able to prevent recurrence.</p>

382
Q

<p>define human error</p>

A

<p>failure of a planned action or a sequence of mental/physical actions to be completed as intended.
or, use of a wrong plan to achieve an outcome</p>

383
Q

<p>define "never events"</p>

A

<p>serious, largely preventable patient safety incidents that should not occur if the available preventative measures have been implemented - intolerable and inexcusable</p>

384
Q

<p>give 3 examples of "never events"</p>

A

<p>wrong site surgery, wrong implant, retained object, strong potassium, wrong route of drug administration, overdose of insulin/methotrexate/midazolam, misplaced NG/OG tubes, ABO incompatible blood/organ, non-collapsible shower rails (suicide risk), scalding, falls from windows, entrapment in bed rails</p>

385
Q

<p>define "latent errors"</p>

A

<p>removed from the practitioner, involves decisions affecting organisational policies, procedures, resource allocation etc
e.g. unclear policies, incomplete patient info such as missing allergy</p>

386
Q

<p>define "active errors"</p>

A

<p>due to direct contact with patient e.g. programming an IV pump incorrectly, nurse giving wrong dose of heparin to 6 babies</p>

387
Q

<p>define "organisational system errors"</p>

A

<p>indirect failures involving management, organisational culture, protocols/processes, transfer of knowledge, and external factors, lack of standardisation</p>

388
Q

<p>define "technical errors"</p>

A

<p>indirect failure of facilities or external resources</p>

389
Q

<p>what is SBAR?</p>

A

<p>structured method of communicating - Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation</p>

390
Q

<p>what are the 7 rights to ensure safe use of medications?</p>

A

<p>right:

| drug, patient, dose, time, route, reason, documentation</p>

391
Q

<p>give some examples of human factors that could lead to error</p>

A

<p>load theory - how much info can a human brain process.
lack of situational awareness.
problems with team dynamics.
communication issues (use SBAR).
stress, fatigue, complacency, distraction, lack of knowledge.</p>

392
Q

<p>what is confirmation bias?</p>

A

<p>tendency to look for confirming evidence to support a diagnosis, rather than look for evidence to refute it</p>

393
Q

<p>what is "anchoring"?</p>

A

<p>tendency to focus on salient features in the patient's initial presentation too early in the diagnostic process and failing to adjust this initial impression in light of later info</p>

394
Q

<p>list 3 vaccine preventable neurological infections</p>

A

<p>poliomyelitis, tetanus, measles, H influenzae, meningococcus, TB</p>

395
Q

<p>which group of people get the most migraines, in terms of age and gender?</p>

A

<p>females aged 25-50</p>

396
Q

<p>give 3 risk factors for migraines</p>

A

<p>age and sex, sex hormones (oral contraceptive), FHx, education, income and socio-economic status</p>

397
Q

<p>give 3 risk factors for stroke</p>

A

<p>age, male sex, hypertension, smoking, alcohol consumption, cardiac disease, diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidaemia</p>

398
Q

<p>give 3 possible aetiological factors in epilepsy</p>

A

<p>genetic factors, febrile seizures, head injuries, bacterial/parasitic infections, viral meningo-encephalitides, toxic agents</p>

399
Q

<p>which neurological disease is less common in smokers?</p>

A

<p>Parkinson's</p>

400
Q

<p>at what ages is the onset of multiple sclerosis most common?</p>

A

<p>20-35yrs</p>

401
Q

<p>describe the geographical variation in multiple sclerosis prevalence?</p>

A

<p>prevalence is directly proportional to distance from the equator</p>

402
Q

<p>what is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? at what age does it usually begin?</p>

A

<p>rapidly progressive neuro-degenerative disease (dementia).
55-75yrs.</p>

403
Q

<p>what is variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?</p>

A

<p>similar to CJD, first identified by unit set up to monitor CJD due to BSE epidemic.
peak incidence at 27yrs.
genetic susceptibility, age and BSE combine to cause it.</p>

404
Q

<p>list possible complications of chlamydia trachomatis and neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in females</p>

A

<p>PID - tubal factor infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain.
neonatal transmission - opthalmia neonatorum, atypical pneumonia </p>

405
Q

<p>list the possible sites of chlamydia/gonorrhoea infection in adults</p>

A

<p>urethra, endocervical canal, rectum, pharynx, conjunctiva</p>

406
Q

<p>how does chlamydia/gonorrhoea present in males?</p>

A

<p>dysuria and urethral discharge.

