Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

Normal obs in a neonate

A

Heart rate: 120-160
Resp rate: 30-60
BP: 60/30 - 90/60

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2
Q

Normal obs in infants, school age, adults

A

Infant
HR - 100-160
RR - 30-40

School age
HR - 70-120
RR - 18-30

Adult
HR 60-100
RR 12-20

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3
Q

What is epiglottitis and what is its main cause?

A

Life threatening emergency.

Swelling of epiglottis - can completely block airway in hours, typically caused by Haemophilus influenza B. (incidence decreased due to Hib vaccine)

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4
Q

Presentation of epiglottitis

A

Much more rapid onset than croup
- Fever, sore throat, stridor
- Drooling (painful throat prevents swallowing)
- Tripod position (sat forward with hands on knees - easier to breathe)
- Difficulty/painful swallowing and muffled voice

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5
Q

Investigations of epiglottitis

A

Direct visualisation by senior staff (to not distress patient)

Lateral X ray of neck shows “Thumb sign” (Swollen eipglottis pressing on trachea like a thumb)

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6
Q

Management of epiglottitis

A
  • Immediate Senior Bleep to those able to provide airway support (Endotracheal Tube may be needed from anaesthetics, ENT etc).
  • Oxygen
  • IV Abx and steroids

Do not examine due to risk of airway obstruction

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7
Q

What is croup, and what is its most common cause?

A

Acute URTI causing oedema in the larynx of young children (6m-2y)

Parainfluenza virus most common

(AKA Laryngotracheobronchitis)

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8
Q

Presentation of croup

A

Usually preceded by non specific cough, rhinorrhoea etc.

  • Harsh barking cough, worse at night
  • Stridor (do not examine throat if stridor - may precipitate airway obstruction)
  • Fever
  • IWOB
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9
Q

Give signs of IWOB

A
  • Nasal flaring
  • Intercostal and subcostal recessions
  • Tracheal tug
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Head bobbing
  • Grunting
  • Increased resp rate
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10
Q

Investigations of croup

A
  • Clinical diagnosis (dont examine throat)
  • Posterior-anterior X Ray - steeple sign (subglottic narrowing)
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11
Q

Management of Croup

A

Single oral dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15mg/kg) to all children regardless of severity.

Should resolve in 48 hours.

If not, or if severe, oxygen + Nebulised adrenaline

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12
Q

What cause of Croup goes on to cause epiglottitis

A

Croup caused by diphtheria causes epiglottitis and has a high mortality

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13
Q

Causes of HAP

A

Early (<5 days admission) - S pneumoniae
Late (>5 days admission) - S aureus, gram negative bacteria (P aeruginosa, H influenzae)

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14
Q

Causes of CAP (bacterial, viral and fungal)

A

Bacterial
- S pneumoniae (most common)
- H influenzae
- S aureus

Viral
- Influenza virus
- Parainfluenza
- RSV

Fungal
- Chlamydia trachomatis

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15
Q

Management of pneumonia in children

A
  • Amoxicillin first line.
  • Macrolides used if jirovecii or chlamydia.
  • Co-amoxiclav if influenza
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16
Q

Most commonly affected lobe in pneumonia

A

Right middle/lower due to it being wider and more vertical than left bronchus, facilitating aspirate passage

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17
Q

What is pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

Unicellular eukaryote - opportunistic infection in AIDS. Causes extra pulmonary manifestations (Hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and choroiditis)

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18
Q

What is bronchiolitis? What is its main cause?

A

Acute bronchiolar inflammation usually caused by RSV. Most common LRTI in under 1s.

Maternal IgG from breast feeding usually provides protection against RSV

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19
Q

Risk factors for bronchiolitis

A
  • Formula fed, or breastfed <2 months (less maternal IgG)
  • Smoke exposure
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Siblings in school
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20
Q

How does bronchiolitis present

A
  • Dry cough
  • Increasing breathlessness
  • Wheezing w/ fine inspiratory crackles
  • Difficulties feeding due to dyspnoea
  • Coryzal symptoms (fever, rhinorrhoea, blocked nose, watery eyes)
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21
Q

When should referral be considered in bronchiolitis? And when is it immediately urgent

A
  • Resp rate >60
  • Inadequate intake or clinical dehydration

Urgent
- Apnoea
- Severe resp distress
- Central cyanosis
- O2 sats <92
- Unwell looking

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22
Q

How is bronchiolitis investigated and treated?

A

Clinical diagnosis, nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV

Supportive management
- Humidified oxygen via nasal cannula if O2 <92%
- NG tube feeding
- Suction if excessive upper airway secretions

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23
Q

What is Cystic Fibrosis

A

A phenylalanine deletion on the CFTR (CF transmembrane conductance regulator) gene on chromosome 7, causing secretions to become much thicker. Mainly affects pancreas and lungs.

Autosomal recessive.

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24
Q

How does CF affect the pancreas and the lungs

A

Pancreas - thick pancreatic and biliary secretions block ducts, causing pancreatitis (autodigestion), cholangitis and lack of digestive enzymes in GI tract.

Causes failure to thrive, steatorrhoea and endocrine dysfunction e.g. CF diabetes.

Lungs - Impaired mucociliary clearance. Causes an obstructive pattern and thick immobile secretions = repeat S aureus and P aeruginosa infections.

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25
Q

Earliest presentation of CF in neonates?

A

Meconium ileus - Meconium isnt passed and instead causes a blockage in the intestine.

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26
Q

Clinical features of CF

A
  • Meconium ileus
  • Chronic cough, wheeze and recurrent infections (S aureus, P aeruginosa and H influenza)
  • Nasal polyps and sinusitis
  • Pancreatic insufficiency (steatorrhoea, malabsorption)
  • GORD
  • Clubbing
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27
Q

Investigations of CF

A
  • Newborn guthrie heel prick screening (Immunoreactive trypsinogen)
  • GOLD: Chlorine sweat test. Pilocarpine induces sweating. Sweat has more chlorine (>60mmol/L)
  • Faecal elastase (pancreatic insufficiency)
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28
Q

CF Lifestyle advice

A
  • High calorie, high fat diet
  • No smoking
  • Regular exercise and physio
  • Flu vaccines
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29
Q

Respiratory management of CF

A
  • Chest physio and exercise
  • Bronchodilator (Salbutamol)
  • Mucolytic (Dornose Alfa)
  • Nebulised Tobramycin if pseudomonas
  • Prophylactic flucloxacillin for life
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30
Q

Digestive management of CF and problems caused by it (5)

A
  • High calorie high fat diet
  • Fat soluble vitamins (ADEK)
  • Pancreatic enzyme replacement (Creon)
  • PPI - omeprazole
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid (make bile more soluble)
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31
Q

Complications of CF + life expectancy

A

Life expectancy <40
CF related diabetes
Liver/biliary cirrhosis
Recurrent URTI
Malabsorption
- Delayed puberty
- Osteoporosis
- Infertility

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32
Q

What is otitis media and what is it caused by?

A

Inflammation of the middle ear (between tympanic membrane and oval window).

Most commonly secondary to viral URTI (RSV and rhinovirus) but ear infection is bacterial (S. pneumoniae, Moraxella catharallis, H influenzae, S aureus)

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33
Q

How does Otitis media present and what would you see on examination?

A
  • Earache and tugging on ear
  • Fever, hearing loss, discharge

On examination
- Tympanic membrane is red and bulging outwards. Loss of light reflex
- May be perforation and discharge

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34
Q

Management of Otitis media

A

Usually self limiting (3 days)

Give Abx if:
- >4 days and no improvement
- Systemically unwell
- immunocompromised
- If under 2 and bilateral otitis media
- Discharge or perforation

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35
Q

Define otitis externa with some main risk factors and causative bacteria

A
  • Infection of the outer ear canal.
  • Swimming, hot/humid climate, trauma, use of hearing aids/earplugs
  • P aeruginosa, S aureus.
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36
Q

Presentation and examination of otitis externa

A
  • Ear pain, itching, hearing loss, fullness in ear
  • Tender pinnus/tragus, normal tympanic membrane
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37
Q

What is glue ear? What can unilateral glue ear suggest?

A

Otitis Media with Effusion. Chronic ear infection or eustachian tube dysfunction can cause a build up on viscous inflammatory fluid, causing conductive hearing loss.

Unilateral OME can suggest a middle ear tumour.

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38
Q

How does glue ear normally present and what do you see on examination?

A
  • Conductive hearing loss and aural fullness
  • Dull grey tympanic membrane, lack of light reflex, and a bubble trapped behind tympanic membrane
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39
Q

Management of glue ear

A

Most cases resolve in 3 months. Otherwise, non surgical (hearing aid, autoinflation) or surgical intervention may be needed (Myringotomy and grommet insertion)

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40
Q

What is a grommet, and how is it used in glue ear

A

Negative pressure in middle ear causes fluid accumulation leading to glue ear. A grommet is a small pipe that is placed into the tympanic membrane to keep pressure the same on either side by allowing air to enter the middle ear.

It is inserted after a myringotomy (incision in tympanic membrane to drain fluid in middle ear).

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41
Q

How long do grommets stay in? What is some lifestyle advice to avoid infection

A

6-12 months, but some can be long term.

Avoid water! and regular ENT check ups

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42
Q

Give the two types of deafness with possible causes

A

Conductive - When sound waves not conducted through outer ear to eardrum. Causes: eardrum perforation, fluid in middle ear, earwax buildup.

Sensorineural - Damage to inner ear (cochlea) or to nerve pathways from ear to brain. Causes: Aging, loud sound exposure, Meniere’s disease.

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43
Q

How can the deafnesses be differentiated on examination

A

Conductive
- Rinnes: Bone conduction > Air conduction (negative result)
- Webers: Heard more in the bad ear

Sensorineural
- Rinnes: Air conduction > Bone conduction (Positive - Normal result)
- Webers: Heard more in the good ear

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44
Q

What are the most common causes of deafness

A

Ear wax, otitis media, otitis externa

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45
Q

What is otosclerosis, what are 3 features

A

Autosomal dominant replacement of normal bones in ear with spongy vascular bone.

  • Conductive deafness
  • Tinnitus
  • “Flamingo tinge” to tympanic membrane
  • Family history
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46
Q

What causes a post viral wheeze?

A

Bronchoconstriction in response to inflammation and oedema following an RSV or Rhinovirus infection

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47
Q

Who does post viral wheeze normally affect, and how is it managed

A

Preschoolers <3 years

SABA, nebulised ipratroprium bromide or 5 days oral prednisolone

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48
Q

Define orbital cellulitis with its main cause

A

Infection of fat and muscle cells posterior to orbital septum. Commonly due to URTI from sinuses and is a medical emergency with high mortality.

Caused by S aureus, HiB and streptococcus.

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49
Q

Risk factors for orbital cellulitis

A
  • Childhood (7-12)
  • Previous sinus infection
  • Lack of Hib immunisation
  • Recent eyelid infection
  • Ear/face infection
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50
Q

Presentation of orbital cellulitis

A
  • Swelling/redness of eye
  • Severe ocular pain, worse on movement
  • Reduced acuity
  • Eyelid oedema and ptosis
  • Exophthalmos (AKA Proptosis)
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51
Q

Differentiation between orbital and periorbital cellulitis

A

Periorbital/preseptal does not have reduced visual acuity or pain with eye movement.

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52
Q

Imaging used for orbital cellulitis

A

CT with contrast - look for inflammation of orbital tissue

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53
Q

Management of orbital cellulitis

A

Hospital admission and 7-10 days of IV antibiotics - Cefotaxime

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54
Q

Define preseptal/periorbital cellulitis and who is it more common in

A

Preseptal is when the infection is anterior to orbital septum. Includes eyelids, skin and subcutaneous tissue but does not affect the orbit or its contents.

More common in kids under 21 months

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55
Q

Causes of preseptal cellulitis (causative bacteria)

A
  • S aureus
  • S epidermidis
  • Streptococcus
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56
Q

presentation and management of periorbital cellulitis

A
  • Red swollen surrounding tissue of eye
  • NO visual disturbances or affect to eye muscle.

Managed with oral co amox

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57
Q

What is squint and how is it investigated

A

Eyes pointing different directions
AKA Strabismus
- Misalignment of the visual axes. Can be concominant (imbalance in extraocular muscles - Convergent more common than divergent) or because one is paralysed (rare, due to paralysis of extraocular muscles)

Detected using corneal light reflex to check symmetry of light reflection

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58
Q

How does an innocent (flow) murmur sound?

A
  • Soft
  • Short
  • Systolic
  • Symptomless (no thrill, added sounds, cyanosis, SOB etc)
  • Situational (quieter when standing, only when unwell etc)
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59
Q

Features of a murmur that suggest bad murmur

A
  • Louder than 2/6
  • Diastolic
  • Louder standing
  • Symptoms (failure to thrive, feeding difficulty, cyanosis, SOB)
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60
Q

Where are the pan systolic murmurs heard

A

Mitral regurgitation - Mitral (5th intercostal, mid clavicular)
Tricuspid regurgitation - Tricuspid (5th intercostal, left sternal edge)
Ventricular septal defect - Left lower sternal border

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61
Q

Where are the ejection systolic murmurs heard

A

Aortic stenosis - Aortic (2nd intercostal, right sternal edge)
Pulmonary stenosis - Pulmonary (2nd intercostal left sternal edge)
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy - (4th intercostal left sternal edge - just above tricuspid)

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62
Q

What is patent ductus arteriosus, give risk factors

A

Abnormal connection between descending aorta and pulmonary artery. Usually close with first breaths. Aorta has greater pressure than pulmonary vessels, causes a left to right shunt, causing pulmonary hypertension and right heart strain and RVH. Increased pressure then causes LVH

  • Prematurity
  • Born at high altitude
  • Maternal rubella infection
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63
Q

Murmur and features on examination associated with patent ductus arteriosus

A

Continuous crescendo-decrescendo “machinery” murmur.

  • Left subclavicular thrill
  • Large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
  • Wide pulse pressure
  • Apex heave
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64
Q

Management of PDA

A

Indomethacin or ibuprofen - usually closes the connection in neonates. Given after 1 week, to allow time to close on its own

Monitoring until 1yo

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65
Q

What sound does an atrial septal defect make

A

Mid (AKA ejection) systolic, crescendo-decrescendo murmur loudest at upper left sternal edge. Also has a fixed split heart sound (doesn’t change with breathing)

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66
Q

Pathophysiology of atrial septal defect

A

Blood shunts from left atrium to right. Hence, blood flows to lungs (ACYANOTIC) but increased right heart flow causes right heart overload and strain. Can lead to right heart failure and pulmonary HTN.

Most common congenital heart defect in adults, 50% dead by 50

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67
Q

How can pulmonary HTN cause Eisenmenger syndrome

A

Pulmonary HTN increases so much the pulmonary pressure > systemic pressure. Reverses the L2R shunt and causes it to become R2L, so blood bypasses lungs and becomes cyanotic.

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68
Q

Give the 2 main types of ASD

A

Ostium Secondum (70%, associated with Holt-Oram syndrome (tri-phalangeal thumbs))
Ostium primum (associated with abnormal AV valves)

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69
Q

What are ventricular septal defects

A

Most common congenital heart disease. 50% close spontaneously.
- Congenital VSDs are associated with chromosomal disorders (Down’s, Edwards, Pataus etc) and congenital infections.

