Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

Equity vs Equality

A

Equity - Giving people what they need to achieve equal outcomes

Equality - Giving everyone the same rights, opportunities and resources

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2
Q

Horizontal vs vertical equity

A

Horizontal - Providing equal treatment for people with the same health needs. E.g. 2 towns with similar rates of asthma getting equal access to treatment and resources

Vertical - Different levels of care based on different needs. E.g. patients with more critical needs prioritised over minor illnesses

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3
Q

What are some determinants of health

A

PROGRESS
Place of residence
Race
Occupation
Gender
Religion
Education
Socio-economic
Social capital

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4
Q

What are 2 methods used to assess quality of healthcare

A

Maxwells dimensions of the quality of healthcare (3As, 3Es)

Donabedian’s framework of health service evaluation (structure, process, outcome)

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5
Q

Explain Maxwells dimensions of the quality of healthcare

A

(3As, 3Es)
- Acceptability
- Accessibility
- Appropriateness

  • Effectiveness
  • Efficiency
  • Equity
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6
Q

Donabedian’s framework of health service evaluation

A

(structure, process, outcome)
S - What is the service? (e.g. number of hospitals)
P - How does the service work/what goes on? (e.g. how many patients seen)
O - Outcome (e.g. Number of deaths)

Outcomes (5 Ds):
- Death
- Disease
- Disability
- Discomfort
- Dissatisfaction

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7
Q

What are some issues with assessing health outcomes

A
  • Link between service and outcome can be difficult to confirm
  • Time lag between service and outcome may be long
  • Large sample sizes needed
  • Data problems (CART - Completeness, Accuracy, Relevance, Timeliness)
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8
Q

What is a Health Needs Assessment

A

Systematic method for reviewing the health needs facing a population, leading to agreed priorities and resource allocation that will improve health and reduce inequalities

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9
Q

What are the types of health care need

A

Felt Need - Individual perception of variation from normal health (patient feels ill)

Expressed need - Individual seeks help to overcome variation (patient goes to doc)

Normative need - Professional defines intervention for expressed need (doctor says what they need)

Comparative need - Comparison between severity, range of interventions and cost

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10
Q

What are 3 perspectives of a health needs assessment

A

Epidemiological - Looks at evidence base (incidence/prevalence, availability of services, cost effectiveness etc)

Comparative - Compares services and outcomes received by a population with others (can be spacial or social - areas or ages for example)

Corporate - Asking local population what their needs are (focus groups, public meetings, interviews etc)

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11
Q

Give a pro and con for each type of health needs assessment perspective

A

Epidemiological
- Pro: Uses existing data and provides evidence of incidence/morbidity/mortality
- Con: Quality of data variable, Data collected may not be data required, Does not consider felt needs/opinions

Comparative
- Pro: Quick and cheap if data available. Allows comparison for service effectiveness
- Con: Difficult to find comparable populations, may not be available or high quality

Corporate
- Pro: Based on felt and expressed needs of population. Recognises knowledge and experience of those within the population
- Con: Difficult establishing need from demand. Groups may have vested interests or political agendas

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12
Q

What are 3 resource allocation methods

A

Egalitarian - Provide ALL necessary and required care to everyone. (Equal, but expensive)

Maximising - Act solely evaluated by its consequence (Resources allocated to those most likely to benefit, those who dont make cut get nothing)

Libertarian - Each individual responsible for their own health (Promotes engagement in own healthcare, most diseases not self inflicted)

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13
Q

What are the 3 types of prevention

A

Primary - Prevention of condition before it occurs (e.g. vaccine)
Secondary - Early identification to alter disease course (e.g. screening)
Tertiary - Limit consequences of established disease (e.g. preventing worsening of renal function in CKD)

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14
Q

What are 2 approaches to disease prevention and what is a prevention paradox

A

Population - Prevention approach delivered to everyone to shift risk factor distribution curve (e.g. dietary salt reduction through legislation)

High risk - Identify individuals above a chosen cut off and treat (e.g. Blood pressure screening)

A preventative measure which brings benefit to the population often offers little impact to each participating individual (E.g. if everyone wore seat belt, for every life saved, 400 would never benefit from it)

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15
Q

What is Need, Demand and Supply

A

Need - Ability to benefit from intervention
Demand - What people ask for
Supply - What is provided

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16
Q

What is the purpose of screening

A

The purpose of screening is to identify apparently well individuals who have (or are at risk of developing) a particular disease so that you can have a real impact on the outcome.