| at least 50% of chlamydia is asymptomatic (10% of gonorrhoea).</p>

407
Q

<p>how does chlamydia/gonorrhoea present in females?</p>

A

<p>non-specific symptoms - discharge, menstrual irregularity, dysuria.
mostly asymptomatic!</p>

408
Q

<p>what test is used to diagnose chlamydia?</p>

A

<p>nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)</p>

409
Q

<p>what samples can be used to diagnose chlamydia?</p>

A

<p>male - first void urine

| female - endocervical swab, self collected vaginal swab, first void urine.</p>

410
Q

<p>how is chlamydia treated?</p>

A

<p>partner management. full STI panel.

| azithromycin/doxycycline.</p>

411
Q

<p>what test is used to diagnose gonorrhoea?</p>

A

<p>MC&amp;amp;S of male urethra/female endocervix smears.
look for gram-ve diploccoci.

NAAT also used.</p>

412
Q

<p>how is gonorrhoea treated?</p>

A

<p>partner notification.
test for other STIs.
RESISTANCE A BIG PROBLEM - continually check for sensitivity.

single dose treatment - ceftriaxone (IM) w/oral azithromycin.</p>

413
Q

<p>what is the key feature of syphilis?</p>

A

<p>genital ulcers!</p>

414
Q

<p>how is syphilis diagnosed?</p>

A

<p>serology</p>

415
Q

<p>how is syphilis treated?</p>

A

<p>injection of penicillin.

| follow up and partner notification.</p>

416
Q

<p>why is type 2 diabetes a public health issue?</p>

A

<p>it's PREVENTABLE and..
increasing in prevalence, affecting younger age groups.
major inequalities in prevalence and outcomes.
lack of effective global/national/local policy that has influenced trends in population, obesity and sedentary lifestyles.</p>

417
Q

<p>how can we reduce the impact of type 2 diabetes?</p>

A

<p>identifying people at risk of diabetes.
preventing diabetes (primary prevention).
diagnosing diabetes earlier (secondary prevention).
effective management and supporting self-management (tertiary prevention).</p>

418
Q

<p>list some lifestyle/environmental risk factors for diabetes</p>

A

<p>sedentary job, sedentary leisure activities.
diet high in calorie dense foods/low in fruit and veg, pulses and wholegrain.

"obesogenic" environment.</p>

419
Q

<p>what is the "obesogenic environment"?</p>

A

<p>physical environment e.g. TV remote controls, lifts, "car culture".

economic environment e.g. cheap TV watching, expensive fruit and veg.

sociocultural environment e.g. safety fears, family eating patterns.</p>

420
Q

<p>list some mechanisms that maintain being overweight</p>

A

<p>physical/physiological - more weight makes it more difficult to exercise and diet.
psychological - low self-esteem and guilt, comfort eating.
socioeconomic - reduced opportunities, employment, relationships, social mobility.</p>

421
Q

<p>list some risk factors for diabetes that might be recorded in a clinical record</p>

A

<p>age, sex, ethnicity, family history, weight BMI, waist circumference, history of gestational diabetes, hypertension or vascular disease, impaired glucose tolerance/impaired fasting glucose.</p>

422
Q

<p>list the currently available screening tests for pre-diabetes/diabetes (impaired glucose tolerance and impaired fasting glucose)</p>

A

<p>random capillary blood glucose, random venous blood glucose, fasting venous blood glucose, HbA1c, oral glucose tolerance test.</p>

423
Q

<p>what 3 things do effective interventions for preventing diabetes require?</p>

A

<p>1 - sustained increase in physical activity.
2 - sustained change in diet.
3 - sustained weight loss.</p>

424
Q

<p>what are the 3 approaches to help diagnose diabetes earlier?</p>

A

<p>raising awareness of diabetes and possible symptoms in the community.
raising awareness of diabetes and possible symptoms in health professionals.
using clinical records to identify those at risk and using blood tests to screen before symptoms develop.</p>

425
Q

<p>what is the current practice for screening for type 2 diabetes?</p>

A

<p>screen as part of CHD primary and secondary prevention.
screen at hypertension management reviews.
may screen other risk groups.</p>

426
Q

<p>give examples of supporting self-care for diabetes</p>

A

<p>self-monitoring - useful for some if on insulin.
diet - support changes in eating patterns.
exercise - support for increasing physical activity.
drugs - support for taking medication.
education - professionals/expert patients.
peer support - health champions/health trainers.</p>