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70
Q

How are most VSDs detected

A

In utero (20 wk scan). Post natally, failure to thrive, features of heart failure, pan systolic murmur.

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71
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries

A

Most common CHD at birth. Cyanotic heart disease in which aorta leaves the right ventricle and pulmonary artery leaves left ventricle. (positions switched).

Causes oxygenated blood to flow round the lungs, and deoxygenated blood to flow around the body

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72
Q

Investigation signs of ToGA

A
  • Loud single S2
  • Prominent RV impulse
  • “egg-on-side” appearance on CXR
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73
Q

Management of ToGA

A
  • Maintaining the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins to flow oxygenated blood from the aorta to pulmonary artery for oxygenation
  • Surgical is definitive
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74
Q

4 congenital abnormalities in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

VORP - cause right to left cardiac shunt; blood bypasses lungs.

Ventricular Septal Defect - Blood shunts between ventricles. Oxygenated and deox. mix. Deox more into left than ox into right.

Overriding Aorta - Aorta further right than normal. RV sends deox blood into it

RV Hypertrophy - Due to added resistance of LV, ensures deox blood is shunted to left, rather than the other way.

Pulmonary stenosis - RV outflow obstruction makes it harder for deox blood to reach lungs

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75
Q

What is tetralogy of fallot

A

4 congenital abnormalities causing an increase in deoxygenated blood around the body. Causes cyanosis, and the child may develop hypercyanotic “tet” spells with increased need (crying, feeding etc), causing a “squatting position”, resp distress, syncope, tachypnoea.

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76
Q

Risk factors for TOF

A
  • Family history
  • Diabetic mum
  • Down’s
  • Alcohol in pregnancy
  • Rubella
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77
Q

X ray and ECHO signs of TOF

A

X - Boot shaped heart
Echo - RV hypertrophy

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78
Q

Treatment of TOF and tet spells

A

Surgical repair
Tet spells - Beta blockers, oxygen, morphine, sodium bicarbonate, phenylephrine

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79
Q

What is pulmonary atresia

A

Pulmonary valve doesn’t form properly, meaning blood cant reach lungs. Requires alternative pathway to lungs.

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80
Q

What is Perthes Disease

A

Degenerative hip joint condition affecting 4-8yo. Due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head (femoral epiphyses), followed by revascularisation and reossification over 18-36 months. 5x more common in boys

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81
Q

Signs and timeframe and XRay of Perthes Disease

A
  • Progressive hip pain over weeks without trauma
  • Limp, stiff, reduced hip movement

Early- Widened joint space
Later- Decreased femoral head size/flattening, sclerosis

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82
Q

Management and complications of Perthes

A

Most resolve with conservative management, e.g. bracing to keep femoral head in place. If >6 yo, or severe deformity, surgery.

  • Osteoarthritis
  • Premature fusion of growth plates
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83
Q

What is rheumatic fever and what can repeat exposure cause. What type of hypersensitivity is it

A

Type 2 hypersensitivity to a recent strep pyogenes infection (strep throat - 2-4 weeks after).

Rare in west, causing joint pain and carditis. Repeat exposure can cause fibrosis of valves, causing regurgitations

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84
Q

What can be found histologically on the hears of people with rheumatic fever

A

Aschoff bodies (granulomatous bodies)

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85
Q

Diagnostic criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Revised Jones criteria (JONES-FEAR)

Evidence of recent infection (group A antigen test, positive throat culture, strep antibodies (ASO antibody titre)) + 2 major signs or 1 major 2 minor.

  • Joint arthritis
  • Organ inflammation (carditis+murmur)
  • Nodules under skin (firm, painless)
  • Erythema marginatum (red splodgy rash all over)
  • Sydenham’s chorea
  • Fever
  • ECG (prolonged PR)
  • Athralgia without arthritis
  • Raised ESR/CRP
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86
Q

What valve diseases does rheumatic fever cause

A

Acute - Mitral and aortic regurgitations
Chronic - Mitral stenosis

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87
Q

Management of rheumatic fever

A

Oral penicillin V for 10 days and NSAIDs

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88
Q

Define GORD in infants

A

Commonest cause of vomiting in infancy. Normal to regurgitate feeds but GORD when it starts to cause distress. Caused by a weak sphincter which normally resolves by 1 year

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89
Q

Presentation of GORD in children

A

Signs of distress more than usual post feed vomiting
- Chronic cough
- Hoarse, excessive crying, especially while feeding
- Milky vomits and regurgitation after feeds or after being laid flat
- Poor weight gain

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90
Q

Gastro red flags in children and what they may mean

A
  • Not keeping feeds down +- projectile/forceful vomiting (pyloric stenosis or intestinal obstruction)
  • Bile stained vomit and/or abdominal distention (intestine obstruction)
  • Haematemesis or malaena (peptic ulcer, oesophagitis, varices)
  • Respiratory symptoms (aspiration/infection)
  • Rash, angioedema (milk protein allergy)
  • Apnoeas
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91
Q

Management of GORD in children

A

Usually doesn’t need medical therapy.
- 30 degree head up position during feeds
- Sleep on back
- Ensure not overfeeding, and burp regularly
- Thickened formula
- Gaviscon with feeds if bad

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92
Q

What is Sandifer’s syndrome

A

A rare condition causing brief episodes of abnormal movements usually associated with GORD
- Torticollis: Forceful contraction of the neck muscles causing twisting of the neck
- Dystonia: Abnormal muscle contractions causing twisting movements, arching of the back.

Usually self resolves but important differential is infantile spasms and seizure

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93
Q

How does pyloric stenosis present and what is it caused by? What are associated electrolyte changes

A

Usually presents in 2nd to 4th weeks of life, with
- Projectile vomiting (~30mins after a feed)
- Constipation and hydration
- Palpable mass in upper abdo
- Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemia alkalosis due to persistent vomiting.

Caused by hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus

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94
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed and managed

A

Diagnosed with ultrasound

Managed with Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

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95
Q

What is Coeliac disease

A

A sensitivity to the gluten protein. Repeated exposure leads to villous atrophy causing malabsorption. Children normally present before 3yo. Normally affects small bowel, particularly the jejunum

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96
Q

How does coeliac present

A

Often asymptomatic, low threshold for testing
- Failure to thrive
- Diarrhoea
- Abdominal distention
- Anaemia
- Mouth ulcers

  • Dermatitis herpetiformis - itchy, blistering skin rash that typically appears on the abdomen
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97
Q

Genetic association with coeliac disease

A

HLA-DQ2 (90%)
HLA-DQ8

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98
Q

Investigations for Coeliac

A

Antibodies
- Anti-TTG and Endomysial antibodies (IgA - undetectable if IgA deficiency)
- Anti-DGPs (Deaminated Gliadin Peptides)

Endoscopy and intestinal
- Crypt hyperplasia
- Villous atrophy
- Increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
- Lamina propia infiltration

Gluten free diet trial

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99
Q

Treatment of Coeliac

A

Gluten free diet

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100
Q

Possible complications of untreated coeliac

A
  • Malnutrition/vitamin deficiency
  • Anaemia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Non hodgkins lymphoma
  • Small bowel adenocarcinoma
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101
Q

Disease associations with coeliac

A

Autoimmune
- T1DM
- Thyroid disease
- Autoimmune hepatitis
- PBC/PSC
- Down’s

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102
Q

Causes of childhood constipation

A

Idiopathic or functional - no underlying cause

Secondary:
- Hypothyroidism
- Hirschsprung’s Disease
- Cystic fibrosis
- Hypercalcaemia
- Dehydration
- Low fibre diet
- Medication induced e.g. opiates

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103
Q

How does constipation present in children and what posture might they take?

A
  • Less than 3 stools a week
  • Hard stool difficult to pass
  • Rabbit dropping (bristol stool type 1)
  • Abdominal pain, waxes and wanes with passage of stool. Possibly a palpable abdominal mass
  • Overflow soiling
  • Poor appetite
  • Straining, pain, bleeding

Retentive posturing
- Straight legged
- Tiptoed
- Back arched

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104
Q

Red flag symptoms suggesting underlying disorder in childhood constipation

A
  • Reported from birth or first weeks of life
  • Meconium took >48 hours
  • Ribbon stool pattern
  • Weakness in legs
  • Faltering growth
  • Distension
  • Disclosure or evidence of mistreatment
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105
Q

At what age is faecal incontinence considered pathological?

A

4 years old.

Usually a sign of chronic constipation, causing stretching and desensitisation of the rectum.

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106
Q

Indications of idiopathic constipation

A
  • Start after first few weeks of life, obvious precipitating factors
  • Meconium in less than 48h
  • Growth normal
  • No neurological deficit or problems
  • Changes in diet
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107
Q

Management of constipation in kids, including if there is impactions, or if the child is <6 months

A

Diagnosis of idiopathic can be made if no red flags

  • Movicol Paediatric Plan first line (contains Polyethylene glycol 3350 and electrolytes)
  • Add stimulant laxative if no disimpaction (Senna)
  • Lifestyle advice: High fibre, hydration, exercise, reduce risk factors

If Impaction:
- May need disimpaction regime with high dose of laxatives

<6 months
- Bottle fed: Water between feeds, gentle massaging and bicycling legs
- Breast fed: Unusual to be constipated when breast fed

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108
Q

Non pharmacological management of constipation

A

Encourage toilet visits
- Scheduling visits
- Bowel diary
- Star charts

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109
Q

What are possible causes of diarrhoea and vomiting in children

A
  • Infection (gastroenteritis)
  • IBD/IBS
  • Lactose intolerance
  • Coeliac
  • Cystic fibrosis
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110
Q

Viral causes of gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus

Highly common and contagious

Adenovirus possible but more subacute

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111
Q

What does E coli cause

A

E coli is a normal intestinal bacteria. Spread through contact with contaminated faeces, unwashed salad and contaminated water.

E coli 0157 produces shiga toxin, causing cramps, bloody diarrohea, vomiting. Shiga toxin destroys bloody cells and leads to haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

Abx increase risk of HUS so avoid if E coli.

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112
Q

What does C jejuni cause and how does it look histologically

A

Travellers diarrhoea. Most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide. Gram negative, curved/spiral

Spread through
- Raw/undercooked chicken
- Untreated water
- Unpasteurised milk

Incubation 2-5 days and 3-6 days of symptoms
- Abdominal cramps
- Bloody diarrhoea
- Vomiting and fever

Azithromycin or ciprofloxacin if severe

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113
Q

What does shigella cause, and how is it spread, and how is it treated

A

Spread through faeces contaminated drinking water, swimming pools, food. Incubation 1-2 days, symptoms usually resolve within a week without treatment.

Bloody diarrhoea, cramps, fever.

Shigella produces the shiga toxin that causes HUS.

Azithromycin or ciprofloxacin in severe cases

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114
Q

What does salmonella cause

A

Spread through raw eggs or chicken, or food contaminated with small animal poo. Symptoms usually resolve in a week.

Watery diarrhoea that can be associated with blood or mucus, abdo pain, vomiting. Abx only in severe cases

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115
Q

What are some other infective causes of diarrhoea
(fried rice, pork, parasitic infection)

A

Bacillus Cereus - Fried rice left at room temp. Sx start in 5 hours, resolves in 24 hours. Vomiting first and diarrhoea.

Yersinia Entercolitica - Gram negative bacillus, spread through pork. Affects children. Key symptom is lymphadenopathy. In adults this causes right sided mesenteric lymphadenopathy (mimicking apendicitis)

Giardiasis - Microscopic parasite. Live in small intestine of mammals, releasing cysts in their stools, which contaminate food and water. Treated with metronidazole

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116
Q

Staph aureus toxin

A

Produces enterotoxins on food such as eggs, dairy and meat. Cause intestine inflammation, causing diarrhoea, profuse vomiting, abdo cramps and fever. Sx settle in 12-24 hours

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117
Q

What does chronic diarrhoea in an infant suggest?

A

Cows’ milk intolerance

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118
Q

How does clinical shock due to dehydration present

A
  • Decreased consciousness
  • Cold extremities
  • Pale skin
  • Tachycardia and tachypnoea
  • Weak peripheral pulses
  • Prolonged cap refill
  • Hypotension
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119
Q

Symptoms of hyponatraemic dehydration

A

Jittery movements
Increased muscle tone
Hyperreflexia
Convulsions
Drowsiness/coma

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120
Q

How to rehydrate dehydration

A
  • 50ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution over 4 hours.
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121
Q

What is irritable bowel syndrome, how does it present and how long should symptoms last

A

Abdominal pain or
Bloating or
Change in bowel habit and stool constitution (watery, loose, hard, mucus)
Pain relieved with defecation.

> 6 months.

Diagnosed through exclusion and if
- Altered stool passage
- Abdominal bloating
- Symptoms made worse by eating
- Passage of mucus

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122
Q

Red flags in bloody diarrhoea

A
  • Rectal bleeding
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • FH of bowel or ovarian cancer
  • > 60y onset
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123
Q

Investigations in IBS, including cancers that mimic it (not necessarily in kids)

A
  • FBC (check anaemia)
  • Inflammatory markers
  • Coeliac serology
  • Faecal calprotectin
  • CA125 (ovarian cancer) CA19/9 (pancreatic)

*Ovarian presents similar, just much older. E.g. 50yo woman with bloating, abdo pain. Non specific

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124
Q

Non medical management of IBS

A

Lifestyle advice
- Fluids
- Regular small meals
- Low FODMAP diet
- Limit caffeine, alcohol, fatty foods
- Reduce stress
- Change fibre depending if constipation or diarrhoea

CBT may be used

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125
Q

Medical management of IBS

A
  • Loperamide for diarrhoea (slows down bowel)
  • Linaclotide for constipation (laxative)
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126
Q

Pathophys of appendicitis

A

Appendix sits at end of caecum. Trapped stool or other obstruction causes infection and inflammation, which quickly causes gangrene and rupture. Rupture releases contents into abdomen, causing peritonitis and possibly sepsis.

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127
Q

How does appendicitis present

A
  • Severe central abdominal pain that moves to RIF over time.
  • Tenderness in McBurney’s point (2/3 of the distance from belly button to ASIS (Anterior Superior Iliac Spine))
  • Rovsing’s sign (palpation of left iliac fossa causes pain in RIF)
  • Guarding

Rebound tenderness and percussion tenderness if progression to peritonitis

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128
Q

How is appendicitis diagnosed

A

Usually made clinically:
- Pain moving centrally to RIF
- low grade pyrexia
- minimal vomiting

CT GOLD Standard
Ultrasound in women (rule out ovarian cancer and gynae pathology)

Diagnostic laparoscopy if negative, with appendectomy in same procedure

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129
Q

Key appendicitis differentials

A

Ectopic pregnancy - bHCG will be raised (test to rule out)

Ovarian cysts - Pelvic and IF pain, not always right, can rupture or torsion

Meckels diverticulum - Malformation of distal ileum, usually asymptomatic but can inflame, rupture, bleed, volvulus, intussusception.