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17
Q

What are some downsides to screening

A

Exposure of well individuals to harmful or distressing diagnostic tests

Detection and treatment of sub-clinical disease that would never cause problems

Preventative interventions that may cause harm to individual or population

Anxiety or false assurances

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18
Q

What screening programmes exist in pregnancy

A
  • Infectious diseases in Pregnancy Screening Programme (hep B, syphilis, HIV)
  • Sickle Cell and Thalassaemia Screening
  • Fetal Anomaly Screening Programme (Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome and
    Patau’s syndrome)
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19
Q

What screening programmes exist in newborns

A
  • Newborn and Infant Physical Examination (hearts, eyes, hips, testes)
  • Newborn Hearing Screening Programme (permenant childhood hearing impairment - Done via Otoacoustic Emissions testing and Auditory Brainstem Response as follow up if failed.)
  • Newborn Blood Spot Screening Programme (sickle cell disease, CF, congenital
    hypothyroidism + 6 inherited metabolic disease)
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20
Q

What is the criteria for disease screening

A

Wilson and Jungner

Condition
- Important, natural history understood, disease should have a latent, detectable stage

Program
- Ongoing, cost effective

Test
- Simple, safe, precise, validated
- Distribution of values must be known with clear cut off
- Acceptable to population (not too invasive)
- Agreed policy on further investigation of individuals with positive result and on choices available to them

Treatment
- Effective treatment or intervention for patients identified through early detection, with evidence of better outcomes compared to late treatment
- Agreed policy on who to treat

“In Exam Season, NAP”
- Important disease
- Effective treatmtent
- Simple and Safe
- Natural history known
- Acceptable
- Policy on who/how to treat agreed

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21
Q

What is sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value and negative predictive value

A

Sensitivity - Proportion of those with condition that are correctly identified with positive test

PPV - Those with positive test, who actually had the condition

Specificity - Proportion of those without disease correctly excluded

NPV - Those with negative test, who actually dont have the disease

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22
Q

Lead time vs length time bias

A

Lead time: Early identification doesnt alter outcome, but appears to increase survival as disease was identified earlier than normal.

Length time: Disease that progresses slowly is more likely to be picked up in screening, making it appear that screening lengthens life, even though slow progressing disease always wouldve killed that late, as opposed to rapid progressing.

E.g. Lead time: Diagnosed earlier but person still dies same time from symptoms onset

Length time: E.g. Slow-growing disease, or disease with long latent period. Screening more likely to detect less severe disease, falsely suggesting improved outcome

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23
Q

Define these biases:
- Selection
- Information
- Allocation
- Publication

A

Selection is an error in
- Selection of study participants, allocation of participants to different study groups, causing sample to not be representative of general population
- Including/excluding groups e.g. more health conscious people, or selectively choosing based on sex,age,etc no longer reflecting broader population.

Information bias is
- Error in observer’s recall and reporting. Paricipant, instrument wrongly calibrated. Error in data collection/measurement

Allocation bias is
- Non random assignment of participants to different treatment groups in a study. Can lead to differences between groups confounding the results
- E.g. younger healthier people in one and older and sicker people in another. Younger/healthier always gonna look better

Publication
- When positive or significant results are more likely to be published than not.
- Can lead to overestimations of safety/efficacy of interventions

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24
Q

What is a case control study with pros and cons

A

Retrospective, observational study looking at cause of disease. Compares similar participants with disease to controls without

Pros: Good for rare outcomes, quicker than cohort or intervention studies, investigate multiple exposures

Cons: Difficulties finding controls to match with case, prone to selection and information bias

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25
Q

What is a cross sectional study

A

Retrospective, observational

Collects data form population at a specific point in time (“snapshot”). Prevalence of risk factors and disease itself

Pro:
- Relatively quick and cheap
- Provide data on prevalence at point in time
- Good for surveillance and PH planning

Cons:
- Risk of reverse causality (Did exposure or outcome come first?)
- Cannot measure incidence
- Recall and response bias risk (may miss quick recoveries)

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26
Q

What is a cohort study

A

Prospective longitudinal study looking at separate cohorts with different treatments or exposures

Pros:
- Can follow up a group with rare exposure
- Good for common and multiple outcomes
- Less risk of selection and recall bias

Cons
- Takes a long time
- Large sample size, expensive, time consuming
- People drop out

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27
Q

What is a RCT

A

Prospective study, all participants assigned a random exposure or control intervention

Pros
- Low risk of bias and confounding
- Can infer causality

Cons:
- Time consuming, expensive
- Drop outs
- Inclusion criteria may exclude populations

28
Q

What is an ecological study

A

A study that looks at the prevalence of a disease over time in a population rather than individuals

29
Q

What are odds

A

Odds are used to look at binary outcomes e.g. if a disease occurs, or if it doesn’t. To work out divide the probability of it occurring by the probability of it not occurring.

[Probability the event occurs (p)] / [Probability it doesn’t (1-p)]

30
Q

What is an odds ratio, and how should they be interpreted

A

Comparing the odds of an outcome occurring between 2 groups. E.g. a group with a treatment, and a control group.