427
Q

<p>what is the formula from the STI/HIV transmission model?</p>

A
<p>R = reproductive rate.
R = BCD
B = infectivity rate
C = partners over time
D = duration of infection</p>
428
Q

<p>give some examples of primary prevention strategies for STIs</p>

A

<p>STI awareness campaigns to reduce personal risk behaviour - Keys, Cash, Condom.
one to one risk reduction discussion.
vaccination (hep B, HPV).
pre and post exposure prophylaxis.</p>

429
Q

<p>give examples of secondary prevention strategies for STIs</p>

A

<p>easy access to STI/HIV tests/treatment.
partner notification (contact tracing).
targeted screening.</p>

430
Q

<p>what are the targeted screening programmes in place for STIs?</p>

A

<p>antenatal screening for HIV and syphilis.
national chlamydia screening programme.
HIV home-testing - 'it starts with me' Terrence Higgins Trust.</p>

431
Q

<p>give examples of tertiary prevention strategies for STIs</p>

A

<p>anti-retrovirals for HIV.
prophylactic antibiotics for PCP.
acyclovir for suppression of genital herpes.</p>

432
Q

<p>why do we do partner tracing?</p>

A

<p>break the chain of transmission.
prevent re-infection of the index patient.
prevent complications of untreated infection.</p>

433
Q

<p>how is partner tracing carried out?</p>

A

<p>patient referral.
provider referral - via phone, text, letter etc.
conditional or contract referral.</p>

434
Q

<p>what are the challenges of partner notification?</p>

A

<p>hard to reach client group - IVDUs, phoneless/homeless/floor sleepers, social exclusion/criminal activities, chaotic lifestyle/health care low priority.
how do you find their contact details?
how do you trace/notify contacts?
how do you make testing accessible?</p>

435
Q

<p>list 3 diseases obesity puts you at risk of </p>

A
<p>type II diabetes
hypertension
coronary artery disease
stroke
osteoarthritis
obstructive sleep apnoea
carcinoma (breast, endometrium, prostate, colon).</p>
436
Q

<p>why do we eat?</p>

A

<p>internal physiological drive to eat.
feeling that prompts thought of food and motivates food consumption.
external psychological drive to eat.
sometimes even in the absence of hunger (e.g. buffet)</p>

437
Q

<p>what is the function of leptin?</p>

A

<p>expressed in white fat, binds to leptin receptors in hypothalamus.
"switches off" appetite.</p>

438
Q

<p>what is the function of peptide YY?</p>

A

<p>secreted by neuroendocrine cells in ileum, pancreas and colon in response to food.
inhibits gastric motility, reduces appetite</p>

439
Q

<p>what is the function of cholecystokinin?</p>

A

<p>receptors in pyloric sphincter - delays gastric emptying, gall bladder contraction, insulin release.
satiety - via vagus.</p>

440
Q

<p>what is the function of ghrelin?</p>

A

<p>expressed in stomach.

| stimulates GH release and appetite.</p>

441
Q

<p>in what groups of people is obesity more common?</p>

A

<p>people from more deprived areas, older age groups, some black and minority ethnic groups, people with disabilities.</p>

442
Q

<p>what are the general principles of pubic health interventions for obesity?</p>

A

<p>make it easier to do healthy things, make it harder to do unhealthy things.
life-course approach.
not "one size fits all".
prevention better than treatment.</p>

443
Q

<p>give some examples of individual level interventions for obesity</p>

A

<p>encourage/prescribe exercise.
diet - healthy diet. caution on very low kcal diets.
behaviour change strategies - self-monitoring of behaviour and progress, goal setting, relaxation, social support.
commercial/community-based weight management programmes</p>

444
Q

<p>give examples of wider-level interventions for obesity</p>

A

<p>food supply - alter composition/manufacture. increase access/availability of healthy food. society - media campaigns (change4life), change "social norms". environment - transport infrastructure, urban design - cycle lanes etc. reshape public policy - subsidise prices, sugar tax, minimum unit pricing, legislation.</p>

445
Q

<p>what can doctors do to help combat obesity?</p>

A

<p>educate patients, offer brief interventions, signpost to weight management programmes, prescribe exercise, prescribe medications, refer for surgery, lobby for policy/legislative changes.</p>

446
Q

what is an economic evaluation?