Mesenteric adenitis - Inflamed lymph nodes. Often associated with tonsilitis or URTI

Appendix mass - Omentum surrounds and sticks to inflamed appendix. Treated with abx and supportively. Appendectomy once acute infection resolves

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130
Q

Complications of appendectomy

A
  • Bleeding, infection, pain scars
  • Bowel adhesions, causing obstruction
  • Damage to nearby organs
  • Veneous thromboembolism
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131
Q

What is bowel intussusception, what age does it normally affect

A

When a portion of the bowel invaginates into the lumen on the adjacent bowel, most commonly around the ileo-caecal region. This increases bowel size and narrows lumen, causing ostruction.

Usually affects infants 6-24 months. Boys 2x as often

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132
Q

Presentation of intussuception. What does the infant do during attacks?

A
  • Intermittent severe crampy progressive abdo pain
  • Inconsolable crying
  • During attack the infant will raise knees up and turn pale
  • Vomiting
  • Bloodstained stools “red-currant jelly” late sign
  • Sausage shaped mass in upper right quadrant

May present with viral URTI preceding illness

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133
Q

Investigation and management of bowel intussusception

A

Ultrasound is investigation of choice - target like mass

  • Managed with reduction by air insufflation.
  • OR Barium enema
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134
Q

Complications of intussusception

A

Obstruction
Gangrene
Perforation
Death

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135
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum and how does it present. What is a complication it’s known for? What happens to its mucosa?

A

Congenital diverticulum of the small intestine. Remnant of omphalomesenteric duct and contains ectopic ileal, gastric or pancreatic mucosa

Usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal (RLQ) pain, rectal bleeding or intestinal obstruction. It is the biggest cause of painless massive GI bleeding between 1 and 2y.

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136
Q

How is Meckels diverticulum investigated and managed

A

Meckels scan
- 99m Technetium pertechnetate scan, which has an affinity for gastric mucosa

Managed
- Laparoscopic surgery or diverticulectomy.
- Small bowel resection and anastomosis.

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137
Q

Rule of 2s

A

Meckel’s diverticulum
- 2% of population
- 2 inches long
- 2 feet from ileocaecal valve
- 2x as likely in boys
- 2yo when it causes GI bleed
- 2 types of ectopic tissue (pancreatic and gastric (susceptible to ulcer))

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138
Q

What is hirschsprung’s disease

A

Congenital absence of nerve cells of the parasympathetic myenteric plexus are absent in the distal bowel and rectum.

Known as Auerbach’s and Meissner plexuses.

Causes uncontrolled peristalsis, effectively being an obstruction.

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139
Q

Associations of Hirschprung’s

A

3x more common in males
Downs syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Waardenburg syndrome

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140
Q

Presentation of Hirschprung’s

A

Delay in passing meconium
Chronic constipation
Abdo pain/distension
Vomiting
Poor weight gain and failure to thrive

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141
Q

How is Hirschprung’s investigated and managed

A

Abdominal X ray
Rectal biopsy GOLD

Managed
- Rectal washout/bowel irrigation
- Definitive: Surgery to affected colon segment

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142
Q

What is a Hirschprung associated complication

A

Hirschsprung-Associated Enterocolitis

Inflammation and obstruction of the bowel. 2-4 weeks of birth with fever, abdo distension, bloody diarrhoea, features of sepsis.

Can lead to toxic megacolon and perforation

IV Antibiotics, fluid resus, decompression of bowel

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143
Q

What is biliary atresia

A

Blockage or absence of extrahepatic bile duct, causing jaundice due to high conjugated bilirubin, as it is not being excreted in the bowel.

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144
Q

What are the types of biliary atresia

A

Type 1: Proximal ducts present, but common duct obliterated
Type 2: Atresia of the cystic duct, and systic structures found in porta hepatis
Type 3: Atresia of left and right ducts to the level of the porta hepatis (most common)

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145
Q

How does biliary atresia present

A
  • Jaundice extending beyond physiological 2 weeks
  • Dark urine and pale stools
  • Appetite and growth disturbance
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
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146
Q

Investigations for biliary atresia

A
  • Unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin: Bilirubin may or may not be raised, but conjugated will be raised for sure.
  • Ultrasound of biliary tree
  • Percutaneous liver biopsy/intraoperative cholangioscopy
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147
Q

Management and complications of biliary atresia

A

Surgical - Kasai portoenterostomy (attach small intestine to liver opening, allowing bile excretion)

  • Progressive liver disease
  • Cirrhosis
  • HCC

If surgery unsuccessful, may need transplant

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148
Q

What can cause jaundice in the first 24 hours? How about between 2-14 days

A

First 24 always pathological
- Rhesus haemolytic disease
- ABO haemolytic disease
- Hereditary spherocytosis
- G6PD Deficiency

2-14 days
- Usually physiological and associated with breastfeeding

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149
Q

Causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice (>14 days)

A
  • Biliary atresia
  • Hypothyroid
  • Galactosemia
  • UTI
  • Breast milk jaundice
  • Prematurity
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150
Q

What is cows milk protein allergy/intolerance

A

Usually seen in the first 3 months of formula fed children,

can rarely be seen in exclusively breastfed infants.

CMPA for immediate (<2 hours, IgE mediated)
CMPI if mild/moderate and delayed (several days, non IgE mediated)

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151
Q

Features of CMPI/A

A

Occurs in first 3 months of life:
- Regurgitation and vomiting
- Diarrhoea
- Urticaria
- Colic symptoms (crying, irritability)
- Wheeze, chronic cough
- Rarely anaphylaxis

Cows milk protein intolerance has the bloating, wind, diarrhoea and vomiting, but no rash, angio-oedema, sneezing or coughing.

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152
Q

How is CMPA investigated

A

skin prick/patch testing
total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for Cows milk protein

Avoiding cows milk should fully resolve issues

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153
Q

Management of CMPA

A

Avoid cow’s milk

If formula fed
- Extensive hydrolysed formula first line replacement
- If intolerance, can be started on milk ladder

Breast feeding
- Breast feeding mother should avoid dairy products
- May need maternal calcium supplements
- Hydrolysed formula milk when breastfeeding stops until 12 months, for at least 6 months

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154
Q

Possible causes of intestinal obstruction

A
  • Meconium ileus
  • Hirschprung’s disease
  • Oesophageal/duodenal atresia
  • Intussusception
  • Intestinal malrotation
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155
Q

Presentation of intestinal obstruction

A
  • Persistent vomiting
  • Abdominal pain/distention
  • Failure to pass stool/wind
  • Bowel sounds (tinkling early and absent later)
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156
Q

Investigations in bowel obstruction

A

Abdominal X ray
- Dilated loops of bowel proximal to obstruction and collapsed distal.
- Absence of air in rectum

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157
Q

Management of bowel obstruction

A
  • NBM
  • NG Tube and draingage
  • IV fluids
  • Surgical definitive
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158
Q

What is Toddler’s diarrhoea

A

Chronic, non specific diarrhoea, between 1 and 4 years of age. Is a diagnosis of exclusion

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159
Q

Features of toddlers diarrhoea

A

Frequent, poorly formed, offensive stools
Food material easily recognisable

Child is normally well, active and has unimpaired growth. Normal appetite and normal/increased fluid intake.

No positive findings on examination or lab investigations

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160
Q

Management of toddlers diarrhoea

A

Paternal reassurance, avoidance of full strength fruit juice.

Faeces normally becomes firm when child is toilet trained or by 3 years

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161
Q

What is failure to thrive

A

Poor physical growth and development

Faltering growth if they fall in centile spaces (e.g. distance between 75th and 50th centile)

  • 1 if birthweight <9th centile
  • 2 if birthweight 9-91st centile
  • 3 if birthweight above 91st centile
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162
Q

Causes of failure to thrive

A

Inadequate intake
- Maternal absorption
- Neglect
- Poverty
Difficulty feeding
- Poor suck (cerebral palsy)
- Cleft lip/palate
- Pyloric stenosis
Malabsorption
Increased energy requirements
- Hyperthyroid
- Cystic fibrosis, heart disease
- Chronic infection
Inability to process nutrition

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163
Q

How do BMI and Mid parental height suggest inadequate growth

A
  • Height more than 2 centiles below mid parental height centile
  • BMI below 2nd centile
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164
Q

What is Crohn’s disease

A

Chronic inflammation of the entire GI tract (mouth to anus). Terminal ileum and colon most commonly affected. Affects white people more

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165
Q

Risk factors for Crohns

A

Family history
Smoking
White people
OCP
Diet low in fibre
NSAID

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166
Q

Genetic association with Crohns

A

NOD2/CARD15 gene mutation

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167
Q

What is the inflammation pattern of crohns

A

Transmural inflammation with areas of healthy bowel in between known as skip lesions, giving a cobblestone appearance.

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168
Q

Signs and symptoms of Crohns (Think LOWER GI Tract)

A
  • Aphthous mouth ulcers
  • Abdominal tenderness and diarrhoea
  • Perianal lesions- skin tages, fissures, abscesses, ulcers, etc
  • Weight loss and failure to thrive
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169
Q

Extra intestinal manifestations of Crohns

A

Skin
- Perianal/mouth ulcers
- Erythema nodosum
- Pyoderma gangrenosum

MSK
- Arthritis
- Seronegative spondyloarthropathy
- Clubbing

Eyes:
- Conjunctivitis
- Iritis

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170
Q

Investigations in Crohn’s

A

Faecal calprotectin raised

Serology
- pANCA Negative (more in UC)
- ASCA positive (more in Crohns)

Endoscopy + Biopsy
- Endoscopy: Skip lesions, cobblestoning, strictures
- Biopsy: Transmural inflammation, non caseating granulomas, goblet cells present

Small bowel enema
- High sensitivity/specificity for examination of terminal ileum
- Stricturs (Kantor’s string sign)
- Proximal bowel dilation
- Rose thorn ulcers
- Fistulae

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171
Q

Treatment of Crohns

A

Stop smoking, NSAID

Induce remission
- Glucocorticoids: Budesonide (mild), prednisolone (moderate), IV hydrocortisone (very severe)
- Immunosuppressant: Azathioprine or methotrexate
- AntiTNF (infliximab)

Maintain remission:
- Azathioprine

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172
Q

Indications for surgery in crohns

A

80% of patients
- Sticturing terminal ileus disease (ileocaecal resection)
- Perianal fistulae (Diagnosed with MRI, treated surgically and draining seton left in to prevent abscess formation)
- Perianal abscess (Surgical incision and drainage)

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173
Q

Complications of Crohns

A

Small bowel cancer
Colorectal cancer
Osteoporosis
Perianal fissure/fistula/abscess
Anaemia/malnutrition

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174
Q

Define Ulcerative Colitis

A

Relapsing and remitting bowel disease that usually involves rectum and can extend up large bowel, up to ileocaecal valve (does not affect anus).

3X more common in non smokers (smoking protective)

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175
Q

Risk factors for UC

A
  • Family History
  • HLAB27
  • NSAIDs
  • Infections
  • Not smoking
  • Chronic stress/depression
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176
Q

UC Pattern of inflammation, what course does it follow, and how does damage lead to one of its characteristic features

A

Continuous inflammation affecting only the mucosal layers. Usually starts at rectum, working its way proximally, never past the ileocaecal valve.

Relapsing remitting course (flares with new damage, followed by healing)

Regenerating mucosa forms a scar that looks like polyps (pseudopolyps)

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177
Q

Sign of UC

A
  • LLQ and tenesmus
  • Bloody, mucusy diarrhoea
  • Abdominal pain, urgency, weight loss and malnutrition

Extraintestinal manifestations
- Uveitis
- Colorectal cancer
- Erythema nodosum
- Pyoderma gangrenosum
- Arthritis
- PSC!

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178
Q

Investigations in UC

A

Colonoscopy
- Avoid colonoscopy if severe (perforation risk)
- Red, raw mucosa
- Continuous inflammation
- Loss of haustrations

Biopsy
- Pseudopolyps, crypt abscesses, goblet cell depletion, inflammation limited to mucosal layers

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179
Q

What is the most common extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohns and UC

A

Arthritis

PSC and uveitis more common in UC

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180
Q

Classification of UC

A

Mild <4 stools/day, small amount of blood
Moderate 4-6 stools/day, varying amounts of blood
Severe 6+ bloody stools/day

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181
Q

Management of UC

A

Induce remission

Rectal (topical) aminosalicylate - mesalazine/sulfasalazine. Add high dose oral aminosalicylate, and then oral corticosteroid, if extensive or if remission not achieved in 4 weeks.

Maintain remission

Aminosalicylate + azathioprine.

If severe/non responsive,
Colectomy is curative

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182
Q

Complications of UC

A

PSC
Bowel perforation
Toxic megacolon
Colonic adenocarcinoma
Strictures and bowel obstruction

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183
Q

What is fulminant UC and what is its treatment

A

Sudden, acute, severe UC flareup

> 10 bowel movements
Continuous bleeding
Abdominal tenderness
Toxicity
Colonic dilation

Managed in hospital
- IV corticosteroid
- IV ciclosporin or infliximab

Consider colectomy

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184
Q

Predisposing factors to UTI in kids

How can constipation cause it

A
  • Infrequent voiding
  • Hurried micturition
  • Obstruction by full rectum (constipation)
  • Poor hygiene
  • Neuropathic bladder
  • Vesicoureteric reflux - developmental anomaly found in 35% UTI cases
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185
Q

Causative organisms for paediatric UTI

A
  • E coli
  • Proteus
  • Pseudomonas
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186
Q

Presentation of UTI in babies and older children

A

Babies/infants non specific
- Poor feeding, irritability, pain, fever, vomiting, urinary frequency

Older children
- Fever, suprapubic pain, vomiting, dysuria, urinary frequency, incontinence, haematuria
- Temp >38 and loin pain suggest upper UTI (pyelonephritis)

Suspect in kids with unexplained fever, vomiting, abdo pain and/or poor feeding

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187
Q

Investigations of UTI

A

Urine dip - Clean catch best method, but urine collection pads can be used. Avoid other methods. Positive - leukocytes and nitrites.

MSU Culture

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188
Q

Management of UTI in children

A
  • <3 months, refer to paeds
  • > 3 months with upper UTI, admit, 7-10 days of antibiotics
  • > 3 months lower UTI, 3 days trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cefalexin or amoxicillin
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189
Q

How should recurrent and atypical UTI be investigated

A

Recurrent - abdominal USS <6 weeks
Atypical - Abdo USS during illness

Should also be done for children under 6 months

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190
Q

What is vesicoureteric reflux

A

Abnormal backflow of urine from bladder into ureter and kidney. Relatively common abnormality of the urinary tract which predisposes to UTIs.

Ureters are displaced laterally, entering at a more perpendicular fashion.

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191
Q

How can VUR present

A
  • Antenatal period scan: Hydronephrosis
  • Recurrent childhood UTI
  • Reflux nephropathy (chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR)
  • Renal scarring may produce more renin, causing hypertension
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192
Q

How is VUR diagnosed

A

Micturating cytourethorgram

May use a DMSA (Dimercaptosuccinic Acid) scan to assess for damage, check for scarring.

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193
Q

Indications for MCUG

A

Atypical or recurrent UTIs in kids under 6 months
Family history
Dilatation of the ureter on US
VUR

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194
Q

Grading of VUR

A

1 - Reflux into ureter, no dilation
2 - Reflux into renal pelvis, no dilation
3 - Mild/moderate dilation of the ureter, renal pelvis and calyces
4 - Dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces and moderate ureteral tortuosity
5 - Gross dilation and tortuosity

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195
Q

What is haemolytic uraemic syndrome? What triad is associated with it?