Odds ratio = Odds of an event (Group/Condition A) / Odds of an event (Group/Condition B - (Tends to be control))

Ratio = 1
- No change in odds of outcome in either group. Change in condition did not affect odds.

Ratio > 1
- Numerator>denominator. Odds of event happening are higher in numerator than denominator. Often denotes a risk factor.

Ratio < 1
- Denominator>numerator. Odds lower for condition in the numerator. Often protective factor or treatment

31
Q

Explain these types of information biases:
- Measurement
- Observer
- Recall
- Reporting

A

Measurement - Different equipment measuring differently
Observer - Observers expectations influencing reporting
Recall - Past events not recalled correctly
Reporting - Not telling truth due to shame/judgement

32
Q

What is confounding

A

A situation where a factor is associated with the exposure of interest and independently influences outcome, but does not lie on causal pathway.

E.g. Lack of exercise causes weight gain, but many confounding variables also affect weight gain.

33
Q

What is the criteria for causality

A

Bradford Hill - 9 criteria
- Strength - of association
- Dose-response - higher exposure=higher incidence?
- Consistency - Similar results in other studies/populations
- Temporality - Does exposure precede outcome?
- Reversibility - Does reducing exposure reduce risk?
- Biological plausability
- Coherence - Logical consistency with other info
- Analogy - Similarity with other cause-effect relationships
- Specificity - Relationship specific to the outcome of interest. E.g. helmets reduced head injuries, as opposed to accidents going down in general.

34
Q

What is reverse causality

A

E.g. Did stress increase HTN or did increased HTN cause stress.

35
Q

Define epidemiology, incidence, prevalence and person time

A

● Epidemiology: The study of the frequency, determinants and distribution of diseases and health related states in populations in order to prevent and control disease

● Incidence: Number of new cases over a certain time period

● Prevalence: The number of people with a disease at a certain point in time

● Person time: Measure of time at risk for all the patients in the study- therefore if 1,000 patients were studied for 2.5 years, the study would have looked at 2,500 person years

36
Q

Define relative risk, absolute risk, and number needed to treat

A

Relative risk - Risk among exposed group divided by risk in unexposed group - doesn’t take into account baseline risk (e.g. new drug reduces incidence by 50%, may only be from 2 to 1)

Absolute (or attributable) risk - Subtract risk from control group from the exposed group, giving you the excess risk caused by the exposure (e.g. new drug reduces incidence 2 in 1000, down to 1 in 1000, so AR is 1 in 1000)

Number needed to treat - Number of patients to treat for one to benefit. 1/absolute risk. (E.g. AR is 1 in 1000, 1/(1/1000) = 1000 treated to save 1)

37
Q

What are health behaviours

A

Health behaviour - Behaviour aimed at preventing disease e.g. eating healthy

Illness behaviour - Behaviour aiming to seek remedy e.g. going doctors

Sick role behaviour - Behaviour aimed at getting well e.g. taking tablets and resting

38
Q

What 4 factors are perceptions of risk influenced by

A
  1. Lack of personal experience with problem
  2. Belief that it is preventable by personal action
  3. Belief that if it hasn’t happened by now, its not likely to
  4. Belief that the problem is infrequent
39
Q

What are transition points

A

Points at which interventions are thought to be more effective

  • Leaving school
  • Entering workforce
  • Becoming a parent
  • Becoming unemployed
  • Retirement and bereavement
40
Q

What are some models of behaviour change

A
  1. Health belief model (HBM)
  2. Theory of Planned Behaviour (TPB)
  3. Stages of change /transtheoretical model (TTM)
  4. Social norms theory
  5. Motivational interviewing
  6. Social marketing
  7. Nudging (choice architecture)
  8. Financial incentives
41
Q

What is the Health Belief Model

A

Individuals likely to change behaviour if they:

  1. Believe they are susceptible to condition
  2. Believe in serious consequences
  3. Believe action reduces susceptibility
  4. Believe benefits of taking action outweigh the costs
42
Q

According to the Theory of Planned Behaviour, what 3 factors determine an individual’s health behaviour?

A
  1. Their attitude to the behaviour
  2. The subjective/social norm
  3. Their own perceived behavioural control
43
Q

What are the 6 steps of the States of Change (Transtheoretical) Model?