A

compares costs and consequences of two (or more) health care interventions

447
Q

why do we need economic evaluation in healthcare?

A

because the markets don’t provide efficient solutions.

need to intervene, making decisions about what to fund given the scarce resources available.

overall aim is to maximise benefits given the resources available.

448
Q

list the 5 types of economic evaluation

A
  1. cost-minimization (CMA)
  2. cost-consequence (CCA)
  3. cost-effectiveness (CEA)
  4. cost-utility (CUA)
  5. cost-benefit (CBA)
449
Q

which type of economic evaluation uses QALYs/DALYs?

A

CUA

450
Q

which type of economic evaluation expresses both costs and consequences in monetary terms?

A

CBA

451
Q

which type of economic evaluation produces a list of individual consequences?

A

CCA

452
Q

what is a CMA and when might it be used?

A

compares only the costs of different interventions, without giving any information on the consequences.

used when outcomes are known/assumed to be the same.
subset of CEA.

453
Q

what is the most frequently used type of economic evaluation? what is this type’s one limitation?

A

CEA - limited in that it only focuses on a single outcome, so can’t compare across programmes that affect different outcomes

454
Q

what two types of ratio can be calculated from any economic evaluation?

A

ACERs - average cost effectiveness ratios

ICERs - incremental cost effectiveness ratios

455
Q

how do you calculate average cost effectiveness ratios (ACERs)?

A

total costs of the intervention / total effects of the intervention

456
Q

how do you calculate incremental cost effectiveness ratios?

A

total costs intervention A / total effects intervention A

minus

total costs intervention B / total effects intervention B

457
Q

what is the basic task of an economic evaluation?

A

identify, measure, value and compare the costs and consequences of the alternatives under consideration

458
Q

explain the difference between marginal and incremental

A

marginal - very small or one unit of change. not realistic in context of healthcare decisions as they work in larger units!

so we use incremental - the added cost/benefit of choosing one option over the other

459
Q

how are outcomes measured in a CEA?

A

natural units or patient/clinician reported outcomes

e.g. life years, cases averted.

can only be used across diseases/interventions where there is a common outcome e.g. kidney transplantation vs heart surgery IF outcome was life years saved

460
Q

how are outcomes measured in a CUA?

A

QALYs or DALYs

461
Q

how are outcomes measured in a CBA?

A

monetary

462
Q

how are outcomes measured in a CMA?

A

outcomes are known to be equal in value for alternatives

463
Q

how are outcomes measured in a CCA?

A

natural unit disaggregated outcomes - health and non-health outcomes reported individually and separately from the costs - results are not combined into a single unit.

464
Q

what two parts make up QALYs and DALYs?

A
  1. quality/disability adjustment - reflects morbidity/QoL

2. length of life - mortality/quantity of life

465
Q

how to the 0-1 scales work for QALYs and for DALYs

A

QALYs - 1 = perfect health, 0 = death or equivalent, <0 = worse than death

DALYs - 1 = death or equivalent, 0 = perfect health

(roughly) QALYs gained = DALYs averted

466
Q

explain the difference in how QALYs and DALYs are calculated

A

QALYs are calculated using generic or condition specific measures completed by the patients, which are then weighted to reflect value on the 0-1 scale. or might be direct valuation on that scale by pts, valuation of vignettes, expert values.

DALYs were developed to assess global burden of disease. disability weights are specific to different conditions.

467
Q

how do you calculate QALYs and QALY gain?

A

utility value (0-1) of health state x current life expectancy

QALY gain will be the difference in QALYs with vs without the intervention

468
Q

how do you calculate DALYs and DALY gain?

A

disability weight x life expectancy at that weight

DALY gain will be the difference in DALYs with vs without the intervention

469
Q

give some advantages of CUA

A
  • single measure of outcome
  • measures quality and length of life
  • incorporate preferences/values
  • utility values so they have interval properties
  • can be used to compare and allocate resources across disease areas
  • easily incorporated into economic modelling
  • can address allocative efficiency if a threshold is known
470
Q

give some disadvantages of CUA

A
  • difficulties in deriving health state preferences
  • may not be sensitive to changes due to treatment
  • may be difficult to link to intermediate public health outcomes
  • limited to HEALTH benefits
471
Q

give a basic overview of CMA

A
  • it’s a comparison based on incremental cost only
  • the outcomes of the alternative treatments being compared are equivalent
  • might have discovered this equivalence through a study, or known in advance (e.g. branded v generic drug)
  • concerned with technical efficiency
472
Q

give a brief overview of cost consequence analysis

A
  • only really a partial analysis
  • costs and benefits of alternative programmes are estimated and listed
  • no attempt at aggregating these into cost effectiveness ratios or utility benefit
473
Q

for the different types of economic evaluation, how do we determine that an intervention is cost effective?