A

Thrombosis in the small vessels around the body, usually triggered by Shiga toxins, either from E coli 0157 or Shigella. Abx used to treat these also increase risk

Usually follows a gastroenteritis bout and has the classic triad:
- Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (destruction of RBC due to thromboses in small vessels causing shearing)
- AKI
- Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

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196
Q

Presentation of HUS

A

Diarrhoea is first symptom, turns bloody in 3 days. One week after onset, HUS symptoms start
- Fever
- Abdo pain
- Lethargy and pallor
- Bruising
- Haematuria
- Jaundice
- Confusion
- Reduced urine output

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197
Q

Management of HUS

A

Supportive treatment
- Hypovolaemia (IV fluids)
- Hypertension
- Severe anaemia and renal failure (blood transfusion and haemodialysis)

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198
Q

What is a paediatric inguinal hernia, what predisposes to it, and how is it treated?

A

Commoner in males as testis migrate from posterior abdominal wall through inguinal canal, but can occur in females if a patent processus vaginalis.

Children presenting in first few months of life at risk of strangulation

Treated with herniotomy without implantation of mesh.

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199
Q

What are umbilical hernias in children

A

Relatively common and may be found on newborn exam.

Resolve on their own by 3 years

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200
Q

What are the 3 main complications of hernias

A

Incarceration - Cannot be reduced back into position
Obstruction - Hernia causes a blockage
Strangulation - Cuts off blood supply causing ischaemia. Surgical emergency.

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201
Q

What is Marasmus

A

Severe malnutrition caused by an overall deficiency in caloric intake (protein and energy). Usually kids under 5, in developing countries.

Results in extreme fat and muscle loss, causing stunted growth, severe weight loss and immunodeficiency.

Common in areas of famine or severe malnutrition

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202
Q

Presentation of Marasmus

A
  • Severe weight loss
  • Emaciation
  • Prominent bones, sunken eyes, thin, dry skin
  • Irritability
  • Growth failure
  • Weakness
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203
Q

Treatment of Marasmus

A

Rehydration
Gradual intro of calories
Micronutrient supplementation
Long term nutritional rehabilitation and infection management

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204
Q

Complications of Marasmus

A
  • Immunodeficiency leading to severe infection
  • Electrolyte imbalance (hypokalaemia)
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Growth retardation
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205
Q

What is Kwashiorkor

A

Severe protein malnutrition that occurs despite sufficient caloric intake. Often areas where diet is primarily starchy or carbohydrate heavy with little protein.

Children often appear puffy due to generalised oedema (hypoalbuminaemia), especially in legs and face.

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206
Q

Presentation of Kwashiorkor

A
  • Oedema (legs, face)
  • Moon face
  • Depigmented hair
  • Enlarged, fatty liver
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207
Q

Risk factors for kwashiorkor

A

Sudden breastfeeding cessation
Poverty
Insufficient protein, high carbohydrate
Food insecurity/scarcity

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208
Q

Complications of kwashiorkor

A

High mortality if untreated
Heart failure (due to severe oedema)
Sepsis
Severe diarrhoea
Refeeding syndrome if not treated properly

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209
Q

Management of kwashiorkor

A

Electrolyte and fluid imbalance correction (slow, prevent osmotic demyelination syndrome)
Gradual nutritional rehabilitation, protein rich etc

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210
Q

What is neonatal hepatitis syndrome

A

Inflammation of liver of newborns usually in first months of life. Can be due to viral infection, genetic disorders, or may be idiopathic.

Inflammation leads to impaired bile flow, damaging liver

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211
Q

Causes of neonatal hepatitis syndrome

A

Viral (cytomegalovirus, hepatitis B)
Metabolic disease (galactosemia, tyrosinaemia)
Genetic disorders (alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency)

Family history and prematurity are RF

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212
Q

How does neonatal hepatitis syndrome present

A
  • Jaundice >first 2 weeks, prolonged
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Dark urine and pale stools
  • Poor feeding, failure to thrive
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213
Q

Management of NH Syndrome

A
  • Treatment of underlying cause
  • Fat soluble vitamin supplementation (ADEK)
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid to aid bile flow
  • Liver transplant if severe
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214
Q

What is enuresis?

A

Majority of children are day and night continent by 3/4. If there is an involuntary discharge of urine by day or night, in a child aged 5 years or older, absent of congenital or acquired defects of the nervous system or urinary tract, this is enuresis.

Primary - Never achieved continence
Secondary - Child has been dry for at least 6 months

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215
Q

Causes of primary enuresis

A
  • Overactive bladder - small volume urination prevents development of bladder capacity
  • Fluid intake, (esp. fizzy drinks, juice, caffeine) have diuretic effect
  • Failure to wake during deep sleep
  • Psychological distress
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216
Q

How is primary enuresis investigated and managed

A
  • 2 week fluid intake, toileting diary
  • Try to establish underlying cause

Management
Lifestyle:
- Reduced fluid intake in evenings
- Pass urine before bed
- Positive reinforcement - avoid blame/shame/punishment (star chart for positive behaviours, e.g. going to the toilet before bed)
- Enuresis alarms (requires long term training (>3 months) some may find this a burden/frustrating)

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217
Q

What are some secondary causes of enuresis

A
  • UTI
  • Constipation (bowel pressing on bladder)
  • T1DM
  • New psychological problem (bullying, stress, etc)
  • Maltreatment
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218
Q

What is diurnal enuresis

A

Daytime wetting, dry at night. More frequent in girls.

  • Urge incontinence: overactive bladder, little warning before leak
  • Stress incontinence: leakage during physical exertion, cough, laugh

Other causes;
- UTI
- Psychosocial
- Constipation

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219
Q

Pharmacological treatment of enuresis

A

Desmopressin - Vasopressin analogue (anti-diuretic). Reduces volume of urine produced by kidneys, taken at night, for nocturnal enuresis. Can be used shorter term

Oxybutinin - Anticholinergic, reduces contractility of bladder. Helpful in overactive bladder case

Imipramine - Tricyclic antidepressant. Helps somehow

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220
Q

What is Phimosis, what are its causes

A

The inability for the foreskin to be retracted over the glans. Can be physiological or pathological (caused by scarring or inflammation)

Physiological: Normal, 90% resolve by age 3.

Pathological: Much less common, but caused by infection, scarring, trauma (forceful retraction), chronic inflammation/infections. Fibrosis of the preputial ring prevents retraction. Recurrent infection/inflammation may arise from poor hygiene

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221
Q

Symptoms of phimosis

A
  • Difficulty retracting foreskin
  • Painful urination
  • Ballooning of foreskin during urination
  • Recurrent infections and balanitis
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222
Q

How should Phimosis be investigated and treated

A

urinalysis, swabs, clinical examination.

Treatment
- Expectant if under 2
- Topical steroids
- Circumcision or preputioplasty if severe or recurrent
- Good hygiene!

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223
Q

Complications of phimosis

A

Recurrent balanitis
Urinary retention

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224
Q

What is Hypospadias

A

A condition where the Urethral meatus (opening) is placed on ventral (under) side of the penis, towards scrotum. Also epispadias, where the meatus is displaced to dorsal (top) side of the penis

Significant risk factor: Family history

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225
Q

What is hypospadias normally characterised by

A
  • Ventral urethral meatus
  • Hooded prepuce
  • Chordee (head of penis bends down - ventrally)
  • Urethral meatus may open more proximally (Can be subcoronal, midshaft or penoscrotal)
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226
Q

What is hypospadias sometimes associated with?

A
  • Cryptorchidism (undescended testes)
  • Inguinal hernia
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227
Q

Management of hypospadias

A

May not need treatment if very distal.

Surgery normally after 4 months (usually 12 months of age). Essential child NOT circumcised before surgery, as foreskin can be used in procedure.

Surgery aims to correct meatus position and straighten penis

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228
Q

What is Wilms’ tumour

A

Wilms’ nephroblastoma, one of the most common childhood malignancies (typically presents under 5). Kidney tumour

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229
Q

What is Wilms’ tumour associated with

A
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
  • WAGR syndrome (Wilms, Aniridia, Genitourinary malformations, mental Retardation)
  • hemihypertrophy
  • loss of function mutation on WT1 gene on C11
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230
Q

Features of Wilms tumours

A

Child under 5 presenting with abdomen mass.

  • Painless haematuria
  • Flank pain
  • Unilateral
  • HTN
  • Lethargy, weight loss
  • 20% metastasise to lung
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231
Q

How should a Wilms tumour be investigated and managed

A
  • Unexplained enlarged abdo mass = arrange paediatric review within 48 hours
  • USS to visualise kidneys, CT/MRI for staging, biopsy for definitive diagnosis
  • Managed with nephrectomy of affected kidney
  • Chemo and radio may be needed
  • Prognosis good - 80% cure
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232
Q

What is Nephritic syndrome, what how does it presents and what are its most common causes in kids

A

Inflammation of nephrons of kidneys.
Presents with:
- Haematuria
- Oliguria (low urine)
- Hypertension (Na+ retention)
- Oedema

  • Slight proteinuria BUT <3.5g of protein in 24hrs (Anymore = nephrotic syndrome)

Most common causes of nephritis in kids are post-strep glomerulonephritis and IgA nephropathy

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233
Q

What is Post strep glomerulonephritis

A

Kidney inflammation that occurs 1-3 weeks after a B haemolytic strep infection (e.g. tonsilitis caused by Strep pyogenes, or skin infection). IgG/IgM/C3 Immune complexes deposit in glomerular basement membrane causing activation of complement and inflammation

Type 3 hypersensitivity.

Strep pyogenes is beta haemolytic, group A

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234
Q

Presentation of post strep glomerulonephritis

A

Recent (1-3 weeks) tonsilitis, or skin infection (6 weeks)

Proteinura and microscopic Haematuria
Oliguria
Peripheral oedema
Hypertension

Signs of recent infection/sore throat history!

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235
Q

Investigations of PSG

A

Throat swab & culture - Strep pyogenes
Anti-streptolysin O titre - increased
Low C3

Renal biopsy results:
- Acute, diffuse, proliferative glomerulonephritis
- Endothelial proliferation with neutrophils
- Immunofluorescence: “Starry sky” appearance caused by IgG, IgM, C3 deposits
- Electron microscopy: subepithelial humps caused by lumpy immune complex deposits

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236
Q

Differences between PSG and IgA nephropathy

A

PSG
- 1-2 weeks post URTI
- Proteinuria>haematuria (which is microscopic)
- Low complement

IgA
- 1-2 days post URTI
- Young males
- Macroscopic haematuria

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237
Q

Management and complications of PSG

A

No specific
(Penicillin for underlying strep, Furosemide for oedema/HTN, use ACEi if very severe)

  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Hypertensive encephalopathy
  • Severe AKI
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238
Q

Define IgA nephropathy, and what conditions is it associated with

A

AKA Berger’s disease. IgA deposition in mesangium of kidney (Bowman’s capsule)

Commonest cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. Presents as macroscopic haematuria in young people (teenagers, YA).

Associated with Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (IgA vasculitis), coeliac, alcoholic cirrhosis

Type 3 hypersensitivity (antigen-antibody complex deposition)

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239
Q

Presentation of IgA nephropathy

A

Young male, recurrent macroscopic haematuria, starting 1-2 days post recent URTI.

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240
Q

Management of IgA nephropathy

A

Isolated haematuria, or minimal proteinuria <1000mg/day - no treatment, just follow up.

ACE inhibitors main treatment

Corticosteroids if failure to respond or low eGFR.

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241
Q

Investigations of IgA nephropathy

A

Urinalysis - Macroscopic haematuria
C3/C4 - NORMAL

Renal biopsy
- Immunoflourescence: IgA and C3
- Histology: Mesangial proliferation, immune complexes

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242
Q

Complications of IgA nephropathy

A

Worse than post-strep

25% develop end stage renal failure
High proteinuria (>2g/day), hypertension, smoking mark poor prognosis

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243
Q

Brief overview of goodpastures, what type of hypersensitivity is it

A

Type 2 hypersensitivity

AKA Anti-GBM (Glomerular Basement membrane) disease, autoantibodies attack type 4 collagen in glomerular and alveolar membrane causing haematuria and haemoptysis (bloody cough first)

Anti-GBM and p-ANCA positive

Treated with corticosteroids

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244
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome

A

Glomerular BM is damaged and becomes permeable to protein.

Triad
- Proteinuria (>3.5g/24hrs)
- Hypoalbuminaemia (lost in urine)
- Peripheral oedema (loss of oncotic pressure)

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245
Q

Other 4 features of nephrotic syndrome

A

Hyperlipidaemia (causing frothy urine)
Hypercoagulability (frothy urine)
Hypertension
Susceptibility to infection (Loss of Ig in urine)

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246
Q

Most common causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

Most common cause in children: Minimal change disease.

Also due to intrinsic kidney disease:
- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
- Membranoproliferative glomerulonephropathy

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247
Q

What is minimal change disease

A

Most common nephrotic in children, usually presents before 8. Aetiology not usually clear.

Associated with Hodgkins lymphoma, leukaemia and NSAID use.

Causes oedema, proteinuria and low albumin, in a usually otherwise well child.

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248
Q

How is minimal change disease investigated

A

Urinalysis - Small molecular weight proteins and hyaline casts

Renal biopsy
- Light microscopy - normal
- Electron microscopy - fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes

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249
Q

Minimal change disease management

A

Oral corticosteroids

1/3 have just 1 episode
1/3 have infrequent relapse
1/3 have frequent relapse which stop before adulthood.

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250
Q

Risk factors for pyelonephritis

A

Female
Structural urological abnormalities
Vesico-ureteric reflux
Diabetes

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251
Q

What is pyelonephritis and whats its causes

A

Inflammation of kidney from bacterial infection. Affects renal pelvis and parenchyma. Usually ascending.

Main cause is E Coli (gram negative, anaerobic rod)

Klebsiella
Enterococcus
E coli
Pseudomonas
Staph aureus

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252
Q

Main symptoms of pyelonephritis

A

Triad
- Fever
- Loin/back pain
- Pyuria (WBC/pus in urine)

Otherwise;
- Dysuria
- Frequency
- Suprapubic discomfort
- Systemic illness
- Renal angle tenderness on exam
- Haematuria

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253
Q

Investigations of pyelonephritis

A

Examination
- Tender loin
- Renal angle tenderness
Urine dip - nitrites, leukocytes, blood
Midstream urine MC+S
CT for imaging

254
Q

Management of pyelonephritis

A

IV fluids and broad spectrum antibiotics (Co-Amox 14 days)

Drain obstructed kidney and remove catheter

255
Q

If pyelonephritis not responding to treatment, what should you suspect

A
  • Renal abscess
  • Kidney stone, obstructing catheter
256
Q

Complications of pyelonephritis

A

Renal abscess
Progression to chronic - which can progress to end stage renal failure. DMSA Scan used in recurrent pyelonephritis to assess for renal damage.

257
Q

What is eczema

A

Atopic condition (Atopic dermatitis) causing inflammation of skin.