A
  1. Precontemplation - No intention of changing the behaviour
  2. Contemplation - Aware of the problem but no commitment to action
  3. Preparation - Intent on taking action to address problem
  4. Action - Active modification of behaviour
  5. Maintenance - Sustained change, new behaviour starts to replace old
  6. Relapse - Fall back into old patterns
44
Q

What does heroine act on and what does it do to the patient. What are some side effects

A

Acts on opiate receptors

Causes euphoria, miosis, drowsiness

Dpeendance, bad withdrawals, nausea, itching, sweating, constipation, respiratory depression

45
Q

What drug is used for an opiate detox

A

Methadone

Naltrexone or buprenorphine are also used

46
Q

What is crack cocaine and how does withdrawal present

A

Oral/snorting/IV/smoking

Blocks reuptake of serotonin - intense pleasurable sensation

Depletion at secretory neurons - anxiety, panic, adrenaline, wired. Leads to depression, panic, paranoia

47
Q

What is Maslows hierarchy of needs

A

Self fulfilment:
- Self actualisation: Achieving full potential, including creative activities

Psychological
- Esteem: prestige/ accomplishment
- Belongingness/love: Intimate relationships, friends

Basic needs:
- Safety/security
- Physiological: food, water, warmth, rest

Works from bottom up. In order to fulfil self actualisation, basic necessities need to be fulfilled

48
Q

What is used for Alcohol overuse assessment

A

CAGE questions

AUDIT - If score >15, refer for specialist support

Units: Volume (L) x %ABV = Units

49
Q

How can alcohol dependency be gauged

A
  • Withdrawals
  • Cravings
  • Drinking despite negative consequences on physical, mental, social/work life
  • Tolerance - This is said to occur when the individual has to drink larger amount of alcohol to obtain similar effect
  • Primacy (put drinking before other activities)
  • Loss of control
50
Q

Asylum seeker vs refugee

A

AS if seeking refugee status

R once granted, usually for 5 years

51
Q

What do asylum seekers receive

A
  • Vouchers to live off (restricted)
  • NASS support package
  • Access to NHS
  • Not allowed to work, no control over location
52
Q

What are some barriers to life for refugees

A
  • Reluctance of GPs to register them
  • Illiteracy
  • Communication
  • Lack of permanent site
  • Mistrust of professionals
53
Q

Health problems for refugees

A

Health problems for
refugees:
Injury/illness from war/ travelling

Communicable disease

Lack of health screening and immunisation

Malnutrition

Untreated chronic disease

Mental illness

54
Q

Define malnutrition

A

Deficiencies, excesses, imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients. 2 broad groups:

  • Undernutrition - Stunting (low height for age), wasting (low weight for height), micronutrient deficiencies (vitamins, minerals)
  • Overweight, obesity and diet related non communicable diseases (heart disease, stroke, diabetes, cancer)
55
Q

Four dimensions of food insecurity

A
  1. Availability
  2. Access - economic/physical
  3. Utilisation - Opportunity to prepare food
  4. Stability of 3 dimensions over time.
56
Q

Types of error:

A

● Sloth error: being lazy, not bothering to check results/information for accuracy.
● Lack of skill: lack of appropriate skills or teaching in practice
● Communication breakdown: unclear instructions or plans and not
listening to others
● System failure: machine/equipment stopped working
● Human factors: bravado (working beyond means), timidity (not working to competence)
● Judgement failure
● Neglect
● Poor performance
● Misconduct

57
Q

What should be taken into account when classifying the severity of an error

A
  • Intention
  • Action
  • Outcome
  • Context
58
Q

What are the 4 components to consider in regards to a negligence error

A
  1. Was there a duty of care?
  2. Was there a breach in that duty?
  3. Was the patient harmed?
  4. Was the harm due to the breach in care?
59
Q

What rules are questioned in the case of negligence

A

Bolam rule: Would a reasonable doctor do the same

Bolitho rule: Would that be reasonable?

60
Q

What is a never event

A

Never event: Serious, largely preventable patient safety incidents, should not occur if the available preventative measures have been implemented

61
Q

Why is a systems approach preferred to a person approach

A

Person approach - hold one person accountable

Systems approach - Identify there are latent errors in the system

Why is this good: systems approach
eliminates blame culture.

62
Q

What is the swiss cheese model of error

A

When an error occurs due to a multiple failed or absence defences against errors

Holes line up, allowing the error to occur

63
Q

What is the bucket model of error

A

The bucket model of error in healthcare categorizes mistakes into three “buckets”:

Knowledge Errors:
- Gaps in clinical knowledge or expertise.

Rules Errors:
- Failures to follow established protocols or guidelines.

Action Errors:
- Mistakes in performing tasks correctly, even when knowledge and rules are clear.

This model helps identify and address multiple sources of error, emphasizing a systems-based approach to improve patient safety by reducing individual blame and focusing on comprehensive safety measures.

64
Q

What is duty of candour

A

Every healthcare professional must be open and honest with patients when
something that goes wrong with their treatment causes, or has the potential to
cause, harm or distress.

65
Q
A