A

CBA - net benefit
CMA - cost savings
CEA/CUA - generate more benefits and cost less. can use ICER if there’s a threshold in place.

474
Q

CBA - net benefit
CMA - cost savings
CEA/CUA - generate more benefits and cost less. can use ICER if there’s a threshold in place.

A

takes measured outcomes for health and non-health things (e.g. life years gained, ability to go to work outcomes), plus costs like resource use (e.g. nurses, drugs etc) and converts them all into monetary terms.

can then identify the net social benefit of the program - i.e. the difference between incremental benefits and incremental costs

if positive, new intervention is cost effective.

technical AND allocative efficiency.

475
Q

give a simplified formula for ICER

A

difference in cost/difference in QALYs

476
Q

what is dominance?

A
  • simple decision rule for determining which intervention is cost effective (when comparing two) or which should be eliminated from consideration (for 2+ interventions)
  • one intervention dominates the other if it is MORE EFFECTIVE and LESS COSTLY
477
Q

explain the cost effectiveness plane

A

4 quadrants.
incremental cost goes up and down vertically, incremental effect horizontal.

bottom right quadrant = new treatment dominates (more effective, less cost)

top left quadrant = existing treatment dominates as new treatment is less effective and more expensive

478
Q

how do we decide which intervention is cost effective when there’s no dominance?

A

use thresholds or QALY league tables (ranks interventions by incremental cost per QALY - NICE uses thresholds)

479
Q

how do you use thresholds to assess cost effectiveness?

A

compare ICER to decision maker’s threshold - if it’s lower, then yay, fund it!

e.g. NICE £20-30k

480
Q

what are the different aspects to be considered in the financing of health care systems?

A
  1. collecting revenue
  2. pooling resources
  3. purchasing goods and services
  4. providing services

may be private or public or a mix

481
Q

describe some different methods of collecting revenue in a health care system

A
  1. general taxation - income tax, VAT etc
  2. payroll tax - specific tax taken from each payslip (or earmarked section of income tax) for healthcare - often called social health insurance contributions
  3. payment at time of use - out of pocket
    - compulsory (taxation) vs voluntary pre-paid (private health insurance)
    - system may have exemptions (e.g. elderly) that don’t have to contribute
482
Q

explain how an integrated approach to healthcare provision works

A
  • saves on costs of selecting providers, drawing up and enforcing contracts
  • this is how the NHS worked prior to the internal market
483
Q
  • saves on costs of selecting providers, drawing up and enforcing contracts
  • this is how the NHS worked prior to the internal market
A
  1. use primary care as gatekeeper

2. integrated approach where purchaser is the provider

484
Q

list the 4 main types of healthcare system

A
  1. private - out of pocket payments and voluntary private insurance
  2. social health insurance - payroll taxation
  3. national health service - general taxation
  4. community health insurance funded by voluntary pre-paid contributions managed by community groups (less common)

most are a bit of 1-3

485
Q

explain how market based (private) healthcare systems work

A
  • insurance is funded by voluntary pre-paid contributions, or healthcare costs paid out of pocket
  • consumer or employer pays premium or pays directly for services
  • premium might be tax deductible

e.g. USA

  • price at point of use may be 0 of co-payments/deductibles
  • private ownership of health sector services
  • no universal coverage - at risk groups excluded and need government cover
486
Q

give some benefits of a market based healthcare system

A
  • efficiency due to profit motive
  • more choice - health care providers may be more responsive to health needs
  • improved quality in response to consumers
  • funding for innovation more readily available
  • less impact from govt changes (in theory)
487
Q

give some limitations of a market based healthcare system

A
  • not efficient due to high costs of admin etc
  • monopoly providers won’t need to be responsive to consumers
  • market failure due to asymmetric info
  • all leads to distorted markets which can’t signal which interventions are efficient
  • equity issues
  • hard to fund public health interventions
  • competition may lead to fragmentation and poor care, or even poor quality (cost cutting to stay in market)
488
Q