Occurs mostly over flexor surfaces (Inside of elbows and knees) but also:
- Face
- Neck
- Trunk
- (Face and neck in infants, flexor surfaces and creases of face and neck mostly in older kids)

258
Q

Pathophys and presentation of eczema

What exacerbates eczema in seb derm cases

A
  • Skin barrier defect provides entrance for irritants, microbes, allergens, creating an immune response. Most common pathogen is staph aureus. Malassezia also exacerbates eczema in seborrheic dermatitis cases
  • Red, itchy rash affecting trunk, face, neck, flexor surfaces, and extensor surfaces in young kids
259
Q

How is eczema managed

A

Flare treatment and maintenance

Pharmacological:
- Simple emollients to start if mild
- Topical corticosteroids (hydrocortisone mild, clobetasone butyrate if moderate etc.)
- Topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus)
- Oral antihistamine

Non pharm:
- Avoid triggers
- Wet wrap therapy for severe or chronic flares

260
Q

What is eczema herpeticum

A

Viral skin infection in patients with eczema caused by herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) or Varicella Zoster virus (VZV). Can be associated with a coldsore in the patient or close contact.

Causes widespread, painful, vesicular rash with systemic symptoms (fever, lethargy, irritability, reduced oral intake and lymphadenopathy). Leaks pus and leave punched out ulcers with red base after vescicles burst.

261
Q

Management and complications of eczema herpeticum

A

Viral swabs used to confirm, but treat first.

Treated with oral aciclovir unless severe (then IV).

Can be life threatening if immunocompromised. Bacterial superinfection can occur

262
Q

What is psoriasis

A

Chronic autoimmune recurrent psoriatic skin lesions. Genetic association.

Worsened by stress, environmental factors, irritation, infection, etc.

Sunlight generally improves symptoms

263
Q

Subtypes of psoriasis

A

Plaque: Most common, well-demarcated red, scaly patches on extensor surfaces, sacrum and scalp.

Guttate: Most common in kids. Small raised papules on trunk and limbs. Can turn into plaques. “Teardrop lesions”. Often triggered by Strep throat infection, often resolves within 3-4 months

Pustular: Rare, pustules under erythematous skin, leaks non infective pus, occurs on palms and soles. Treated as medical emergency

264
Q

Presentation of psoriasis

A

Plaque most common, Guttate most in kids, often triggered by throat infection.

Dry, flaky, scaly, faintly erythematous skin lesions, that appear in raised and rough plaques. Most commonly in extensor surfaces of elbows and knees and on scalp.

Signs suggesting it:
- Auspitz: small points of bleeding, when plaques scraped off
- Koebner: psoriatic lesions to areas of skin affected by trauma
- Residual pigmentation: After lesions resolve.

265
Q

How does psoriasis affect the hands

A

Causes psoriatic arthritis with nail pitting, discolouration, thickening and onycholysis (seperation from nail bed). Subungal hyperkeratosis and loss of nail also.

Psoratic arthritis in 10-20%.

266
Q

Comorbidities associated with psoriasis

A
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Metabolic syndrome
  • CVD
  • VTE
  • Obesity, HTN, T2DM, Hyperlipidaemia
  • Psychological distress (Anxiety, depression)
267
Q

Exacerbating factors of psoriasis and which drugs trigger it

A
  • Trauma
  • Alcohol
  • Withdrawal of steroids
  • Drugs: BB, lithium, antimalarials, NSAIDs, ACEi, infliximab
  • Strep infection (Guttate)
268
Q

Management of Psoriasis

A

Regular emollients. Stepwise approach:
- 1: Potent corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue (applied seperately! - Day/Night), for up to 4 weeks.
- 2: Vit D analogue twice daily
- 3: Potent corticosteroid twice daily OR Coal tar preparation 1/2 times a day.

269
Q

Secondary care management of psoriasis

A

Phototherapy:
- Narrowband UV B light 3 times a week
- Adverse effects: Skin ageing, squamous cell cancer

Systemic:
- Oral methotrexate if joint disease.
- Ciclosporin

270
Q

How is scalp psoriasis managed

A

Potent topical corticosteroids once daily for 4 weeks.

Shampoo or mousse can be used, with/without a topical agent before application of the corticosteroids

271
Q

Face, flexural and genital psoriasis management

A
  • Mild/moderate potency corticosteroid 1/2 times a day for 2 weeks
272
Q

Considerations using topical corticosteroids

A
  • Topical steroids can cause skin atrophy, striae, rebound symptoms, hence using on flexural surfaces less.
  • Topical used over large area can cause systemic symptoms
  • 4 week break before next round of topical steroids
  • No longer than 8 weeks, potent steroids for no less than 4
273
Q

Give vit D analogue examples, what do they do

A

Calcipotriol (dovonex), calcitriol etc

Decrease cell division and differentiation, reducing epidermal proliferation. Can be used long term, and do not stain or smell like coal. Reduce scale and plaque thickness but not redness.

Avoid in pregnancy! (risk of hypercalcaemia, or calcium deposition in fetal kidneys)

274
Q

What is Acne Vulgaris

A

Inflammation and obstruction of the pilosebaceous follicle with keratin plugs which results in comedones, inflammation and pustules. Sebaceous glands produce sebum, increased production traps keratin. Comodones can be open (blackheads) or closed

Associated with colonisation of anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes

Typically affects the face, neck and upper trunk.

275
Q

Presentation of acne, including the types of scarring

A

Comedones
- Dilated sebaceous follicle, white if closed, black if open

Inflammatory lesions when follicle bursts, causing papules (small lumps) and pustules (small lumps with yellow pus)

Inflammation may be excessive causing nodules and cysts

Scarring can be:
- Hypertrophic (lumps)
- Ice-pick (indentations)
- Hyperpigmentation (darkening of skin)

276
Q

What is unique about drug induced acne and what is acne fulminans

A

Drug Induced - monomorphic

Fulminans - Includes systemic upset, requires hospital admission and responds to oral steroids

277
Q

Classifications of acne

A

Mild: Open and closed comedones, may have sparse inflammation

Moderate: Widespread non inflammatory lesions and nuerous papules and macules

Severe: Extensive inflammation, nodules, pitting, scarring.

278
Q

Management of mild/moderate/severe acne

A

Mild - 12 week topical combination therapy
- Topical adapalene and topical benzoyl peroxide
- Topical tretinoin and topical clindamycin
- Topical benzoyl peroxide and topical clindamycin

Moderate/severe - 12 week course of Topical adapalene and benzoyl peroxide with oral lymecycline or doxycycline

279
Q

Important considerations with oral abx in acne

A
  • Tetracyclines contraindicated in women breastfeeding, pregnant or in children under 12. Erythromycin can be used
  • Topical retinoid or oral benzoyl peroxide should be co prescribed with oral abx to prevent resistance
  • Using antibiotics for >6 months may cause gram negative folliculitis, treat with oral trimethoprim
280
Q

Which of these should not be used to treat acne

A

monotherapy with topical or oral antibiotic, or just both together.

Due to risk of resistance

281
Q

Other possible treatment options for acne

A

Oral retinoids (TERATOGENIC)
COCP in women
Co-cyprindiol (most effective COCP but has higher risk of VTE)

Isotretinoin - reduces sebum production. Strongly teratogenic, must be on reliable contraception and stop for a month before pregnancy

282
Q

Side effects of tretinoin

A
  • Dry skin/lips
  • Photosensitivity
  • Depression, anxiety, aggression, suicidal ideation
  • Rarely, stevens johnsons syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis
283
Q

What is Stevens-Johnsons syndrome

A

Stevens Johnsons and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis are the same thing, just on less than 10% and more than 10% of the body respectively.

A disproportional immune response causes epidermal necrosis

284
Q

Causes of SJS/TEN

A

Medications
- Anti-epileptics (lamotrigine, carbamazepine,phenytoin)
- Penicillin
- NSAID
- Allopurinol

Infections
- HSV
- Mycoplasma Pneumonia
- Cytomegalovirus
- HIV

Certain HLA

285
Q

Presentation with rash description of SJS

A

Starts non specific (fever, cough, sore throat, itchy skin) followed by purple rash that spreads and blisters.

Skin starts to break away and shed, leaving raw tissue underneath. Can affect mucuous membranes of mouth and eyes, causing inflammation, blistering and shedding.

Rash is maculopapular with target lesions, that can turn into vescicles or bullae.
- Nikolsky sign positive in erythematous areas (blisters and erosions appear with gentle rubbing)
- Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms

286
Q

Management of SJS/TEN

A

Medical emergency, immediate admission.

Treated with steroids, immunoglobulins and immunosuppression

287
Q

What is allergic rhinitis

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity (IgE mediated)

Nose becomes sensitised to triggers such as dust mites, grass, tree, pollens, pets, mould. Can be:
- Seasonal
- Perennial (year round)
- Occupational

288
Q

Features of allergic rhinits

A

Sneezing
Bilateral clear nasal discharge
Post nasal drip and itching
Itchy red swollen eyes

289
Q

Management of allergic rhinits

A
  • Allergen avoidance, hoovering, washing pillow cases.
  • Oral/intranasal antihistamines, followed by oral/intranasal corticosteroids if ineffective.

Nasal decongestants can be used but only short term. Using them long term can cause tachyphylaxis (need more for same effect), and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa upon withdrawal

290
Q

What are urticaria

A

Pale, pink, raised skin that are itchy. Allergic response. Mast cell and histamine mediated.

Can be acute (allergic, virus, bites, contact) or chronic
- Chronic idiopathic - no known cause
- Chronic inducible (sunlight, temperature, exercise, stress)
- Autoimmune (associated with autoimmune disease - antibodies target mast cells)

Managed with antihistamines, e.g. Fexofenadine. Sedating antihistamine (chlorphenamine) can be used at night

Short course of oral can be used

291
Q

How can allergies be tested

A
  • Skin prick testing
  • Patch testing
  • RAST testing (measures IgE)

(check for sensitivity, not allergy)

  • Food challenge testing (requires specialised unit)
292
Q

Drug causes of hives

A

Penicillin
Aspirin
NSAID
Opiates

293
Q

What is anaphylaxis

A

Severe allergic response characterised by sudden and rapidly progression Airway Breathing and Circulation symptoms

Airway - Swelling of throat and tongue, causing hoarse voice and stridor
Breathing - Wheeze and dyspnoea
Circulation - Hypotension, tachycardia

Also causes
- Urticaria/angioedema
- Itching
- Collapse

294
Q

Management of anaphylaxis

A

IMMEDIATE IM adrenaline 500mcg on the anterolateral aspect of the thigh (>12yo). Can be repeated every 5 mins if necessary.

A - Secure airway
B - Provide oxygen/salbutamol
C - IV fluid bolus
D - Lie flat to improve cerebral perfusion
E - Look for flushing, urticaria, angioedema

295
Q

How does adrenaline dose change with age

A

<6 months 100-150mcg
6 months-6 years - 150mcg
6-12 years - 300mcg
12+ - 500mcg

296
Q

How can anaphylaxis be measured post event

A

All children should be monitored, in case of biphasic reaction.

Serum mast cell tryptase should be measured to confirm diagnosis within 6 hours.

Provide adrenaline auto injector, with BLS training.

297
Q

Causes of nappy rash

A

Irritant dermatitis - Most common cause, due to urinary ammonia and faceces, does not affect creases

Candida dermatitis - Erythematous rash which involves flexures and has satellite lesions

Seb Dermatitis - Erythematous rash with flakes, that may also affect scalp

Psoriasis - Red scaly rash that may be present elsewhere

298
Q

Treatment of nappy rash

A

Disposable nappies
Expose to air
Apply barrier cream or steroid cream

Candidal nappy rash treated with topical imidazole

299
Q

What is kawasaki disease and whats the main complication to be scared of

A

It is a systemic, medium sized vessel vasculitis. Typically under 5.

Big complication is a coronary artery aneurysm

300
Q

Clinical features of kawasaki disease

A

Persistent high fever (>39C) for more than 5 days. Key findings:
- Widespread erythematous maculopapular rash and desquamation (skin peeling) on palms and soles
- Strawberry tongue
- Red, cracked lips
- Cervical lymphadenopathy
- Bilateral conjunctivitis

301
Q

Phases of kawasaki disease

A

Acute: Child most unwell with fever, rash and lymphadenopathy 1-2 weeks

Subacute: acute settle, desquamation and athralgia occurr and risk of coronary artery aneurysms. Lasts 2-4 weeks.

Convalescent stage: Symptoms settle and bloods return to normal. 2-4 weeks

302
Q

Management of Kawasaki disease

A

High dose aspirin to reduce thrombosis risk

IV immunoglobulins to reduce risk of coronary artery aneurysm

303
Q

Why is aspirin normally avoided in children

A

Reyes syndrome risk

304
Q

What is measles

A

RNA paramyxovirus, spread by aerosol transmission. Has a 10-14 day incubation period and patient is infective from prodrome until 4 days after rash start.

MMR Vaccine vaccinates against it

305
Q

How does measles present

A

Prodrome
- Irritable, conjunctivitis, fever

Followed by main features
- Koplik spots (white spots (grains of salt) on the buccal mucosa) appear before the rash
- Rash (Starts behind ears (3-5 days post fever) and spreads to whole body. Discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent. Desquamation typically spares palms and soles)

306
Q

Management of measles

A

Measles is self resolving 7-10 days post symptoms. Isolate until 4 days post symptom resolution

Notifiable disease to UKHSA

Vaccinate contacts within 72 hours

307
Q

Complications of measles

A

Otitis media - most common
Pneumonia - most common cause of death
Encephalitis
Diarrhoea
Meningitis
Hearing loss
Vision loss
Death

308
Q

What is Scarlet Fever

A

Erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci (Strep pyogenes), more common in kids 2-6 years, peak at 4.

Presents as widespread rough “sandpaper” rash following a Group A Strep infection (e.g. tonsilitis).

Spread via respiratory droplets

309
Q

Presentation of Scarlet Fever

A

2-4 day incubation period and presents with:
- Fever 24-48 hours
- Strawberry tongue
- Rash (fine punctuate erythema “pinhead” which appears first on torso and spreads, sparing palms and soles. Red-pink, blotchy, macular rash with rough “sandpaper” skin. Desquamination occurs)
- Cervical lymphadenopathy
- Flushed face, sore throat, malaise.

310
Q

How is scarlet fever diagnosed and managed?

A
  • Throat swab to confirm
  • Oral Penicillin V for 10 days
  • Azithromycin alternative
  • Notifiable disease
  • Can return 24 hours after commencing antibiotics
311
Q

Complications of scarlet fever

A

Usually mild but:
- Otitis Media (most common)
- Rheumatic fever
- Post streptococcus glomerulonephritis

are possible

312
Q

What is Rubella

A

Rubella virus (part of togavirus family), highly contagious and spread via respiratory droplets. 2 week incubation. Infective from 7 days before symptoms to 4 days after rash

Presents with erythematous macular rash and is notifiable.

Children stay off school 5 days, avoid pregnant women

313
Q

Presentation of rubella

A

Prodrome: low grade fever

Rash: Erythematous maculopapular rash initially on face before spreading to rest of body.

Lymphadenopathy: Suboccipital and postauricular

314
Q

How is rubella managed

A

Supportive.