explain how a social health insurance healthcare system works

A
  • compulsory contributions if in formal work - fees taken from payroll tax
  • may have extra funds from general taxation / allow private insurance

e.g. germany, france, netherlands, japan, korea

  • managed by non-profits with some independence from govt
  • public and/or private ownership of services
  • aims for universal coverage with varied success
  • unemployed given access to other subsidised schemes
489
Q

give some strengths of social health insurance

A
  • higher levels of funding than general tax based system
  • direct relationship between payment and benefits can act as incentive to consumers to pay into the system
  • can also build in choice of insurer and provider
  • independence from govt
  • equity can be reflected based on progressive contributions
490
Q

give some limitations of social health insurance

A
  • universal coverage not possible without govt intervention
  • problematic in context w/large informal work sector
  • may be no competition and associated benefits
  • might not achieve efficiency
  • can lead to distortions in the labour market
491
Q

explain how a govt funded NHS works

A
  • funded via general taxation, with only nominal fees at point of use
  • may be private insurance available as well

e. g. UK, canada, finland, NZ, australia
- aim for universal coverage on most care with no excl for citizens

492
Q

give some strengths of govt funded health systems

A
  • universal coverage - no excl based on pay or health
  • contributions part of general taxation - progressive and affordable
  • can have lower transaction costs if single system in place for collecting funds and paying out services
  • integrated care and info sharing to improve care
  • transparency and accountability
  • easier to manage large public health initiatives
493
Q

give some limitations of govt funded health systems

A
  • no competition - no advantages in efficiency/choice/quality
  • can be large costs associated with building these into the system
  • subject to reform based on who is in power
  • sufficient funding problems - long waiting times, no access to expensive technologies, low wages
494
Q

what is economic efficiency and how would we assess this when judging a healthcare system

A
  • does it use resources to maximise benefits?
  • are both technical and allocative efficiency being met?
  • what interventions are being used and are they cost effective?
  • have they got guidelines with cost effective treatment options - are they being adhered to?
495
Q

what is equity?

A

= fairness of distribution of benefits and costs

horizontal equity = equal treatment of equals - system should provide in same way for those with equal need.

vertical equity = unequal treatment of unequals - different treatment for differing levels of need.

496
Q

list some preventative measures in spread of communicable disease

A

Good site planning

Provision of basic clinical services

Provision of appropriate shelter

Clean water supply

Sanitation

Mass vaccination against specific diseases

Regular and sufficient food supply

Control of vectors

497
Q

what is the role of surveillance in communicable disease control?

A

“ongoing systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of data in order to plan, implement and evaluate public health intervention”

  • simple, flexible, acceptable and situation specific
498
Q

what are the objectives of a surveillance system in an emergency?

A

1) identify public health priorities
2) monitor severity of an emergency by collecting + analysing mortality and morbidity data
3) detect outbreaks + monitor response
4) monitor trends in incidence + case fatality from major diseases
5) provide info to ministry of health etc to aid health programme planning, implementation and resource mobilization

499
Q

what are the major diseases with epidemic potential in emergent situation?

A
  • cholera
  • meningococcal disease
  • measles
  • shigellosis
  • also (area dependent) - malaria, typhus, yellow fever, prypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis, viral haemorrhagic fever, typhoid, hep A & E
500
Q

what are the 4 key steps in management of communicable disease outbreak?

A

1) preparation
2) detection
3) response
4) evaluation

501
Q

what is involved in preparation for a communicable disease outbreak?

A

Health coordination meetings

Strong surveillance system

Outbreak response plan for each disease

Stocks of iv fluids, antibiotics and vaccines

Plans for isolation wards

Laboratory support

502
Q

what is involved in detection for a communicable disease outbreak?

A

Surveillance system with early warning system for epidemic prone diseases.

Inform ministry of health and WHO in case of outbreaks of specific diseases.

Take appropriate specimens (stool, CSF or serum) for laboratory confirmation.

Include case in the weekly report.

503
Q

what is involved in response for a communicable disease outbreak?

A

Confirm the outbreak

Activate the outbreak control team

Investigate the outbreak

Control the outbreak

504
Q

what is involved in evaluation for a communicable disease outbreak?

A

Assess appropriateness and effectiveness of containment measures.

Assess timeliness of outbreak detection and response.

Change public health policy if indicated.

Write and disseminate outbreak report.