Notify UKHSA

Children stay off school and avoid pregnant women

315
Q

What can rubella in pregnancy cause

A

Congenital rubella syndrome
Damage most likely in 8-10 weeks
- Senisorineural deafness
- Congenital cataracts
- Congenital heart defects
- Cerebral palsy
- Hepatosplenomegaly
- Microphthalmia

(Deafness, blindness and congenital heart disease is a triad for this condition)

316
Q

How is rubella in pregnancy diagnosed and managed

A
  • IgM antibodies raised in mother.
  • Hard to distinguish from parovirus B19 clinically, so worth checking both.

Management
- Inform local health protection unit
- Advise non immunised to avoid rubella contacts,

317
Q

What is Parvovirus B19

A

DNA virus which causes a range of clinical presentations.

Can go anywhere from mild fever to full rash.

Rash presents bright red on both cheeks (AKA Slapped cheek syndrome) before reticular rash appears over trunk and limbs. (rarely palms/soles)

As rash appears, child is no longer infectious.

318
Q

A child with previously diagnosed parvorvirus B19 notices a recurrence of the rash. What can cause this and how is it treated?

A

Warmth (warm bath, heat, fever) can trigger rash again, but treatment and school exclusion are unnecessary

319
Q

What patients are at particular risk from Parvovirus B19

A
  • Immunocompromised
  • Pregnant
  • Haematological conditions (sickle cell, thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemoly
    tic anaemia)
320
Q

What does parvovirus B19 (slapped cheek syndrome) cause in pregnancy and how is it investigated

A
  • Miscarriage/fetal death
  • Severe fetal anaemia
  • Hydrops fetalis
  • Maternal pre-eclampsia like syndrome (hydrops fetalis, placental oedema, oedema in mother)

IgM to parvovirus (acute infection, last 4 weeks)
IgG parvovirus long term immunity
Rubella antibodies (Important differential!)

321
Q

What is roseola infantum and what are its main complications

A

Caused by HHV-6 and HHV-7 (human herpes virus)

High fever for 3-5 days, then disappears suddenly. Rash then appears for 1-2 days. Mild erythematous macular rash across legs, arms, trunk and face, not itchy.

Main complication is febrile convultions due to high temperature

If immunocompromised, GBS, myocarditis, thrombocytopaenia.

322
Q

What is Zika caused by and what does it cause

A

Zika virus, spread by Aedes mosquito. Can be spread sexually.

Congenital Zika
- Microcephaly
- Fetal growth restriction
- Vetriculomegaly, cerebellar atrophy.

323
Q

What does varicella zoster virus and when are vaccines indicated

A
  • Primary: Chicken pox, indicated in healthcare workers and contacts of immunocompromised patients.
  • Reactivation in dorsal root ganglion (usually at later age): shingles, indicated in those 70-79

Both are live attenuated vaccines

324
Q

Chicken pox presentation and management

A
  • Initial fever
  • Itchy rash that starts on face/trunk, then spreads. Starts as small red macules, that rapidly progress to vescicles (blisters) that rupture and crust over, forming scabs. Happens over 5 days. Most infectious 1-2 days before rash, and infective until all scabs have crusted over.
  • Mild systemic symptoms (malaise, fatigue)
325
Q

Management of Chicken pox

A
  • Trim nails, keep cool
  • Calamine lotion
  • Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulin (VZIG) if immunocompromised or newborn with peripartum exposure.
326
Q

Complications of chicken pox

A

Bacterial infection of the lesions - can be small cellulitis or necrotising fasciitis caused by invasive group A streptococcal infection. NSAIDs increase risk of NF!!

Rare
- Pneumonia
- Encephalitis
- Shingles/Ramsay Hunt syndrome (reactivation of virus)

327
Q

What does healed varicella pneumonia leave behind

A

Calcific miliary opacities. Dense, with no uniform size.

328
Q

At what age of gestation is chicken pox most concerning, how is it treated

A

<20 weeks. Causes congenital varicella syndrome (developmental problems)

Treated with Varciella Zoster immunoglobulins. If infection around time of delivery, use IVIG and aciclovir

329
Q

Who can benefit most from Chicken pox post exposure prophylaxis

A
  • Significant exposure to varicella zoster or herpes zoster
  • Clinical condition increasing risk of severity (immunosuppression, neonates, pregnant)
  • No antibodies to varicella virus

VZIG

330
Q

What is the risk of chicken pox in pregnancy

A

Fetal varicella syndrome (+5x risk of pneumonitis to mother)

  • Risk is 1% <20 weeks g, unlikely >28 weeks
  • Causes skin scarring, microphthalmia, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, learning disabilities

Other risks include
- Shingles in infancy (dorsal root ganglion reactivation)
- Severe neonatal varicella

331
Q

When should PEP be given in chicken pox in pregnancy

A

Oral aciclovir between day 7-14 post exposure.

332
Q

What is diphtheria

A

Infection that causes fever, sore throat with grey pseudomembrane and lymphadenopathy. Vaccinated against in 6-in-1 vaccine (toxin vaccine).

Caused by Cornyebacterium diphtheriae which releases an exotoxin encoded by B-prophage, which inhibits protein synthesis by catalysing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (EF2)

333
Q

Presentation of diphtheria

A

Recent visitor to Eastern Europe/Russia/Asia

  • Sore throat with “diphtheric membrane” - grey, pseudomembrane on posterior pharyngeal wall.
  • Bulky cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Neuritis
  • Can cause heart block

Diphtheric membrane on tonsils caused by necrotic mucosal cells. Systemic distribution can cause necrosis of myocardial, neural and renal tissue, causing heart block, neuritis, peripheral neuropathy (motor loss) etc

334
Q

How is diphtheria investigated and managed? What agar is used for culture?

A
  • Throat swab and culture - using tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media
  • Managed with IM penicillin or diphtheria antitoxin
335
Q

What is Scalded Skin Syndrome

A

A skin infection caused by Staph aureus in which exfoliative toxins (ETA and ETB) cause widespread erythema and blistering, which burst, causing desquamation that resemble burns.

The lesions do not affect mucosal surfaces, distinguishing it from TEN.

336
Q

Presentation of Scalded skin syndrome

A

Usually under 5

  • May be preceded by fever, irritability, malaise
  • Widespread erythema followed by large, flaccid blisters that easily rupture. These then peel (desquamation), resembling a scald.
  • Mucosal surfaces are UNAFFECTED
337
Q

Management and complications of SSS

A

Managed with wound care (cleaning) supportive (hydration/fluid balance), and antibiotics (fluclox or vancomycin if MRSA)

  • Secondary infection (cellulitis/pneumonia) or dehydration and electrolyte imbalance are main concerns.
338
Q

What is whooping cough and what is significant about the vaccine

A

Gram negative bacterial infection Bortadella pertussis, typically presenting in children. Sometimes called 100 day cough

Notifiable disease.

Child has severe coughing fits in which child struggles to take air between coughs.

Vaccinated against but vaccine nor immunisation provide lifelong protection

339
Q

Phases of whooping cough presentation

A

Catarrhal phase - 2 weeks (extremely contagious)
- low grade symptoms, fever, rhinorrhoea, cough.

Paroxysmal phase 1-6 weeks
- Uninterrupted “whooping” coughing that can result in vomiting, collapsed lung, broken ribs and apnoea
- O2 decrease can cause death
- Inspiratory whoop
- Usually worse at night or after feeding

Convalescent phase (healing)
- Cough subsides over weeks/months

340
Q

Diagnostic criteria and investigations of whooping cough

A

Unexplained acute cough >14 days + at least:
- Paroxysmal cough (Paroxysmal = in attacks/episodes)
- Inspiratory whoop
- Post-tussive vomiting
- Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in children

Investigated for using
- Nasal swab culture for Bodetella pertussis
- PCR and serology

341
Q

Management of whooping cough

A

Notifiable, notify UKHSA

Oral macrolide (azithromycin, clarithromycin etc) if cough started within 21 days.

Oral prophylaxis for household contacts

School exclusion until 48 hours after starting antibiotics.

342
Q

Possible complications of whooping cough

A

Symptoms usually resolve in 8 weeks but severe cough can cause damage:

Bronchiectasis!
Pneumonia
Rib fractures
Encephalopathy/Seziures

343
Q

What is Polio

A

Poliomyelitis, caused by poliovirus. Spread through faeco-oral and respiratory routes.

Mainly affects kids’ nervous systems, can lead to paralysis.

Attacks the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, causing flaccid paralysis.

Usually vaccinated in 6in1 (inactivated vaccine), so rare here but endemic in afghanistan, pakistan and nigeria.

344
Q

Main concern with polio

A

Respiratory failure
Long term post polio syndrome, causing muscle weakness and fatigue for decades
Permanent paralysis

345
Q

What is meningitis

A

Inflammation of the leptomeninges due to an infection of the meninges and CSF.

Usually due to N Meningitidis (gram negative diplococci) or Strep pnuemoniae

Notifiable disease

346
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis <3 months, <6 years and >6 years

A

Neonatal (<3 months)
- Group B strep (acquired from mother at birth - more common in low birth weight or prolonged ROM)
- E coli
- Listeria monocytogenes (avoid cheese)

<6 years
- N mengitidis
- S pneumoniae
- H influenza

> 6 years
- N meningitidis
- S pneumoniae

347
Q

Why is group B strep more common in neonatal meningitis

A

Group B strep lives harmlessly on maternal vagina

348
Q

How do bacterial causes of meningitis present on film

A
  • N meningitidis - Gram negative diplococci (Only one that causes non blanching rash!)
  • S pneumoniae/Group B strep - Gram positive cocci in chains
  • Listeria monocytogenes - Gram positive bacillus
349
Q

Viral causes of meningitis

A
  • Coxsackie virus
  • HSV
  • Varicella Zoster virus
  • Mumps
350
Q

Usual signs and symptoms of meningitis (including special tests)

A

Signs
- Neck stiffness, headache, photophobia (avoids light)
- Phonophobia (avoid sound)
- Papilloedema (optic disk swelling)
- Non blanching rash (N meningitidis only)

Pyrexia, reduced GCS

Kernig sign
- Patient lie on back, flex leg and knee to 90. Straightening leg causes neck pain

Brudzinski sign
- Lie patient on back and passively flex neck to chest, this will cause involuntary hip and knee flexion

351
Q

How does Meningitis present in children/neonates

A

Can be non specific
- Hypotonia
- Poor feeding
- Lethargy
- Hypothermia
- BULGING FONTANELLE

Lumbar puncture if under 1 year with fever/unwellness

352
Q

What does a non blanching rash suggest

A

Meningococcal septicaemia

353
Q

Investigations in meningitis

A

Blood culture 1st line

Lumbar puncture GOLD

Bacterial
- Cloudy/yellow
- High protein
- Low glucose
- High WCC (neutrophil)

Viral
- Clear appearance
- Protein small raise/normal
- Normal glucose
- WCC high (Lymphocytes)

354
Q

Contraindications to lumbar puncture

A

Meningococcal septicaemia (non blanching rash presence)

Any sign of raised ICP
- Focal neurological signs
- Papilloedema
- Significant bulging of the fontanelle
- Disseminated intravascular coagulation
- Cerebral herniation

355
Q

Management of meningitis in neonates

A

<3 months -
IV Cefotaxime and amoxicillin

> 3 months - IV Ceftriaxone

+ Dexamethasone ONLY if > 3 months and bacterial

Prophylaxis of contacts:
- Ciprofloxacin
(Contacts within 7 days prior to onset at greatest risk)

356
Q

Management of meningitis in non neonates

A

Primary care
- Immediate IM Benzylpenicillin if meningococcal suspected

Hospital
- Cefotaxime or Ceftriaxone + Dexamethasone
- Add amoxicllin if <3 or >50 to cover Listeria
- Contact tracing and Ciprofloxacin for contacts

357
Q

Complications of meningitis

What’s it called when a meningococcal patient gets adrenal insufficiency

A
  • Hearing loss! (sensorineural)
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Seizures, memory loss, cognitive impairment
  • Infection can cause sepsis and intracerebral abscess
  • Pressure can cause brain herniation and hydrocephalus

Meningococcal can lead to Waterhouse-Friedrichsen (adrenal insufficiency secondary to adrenal haemorrhage)

358
Q

What is encephalitis and what is its main cause in children

A

Inflammation of the brain, commonly due to viral cause.

Common cause in children is HSV-1 from cold sores but can also be due to HSV-2 from genital herpes, contracted at birth (common in neonates)

Herpes simplex encephalitis characteristically affects temporal lobes

359
Q

What are some other causes of encephalitis

A

VZV (Chickenpox)
Cytomegalovirus (immunodeficiency)
EBV (infectious mononucleosis, enterovirus, adenovirus, influenza)

360
Q

How does encephalitis present

A
  • Altered concsciousness/cognition
  • Unusual behaviour
  • Acute onset neurological symptoms (e.g. aphasia)
  • Acute focal seizures
  • Fever
361
Q

Investigations in encephalitis

A
  • LP: CSF clear with lymphocytosis and elevated protein
  • PCR for HSV
  • CT: Medial temporal and inferior lateral changes.
  • MRI preferred imaging

EEG shows localised discharges at 2Hz

362
Q

Management of encephalitis

A

IV Aciclovir

363
Q

What is impetigo

A

Superficial skin infection usually caused by Staph aureus or Strep pyogenes. Contagious, and children should be kept off school during disease course.

Can be primary or secondary to eczema, scabies, insect bites

Gold crust characteristic of Staph infection

364
Q

Pathophys of impetigo

A

Can be bullous or non bullous - bullous is always staph aureus.

Non bullous
- Typically around nose/mouth, where exudate from golden crust. Does not cause systemic symptoms

Bullous
- Staph aureus produce epidermolytic toxins that break down proteins that hold skin together, forming 1-2cm vescicles that burst forming a golden crust. These eventually heal without scarring.

Bullous more common in neonates and children. When severe and widespread, it is called staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.

365
Q

Presentation of impetigo

A
  • “Golden Crust” from skin lesions typically found around mouth
  • Very contagious - stay off school!
  • Spread through itching of scabs
366
Q

Management of impetigo

A

Non-bullous/not systemically unwell - hydrogen peroxide 1% cream

Bullous
- Topical fusidic acid
- Topical mupriocin if fusidic resistant

Extensive disease
- Oral flucloxacillin

Keep off school until lesions are crusted/healed or 48 hours post starting Abx

367
Q

Complications of impetigo

A

Usually responds well to treatment but if not;
- Cellulitis
- Sepsis
- Scarring
- Post strep glomerulonephritis
- Staph scalded skin syndrome
- Scarlet fever

368
Q

What is toxic shock syndrome, how does it present and how is it managed

A

Caused by a severe systemic reaction to staphylococcal exotoxin TSST-1 superantigen toxin.

Previously caused by infected tampons

Presents with fever (>39C), hypotension, diffuse erythematous rash with desquamation, and involvement of 3 or more organ systems.

Managed with IV fluids and antibiotics

369
Q

How is HIV transmitted (3)

A
  • Unprotected sexual activity
  • Mother to child (breastfeeding, pregnancy, birth - can be any stage)
  • Mucous membrane, blood, open wound exposure to infected blood or body fluid. (Sharing needles, needle stick, blood splash in eye).
370
Q

How can vertical transmission of HIV be prevented

A

Delivery
- Vaginal if viral load <50/ml
- C Section if >50/ml
- Give IV Zidovudine during C section if unknown or >10,000

Prophylaxis
- Low risk (<50/ml in mother) zidovudine for 4 weeks
- High risk (>50/ml) zidovudine, lamivudine and nevirapine 4 weeks

Do not breastfeed, regardless of load

371
Q

How can HIV be tested for, and when should it be tested

A

HIV antibody screen - Checks for antibodies against HIV. Can be false positive, due to antibodies crossing placenta. Can also take 3 months post exposure to develop antibodies.

HIV viral load - Tests directly for viruses in blood.

Test when
- Babies to HIV positive parents
- When immunodeficiency suspected (e.g. recurrent illness)
- Risk factors such as IV drug use, needle stick or sexually active

372
Q

What can be given for prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii Pneumonia (PCP)

A

Co-trimoxazole

373
Q

Goals of treatment in HIV

A

Antiretroviral therapy
- Normal CD4 count
- Undetectable viral load

374
Q

What is the BCG vaccine

A

Vaccine that offers limited protection against TB. Given to high risk infants. Greenbook advises:
- All infants in areas of UK with > incidence of TB than 40/100,000
- All infants with parent or grandparent from country with TB
- Previously unvacinated, tuberculin negative contacts of TB patients.

Contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis, also prevents leprosy.

Must have tuberculin test first.

375
Q

What are febrile convulsions

A

A type of seizure that occur in children with a high fever. Typically occur between 6 months and 5 years, not associated with pathology.

Usually found in early viral illness, last less than 5 mins and mostly tonic-clonic

376
Q

What are the types of febrile convulsion

A

Simple - <15 mins, generalised, no reccurence within 24 hours (may be solitary), complete recovery within an hour.

Complex - 15-30 mins, focal seizure, repeat within 24 hours

Febrile status epilepticus - >30 mins

377
Q

How is febrile convulsions diagnosed

A

Diagnosis of exclusion.
- Epilepsy
- Meningitis
- Space occupying lesions
- Syncopal episode
- Electrolyte abnormalities

Typical presentation
- 18 month child with 2-5 min tonic clonic seizure during a high fever. Due to underlying viral illness or bacterial such as tonsilitis. Source of infection should be investigated.

378
Q

Management of febrile convulsions

A

First seizure or complex - admit to paediatrics.

Ongoing - can be managed at home, but call ambulance if >5 mins.
- If recurrent, benzodiazepine (rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam) can be used.

379
Q

What is the prognosis of someone with febrile convulsions, with risk factors for further seizures

A

1/3 will have further febrile convulsions.

Increased risk of epilepsy (2.5% for no risk, much higher if all or complex convulsions)

Risk factors for further seizures:
- Age <18 months
- Fever <39
- Shorter duration of fever before seizure
- Family history

380
Q

If a child in the first few months of life has brief spasms, what is this condition?

A

Infantile spasms (West Syndrome)
- Brief spasms in the first few months of life
- Key features: Flexion of head, trunk, limb and extension of arms (Salaams attacks), which last 1-2 seconds and can repeat up to 50 times a day.
- Usually secondary to a serious neurological condition (tuberous sclerosis, encephalitis, birth asphyxia)
- Vigabatrin and prednisolone are possible treatments.
- Poor prognosis - 1/3 dead by 25

381
Q

What is Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

A

Possible extension of infantile spasms, affecting 1-5 yo.

  • Presents with atypical absences, falls and jerks. Atonic seizures
  • 90% of patients will have moderate-severe mental handicaps
  • Ketogenic diet may help
382
Q

What are some associated symptoms with epileptic seizures

A
  • LoC
  • Aura
  • Post ictal state (confusion, irritability, fatigue, difficulty speaking)
  • Incontinence
  • Tongue biting
  • Sweating, salivation, abnormal, groaning
383
Q

Management of tonic-clonic seizures

A

First line: Sodium valproate (only in males as teratogenic - neurodevelopmental delay)
In females: Lamotrigine

384
Q

What are focal seizures, how do they present and how are they treated

A

Seizures affecting 1 area of the brain.

Usually start in temporal lobe, affecting hearing, speech, memory and emotions.

Simple: Remains conscious, no post ictal symptoms and memory of event
Complex: LOC. Impaired memory, post ictal.

Treated with:
First line: carbamazepine or lamotrigine
Second line: sodium valproate or levetiracetam

(reverse of tonic-clonic!)

385
Q

Give the 4 lobes, and explain how a focal seizure affecting them presents

A

Temporal: Aura - Rising epigastric sensation. Followed by dejavu, hallucinations, automatisms (doing weird things on autopilot).

Frontal (motor) - Head/leg movments, posturing, jacksonian march (start in certain muscle group and move). Post ictal weakness

Parietal (sensory) - paraesthesia

Occipital (visual) - Floaters/flashes etc

386
Q

What are absence seizures and how are they managed

A

Typically in children. Goes blank, stares into space and abruptly back to normal. Last 10-20 seconds.

Managed with Sodium valproate or ethosuximide

387
Q

What are atonic and myoclonic seizures, and what conditions do they suggest?

A

Atonic - drop attacks (lapses in muscle tone) - <3 mins - suggest lennox-gastaut syndrome

Myoclonic - Brief muscle contractions (sudden jump). Patient usually awake. Happen as part of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

388
Q

What are grand mal and petit mal seizures

A

Grand - Tonic clonic

Petit - Typical absence

389
Q

How should seizures be investigated, indications for imaging, and random investigation thats high for some reason

A

Investigate in kids after second simple seizure

EEG and brain MRI

MRI considered when:
- First seizure under 2 years
- Focal seizures
- No response to medication

Also do
- ECG (exclude cardiac cause)
- Electrolytes
- Blood cultures, urine cultures and lumbar puncture to rule out sepsis, encephalitis, meningitis

(prolactin is also raised immediately after a seizure for some reason)

390
Q

MoA and side effects of sodium valproate

A

First line in all except focal
Works by increasing GABA activity, relaxing brain

  • Teratogenic
  • Liver damage
  • Hair loss
  • Tremors
391
Q

MoA and side effects of lamotrigine

A

Na+ channel blocker and suppresses glutamate release, reducing excitability of neurones

  • Blurred vision
  • Leukopenia
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome (life threatening rash) or DRESS syndrome

First line in women/pregnant

392
Q

Carbamazepine MoA and side effects

A

Sodium channel blocker, reduces excitability of neurones

  • Agranulocytosis
  • Aplastic anaemia
  • Dizziness
  • Rash
393
Q

Side effects of ethosuximide

A

Night terrors
Rash

394
Q

What is status epilepticus and how is it managed

A

A seizure >5 mins, or >2 seizures without regaining consciousness. Medical emergency

  • ABCDE approach
  • IV lorazepam in hospital or buccal midazolam or PR diazepam in community

If ongoing
- IV phenytoin or phenobarbital

395
Q

What is benign rolandic epilepsy

A

Childhood epilepsy (4-12)

At night/when waking up.

Typically partial (e.g. paraesthesia affecting face)

Centrotemporal spikes on EEG.

Excellent prognosis

396
Q

What shows on EEG in petit mal seizures

A

3Hz generalised, symmetrical spike on EEG

397
Q

Define Tuberculosis, what is it caused by?

A

Granulomatous resp and non resp infection. Type 4 hypersensitivity. Notifiable

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, acid fast bacilli. Slow dividing and have high oxygen requirements - difficult to culture.

As it is acid fast, a Ziehl-Neelsen stain must be used, turning them bright red against a blue background.

1.7b cases worldwide - mostly latent in South Asia/Sub Saharan Africa

398
Q

Stages of TB infection

A

Primary - TB phagocytosed but resists killing (waxy mycolic capsule prevents binding - acid fast) Focal, caseating granuloma forms (Ghon focus). If it involves hilar lymph nodes, it becomes a Ghon complex

Latent - Bacteria dormant, patient asymptomatic. Sputum test will be negative but Mantoux will still be positive

Secondary - Immunocompromised patients, TB reactives and patient is symptomatic and infectious.

Miliary - Lymphatogenous spread to other organs, causing systemic symptoms

399
Q

When TB travels to vertebral bodies, what is this called?

A

Pott’s Disease

400
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of TB

A

TB meningitis
Vertebral bodies (Pott’s disease)
Cervical lymph nodes (scrofuloderma)
TB pericarditis
Renal/GU tract

401
Q

How might TB present

A
  • Cough with haemoptysis
  • Fever, night sweats, lethargy, weight loss
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Dyspnoea and clubbing, if long standing
402
Q

How is active TB investigated

A

Chest X ray (signs on other card)

Sputum culture - 3 deep cough sputum culures, which stain red with Ziehl-Neelsen stain.

Nucleic acid Amplification Test - Done on urine or sputum if under 15 or has HIV.

403
Q

Chest X ray signs in TB

A

Primary
- Patchy consolidations
- Pleural effusion
- Hilar lymphadenopathy

Latent
- Ghon complex

Secondary
- Nodular consolidation with cavitation (gas filled spaces) in upper lung

Miliary
- “Millet Seeds” uniformly distributed throughout lung

404
Q

Investigations in Latent TB

A

Mantoux screening - Intradermal injection of purified protein derivative which causes a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. After 72 hrs, >15 mm induration is strongly positive, and suggests infection. 6-15 may be due to BCG or due to previous TB.

Interferon gamma release assay - Blood mixed with TB. If previous contact, will release interferon gamma.

405
Q

What can cause false negative in TB investigation

A

Recent infection
HIV
Sarcoidosis
Lymphoma

406
Q

What vaccine helps prevent TB

A

BCG

Intradermal injection of live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis. Protects mostly against severe and complicated TB, but less against pulmonary TB.

407
Q

Treatment of Active TB

A

RIPE - two months course
Rifampicin
Isoniazid (+ Pyridoxine)
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

Then R and I for 4 further months

408
Q

What is prescribed with isonazid and why?

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

Helps prevent peripheral neuropathy

409
Q

Treatment of latent TB

A

RI for 3 months
Rifampicin
Isoniazid (+Pyridoxine)

OR Isoniazid for 6 months

410
Q

Side effects of TB treatment drugs

A

R- rifampicin –> red urine/sweat
I- isoniazid –> peripheral neuropathy
P- pyrazinamide –> gout, hepatitis
E- ethambutol –> optic neuritis

All can also cause hepatitis

411
Q

MoA of TB drugs

A

Rifampicin - inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase
Isoniazid - Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
Pyrazinamide - Inhibits Fatty Acid Synthetase, disrupting bacterial membrane function
Ethambutol - Inhibits cell wall synthesis

412
Q

What are the effects of rifampicin and isoniazid on CYP450

A

R - Liver enzyme inducer
I - Liver enzyme inhibitor

413
Q

What is autistic spectrum disorder

A

Deficit in social interaction, communication and flexible behaviour. Classified under DSM-5/

Uusally present in childhood but may manifest later.

414
Q

Clinical features pf autistic spectrum disroder

A

Usually present before 2-3 yo but may manifest later.

Impaired social interaction
- Lack of eye contact
- Delay smiling
- Avoids physical contact
- Cannot read cues
- Difficulty making friends and not wanting to socialise

Communication
- Delay, absence or regression in language development
- Lack of appropriate non verbal communication (eyes, smiling etc)
- Difficulty with imaginative or sarcastic behaviour
- Repetitive use of phrases or words

Behaviour
- Interest in patterns, objects, numbers > people
- Sterotypical repetitive movements (hand flapping etc)
- Intense, deep interests that are persistent and rigid
- Anxiety and distress outside normal routine
- Extremely restricted food preferences

Also associated with higher head circumference to brain volume ratio

415
Q

How is autism managed

A

Goals: Increase functional independance and QOL:
- Learning, development, social skills
- Decrease disability/morbidity
- Aid families

Non pharm:
- Educational and behavioural interventions
- Family support and counselling

Pharm:
- SSRIs: Reduce symptoms like stereotyped behaviour, anxiety
- Antipsychotics if aggression or self injury
- Methylphenidate if associated ADHD

416
Q

What is anorexia nervosa and what is its diagnostic criteria

A

Most common cause of child admission to psych.

Patient believes themselves to be fat, despite low or normal weight.

DSM-5 criteria
- Restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight
- Intense fear of gaining weight, despite underweight
- Disturbance in the way their body is perceived

417
Q

Features of anorexia nervosa

A
  • Weight loss
  • Amenorrhoea (HPA axis disruption (P))
  • Lanugo (fine, soft) hair
  • Hypotension
  • Hypothermia
  • Anxiety and depression
418
Q

Complications of anorexia nervosa

A

Hypogonadism and amenorrhoea
- Lack of gonadotrophin (LH/FSH) from pituitary, hypogonadism in ovaries.

Cardiac
- Arrhythmia, cardiac atrophy, sudden cardiac death.

Low BMD

Highest mortality of ANY psych condition

419
Q

Management of anorexia

A

Individualised eating disorder focused CBT

Maudsley anorexia nervosa treatment for adults (MANTRA)

Anorexia focused family therapy in children and young people (CBT 2nd line)

420
Q

How might bloods change in anorexia

A
  • Low FSH, LH, oestrogen, testosterone
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Low T3
  • Hypercholesterolaemia
  • Impaired glucose tolerance

G’s and C’s raised: growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, carotinaemia (orange coloured skin (carrot lol))

Most other things low

421
Q

What is Bulimia nervosa

A

Binge eating followed by purging, but inducing vomiting or taking laxatives.

Unlike anorexia, body weight tends to stay roughly normal.

Lack of control during eating episodes, and associated compensatory behaviours (vomiting, laxatives, exercise etc), occuring at least 1nce weekly for 3 months.

Self evaluation unduly influenced by body shape/weight

422
Q

How does Bulimia present

A

Normal(ish) body weight

  • Erosion of teeth
  • Swollen salivary glands
  • Reflux
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Calluses on knuckles from scraping on teeth (Russell’s sign)

Alkalosis if repeat vomiting

423
Q

What are undescended testes and what are possible complications

A

Normally, testes develop in abdomen, migrate down through inguinal canal and into scrotum.

In 5% of boys, they may not descend (cryptochoridsm). May be palpable in inguinal canal.

Can lead to testicular torsion, infertility and testicular cancer.

424
Q

Risk factors for undescended testes

A
  • Family history
  • Low birth weight
  • SGA
  • Prematurity
  • Maternal smoking
425
Q

Management of undescended testes

A

Most will descend in firt 3-6 months. If not, orchidopexy.

If bilateral, review urgently.

426
Q

What are retractile testicles

A

Testicles that move back into inguinal canal when cold or cremasteric reflex is triggered.

427
Q

What is testicular torsion and how does it present

A

Medical emergency

Twisting of spermatic cord causing ischaemia and necrosis.

  • Severe sudden pain that may refer to lower abdo.
  • Swollen tender testis retracted upwards (high riding)
  • Lost cremasteric reflex
  • Elevation doesnt ease pain (Prehn’s sign)
428
Q

4 risk factors for testicular torsion

A
  • Adolescent
  • Bell clapper deformity
  • Cryptochordism
  • Trauma
429
Q

Management of testicular torsion

A

Emergency surgery within 6 hrs.

Bilateral detorsion and orchidopexy (fixing to scrotal sac)

If unviable, Orchiectomy

Manual detorsion if surgery not possible for 6 hrs

430
Q

What is Kallmann’s syndrome

A

As part of an X linked recessive trait, Kallmann’s is a cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

Thought to be failure of GnRH-secreting neurones to migrate to hypothalamus

431
Q

How does Kallmann’s present and whats it typical picture

A

TP
- Boy with lack of smell and delayed puberty

Presentation
- Delayed puberty and lack of smell
- Hypogonadism, cryptochordism
- Low sex hormones
- LH, FSH levels low
- (normal height)
- Cleft palate, visual/hearing defects in some patients

432
Q

How is Kallmann’s managed

A

Testosterone supplementation

Gonadotrophin supplementation may result in sperm production if fertility desired

433
Q

When is normal puberty, and how does it normally happen

A

8-14 in girls
9-15 in boys
Both take about 4 years and girls usually have pubertal growth spurt first.

In girls, breast buds -> pubic hair -> menstrual periods (~2 years post start)

In boys, enlargement of testicles -> then of penis -> darkening of scrotum -> pubic hair and deepening of voice

Staged with tanner staging

434
Q

What is Hypogonadism and what are its types

A

Hypogonadism - Lack of sex hormones (oestrogen or test), that normally rise just before puberty, causing a delay.

Can be hypogonadotrophic (deficiency of LH and FSH) or hypergonadotrophic (lack of response to LH and FSH by gonads)

435
Q

Causes of hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

A
  • Previous damage to hypothalamus/pituitary
  • GH deficiency
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Chronic conditions (CF, IBD)
  • Excessive dieting/exercise (esp in girls)
  • Kallmann Syndrome
436
Q

Causes of hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

A

Gonads fail to respond to stimulation. Lack of negative feedback means anterior pituitary produces increased LH and FSH.

  • Damage to gonads (T Torsion, Cancer, Infections)
  • Congenital absence
  • Kleinfelter’s (XXY)
  • Turner’s (XO)
437
Q

How is hypogonadism investigated

A

Start investigations in boys at 14 or girls at 13 if no evidence of puberty, OR no progress in 2 years.

Investigate for
- Anaemia/Coeliac
- Early morning LH/FSH
- Thyroid function
- IGF-1 (GH deficiency check)
- Prolactin
- X ray of wrist (Bone density)
- MRI brain (pituitary/olfactory bulbs (Kallmann))

438
Q

What is precocious puberty in boys and girls

A

development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years in females and 9 years in males.

<8yo in girls
<9yo in boys

More common in girls

439
Q

How can precocious puberty present

A

Girls
- Thelarche (Breast development)
- Pubic (adrenarch)/underarm hair growth
- Menarche
- widening of hips and body fat distribution

Boys
- Facial, pubic, underarm hair
- Deep voice
- Enlarged testes/penis
- Increased muscle mass

440
Q

How can precocious puberty be classified

A

Gonadotrophin dependent (central/true)
- Premautre activation of HPG axis
- FSH and LH RAISED

Gonadotrophin independent (pseudo/false)
- Excess sex hormones
- FSH and LH LOW

441
Q

What are central and peripheral causes of precocious puberty

A

Central
- Idiotpathic (Most common, esp girls)
- Brain lesions (tumours, infections, malformations e.g. hydrocephalus, radiation)
- Mutations

Peripheral
- Less common, moreso have a cause (tumour etc)
- Ovarian cysts/tumours
- Testicular tumours

Bilateral test enlargement - GNRH from intracranial lesion
Unilateral - Gonadal tumour
Small - Adrenal cause (tumour/hyperplasia)

In girls it is normally idiopathic and follows normal course

442
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Autosomal recessive deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone production, and overproduction of androgens from birth.

Lack of cortisol = extra ACTH = excess adrenal androgens, causing virilisation of females and young males.

443
Q

Pathophysiology of CAH

A

21 hydroxylase converts progesterone to aldosterone and cortisol. Progesterone is also used to make testosterone, but this conversion does not rely on the 21-hydroxylase enzyme.

In CAH, there is a deficiency of 21-hydroxylase. Hence, the extra progesterone gets converted to testosterone, causing patient to have low aldosterone, low cortisol and abnormally high testosterone.

444
Q

Why does skin pigmentation occur in CAH

A

Anterior pituitary responds to low levels of Cortisol by producing extra ACTH. A byproduct of this production is Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone production, stimulating production of melanin in cells

445
Q

Causes of congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Most common: 21-hydroxylase deficiency
- Impairs conversion of 17-hydroxyprogesterone to 11-deoxycortisol, causing cortisol deficiency and excess androgen production

11-beta hydroxylase deficiency
- Results in HTN due to excess deoxycorticosterone

17-hydroxylase deficiency
- mineralocorticoid excess and low androgen and estrogen levels

446
Q

Clinical features of Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Depend on deficiency and severity.

Virilisation
- Excessive androgen exposure makes females present with ambiguous genitalia and male features
Salt wasting crisis
- Dehydration, hypotension, electrolyte imbalances
- 75% of 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Precocious puberty
Infertility
Height and weight acceleration, deep voice, facial hair, absent periods, large penis, small testicles

Skin hyperpigmentation (due to excess ACTH causing melanocyte stimulating hormone release)

447
Q

How is congenital adrenal hyperplasia diagnosed

A

ACTH stimulation testing
- Evaluates adrenal gland’s response to ACTH, with abnormal increase in 17-hydroxyprogesterone indicating CAH

448
Q

Management of CAH

A

Hydrocortisone (glucocorticoid) - Reduce ACTH levels and minimise androgen production

Fludrocortisone if mineralocorticoid deficiency

Females with virilisation may need surgery

449
Q

What are glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

A

Glucocorticoids e.g. cortisol, main stress hormone. Reduce inflammation, raise glucose, suppress immune system. Levels fluctuate, highest in morning and during stress. Released in response to ACTH from anterior pituitary

Mineralocorticoids e.g. Aldosterone. Act on kidneys to control salt and water balance. Released by adrenal in response to renin. Aldosterone acts on kidneys to increase sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion from blood.

450
Q

What are some hypothalamic tumours and how do they present

A

Hypothalamic Hamartoma
- Benign, associated with gelastic (laughing) seizures and precocious puberty

Craniopharyngioma
- Benign, derived from Rathke’s pouch, cause growth failure, delayed puberty, diabetes insipidus

Gliomas
- Usually cause visual disturbance and hydrocephalus due to CSF obstruction and associated with neurofibromatosis type 1

Germinomas
- Hypopituitarism, precocious puberty, DI

451
Q

What is androgen insensitivity syndrome (overview)

A

X linked recessive condition. End organ resistance to test causes genotypically male (46XY) children to have female phenotype.

Presents with:
- Primary amenorrhead
- Little/no axillary and pubic hair
- Undescended tests -> groin swelling
- Breast development (testosterone -> oestradiol)

Buccal smear or chromosomal analysis.

Manage with orchidectomy

452
Q

When should obseity in children be investigated

A

Consider intervention if BMI at 91st centile or above

Consider comorbidity assessment if 98th centile or above

Overweight if BMI >85th centile and obese >95th centile

453
Q

What are some epidemiological associations with childhood obesity

A
  • Asian - 4x more likely
  • Female
  • Taller children
454
Q

Causes of obesity in children

A

Lifestyle factors!

GH deficiency
Hypothyroidism
Down’s
Cushing’s
Prader-Willi syndrome

455
Q

Consequences of obesity in kids

A

Ortho problems
- Slipped upper femoral epiphyses
- Blount’s disease (developmental abnormality of tibia -> bowed legs)

Psychological consequences
- Bullying, low self esteem

Sleep apnoea
Benign intracranial HTN

Longer term
- T2DM, HTN, IHD

456
Q

When does weight loss in a newborn baby become concerning

A

Weight loss in first 5 days can be normal
Breast fed ~10%
Formula fed ~5%

Should be back to birth weight by day 10

457
Q

What is Down’s syndrome

A

Tisomy 21 (3 copies), causing characteristic physical features e.g. flattened facial profile, upward slanted eyes, single palm crease.

Also presents with intellectual disability, developmental delays, and increased risk of certain conditions.

458
Q

What are the face features associated with Down’s

A
  • Brachycephaly (small, flatback head)
  • Flattened, round face
  • Upward slanting eyes
  • Epicanthal folds
  • Brushfield spots in iris
  • Small, low-set ears
  • Protruding tongue
459
Q

What are the most common cardiac complications of Downs

A

In order of commonness:

Endocardial cushion defect (AV Septal canal defects)
Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect
Tetralogy of fallot
Patent ductus arteriosus

459
Q

What are other features associated with Downs

A

Single palmar crease
Hypotonia
Congenital heart defects
Duodenal atresia
Hirschprung’s disease (aganglionic bowel = constipation)

460
Q

Later complications of Downs

A
  • Sub/infertility
  • Learning difficulties
  • Short stature
  • Repeated resp infection and glue ear
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Alzheimer’s
  • ALL
  • Atlantoaxial instability
461
Q

What antenatal screening is done for Downs

A

Best: Combined test (11-14 weeks)
- USS measures nuchal thickness (back of fetal neck). >6mm is significant.
- bHCG. Higher=greater risk
- PAPP-A (pregnancy associated plasma protein A) - Lower result=greater risk

Triple and Quadruple tests also done if booked later (14-20 weeks)
T: bHCG, AFP (lower=risk), and serium oestriol (lower=risk)
Q: adds inhibin A (higher=risk)

All bloods are maternal

462
Q

What antenatal testing is done for Downs

A

If higher risk (>1 in 150), either second screening, or diagnostic test.

NIPT - second screening but non invasive, so may be preferred. Analyses cell free fetal DNA (cffDNA) in maternal blood. 99% sensitivity and specificity

Diagnostic tests:
Chorionic Villus Sampling - USS guided biopsy of placental tissue <15 weeks
Amniocentesis - later in pregnancy, when enough amniotic fluid to take safe sample

463
Q

What tests should be regularly done in Downs, and name some MDT involved in their care (probably dont need to know but watch them ask)

A
  • Thyroid (2 yearly)
  • Echocardiogram
  • Regular audiometry and eye checks

Occupational therapy
Speech and language therapy
Physiotherapy
Dietician
Paediatrician
GP
Health visitors
Cardiologist for congenital heart disease
ENT specialist for ear problems
Audiologist for hearing aids
Optician for glasses
Social services for social care and benefits
Additional support with educational needs

464
Q

What are the Trisomy disorders

A

Trisomy 21 - Downs
Trisomy 18 - Edwards
Trisomy 13 - Pataus

465
Q

How do Edwards and Pataus present

A

Pataus
- Microcephalic, small eyes
- Cleft lip/palate
- Polydactyly
- Scalp lesions

Edwards
- Micognathia (small lower jaw)
- Low-set ears
- Overlapping of fingers
- Rocker bottom feet (convex foot bottom - present in both)

466
Q

How do Edwards and Neural Tube Defects show on Quadruple test

A

E: Low HCG, Oestriol and AFP
NTD: Raised AFP

467
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome

A

When a male has an additional X chromosome, becoming 47XXY instead of the normal 46XY

Extra X chromosomes (48XXXY etc) can occur, having more severe features

Chromosomal Nondisjunction

468
Q

How does Klinefelter present and whats prognosis like

A

Develop as normal until puberty, then develop features
- Taller
- Wider hips
- Gynaecomastia
- Weak muscles, small testicles, reduced libido
- Shyness
- Infertility
- Low test but high gonadotrophin

Life expectancy close to normal. Slight increase in risk of:
- Breast cancer (still less than F)
- Osteoporosis
- Diabetes
- Anxiety/depression

469
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome and how does it present

A

When a female has a single X chromosome, making them 45 XO. (O refers to an empty space). Caused by either presence of only 1 X or deletion of short arm of one.

  • Short stature, webbed neck, widely spaced nipples
  • Cubitus valgus (when arm is extended down with palm facing out, angle of forearm is exaggerated)
  • Underdeveloped ovaries with reduced function (infertile)
  • Late/incomplete puberty
  • Primary amennorhoea
  • Lymphoedema in neonates (feet)
  • Horseshoe kidney
  • Bicuspid aortic valve causing ejection systolic murmur
470
Q

What conditions are associated with Turners

A
  • Recurrent otitis media and UTI
  • Coarctation of aorta and bicuspid valve, causing ejection systolic murmur
  • Hypothyroid
  • Obesity, diabetes, HTN, osteoporosis
  • Learning disabilities
  • Autoimmune disease (thyroid, crohns)
471
Q

What is Fragile X syndrome

A

Trinucleotide repeat disorder, affecting FMR1 (Fragile X Mental Retardation 1) gene on X chromosome. (CCG)

Affects boys much more severely than girls

472
Q

Presentation and diagnosis of Fragile X

A
  • Learning difficulties
  • Large low set ears, long narrow face, high arched palate
  • Macroorchidism
  • Hypotonia
  • Autism
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • Antenatal by Chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis
  • Analysis of CCG repeats using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis
473
Q

What is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and how does it present

A

X linked recessive inherited disorder or dystrophin genes required for normal muscle function.

  • Progressive proximal muscle weakness from 5 years.
  • Calf pseudohypertrophy
  • Gower’s sign: Child uses arms to stand up from squat position
474
Q

What do investigations show in Duchenne muscular dystrophy and what is its prognosis

A
  • Raised CK
  • Genetic testing definitive

Prognosis
- Most cant walk by 12
- 25-30 yo life expectancy
- Associated with Dilated Cardiomyopathy

475
Q

What is Noonan syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant condition (C12 maybe?) “Male Turners”

  • Webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, short stature, pectus carinatum and excavatum
  • Ptosis
  • Tringular face
  • Lowset ears
  • Factor XI deficiency and pulmonary valve stenosis
476
Q

What is Prader Willi Syndrome?

A

Prader-Willi Syndrome is a loss functional genes on the proximal arm of chromosome 15.

Can be due to a deletion of chromosome, or when both are inherited by mother.

Called Angelman syndrome if deletion is from mother (or both inherited from father)

477
Q

How does Prader Willi present

A

Hypotonia during infacny
Constant hunger that leads to obesity
Dysmorphic features
Hypogonadism and infertility
Short stature

478
Q

How is Prader Willi managed

A

Growth hormone, aimed at improving muscle development and body comp.

479
Q

What is Angelman Syndrome

A

Deletion of MATERNAL chromosome 15, or inheritance of both from father. Like Prader Willi but the other way round.

480
Q

How does Angelman Syndrome present

A
  • Fascination with water
  • Happy demeanour
  • Widely spaced teeth
  • Hand flapping
  • Epilepsy
  • Abnormal sleep patterns
  • Dysmorphic features
481
Q

What is William Syndrome and how does it present

A

Random microdeletion on chromosome 7.

  • Starburst eyes
  • Wide mouth/big smile
  • Small chin
  • Elfin-like facies
  • Very friendly and sociable
  • Short stature
482
Q

What is William syndrome associated with

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosis
ADHD
Hypertension
Hypercalcaemia (low calcium diet in management)

483
Q

What is Osteogenesis imperfecta, and how does it present

A

Group of disorders affecting collagen formation, cause bones to be brittle. Autosomal Dominant

  • Hypermobility
  • Blue sclera
  • Fractures following minor trauma
  • Deafness seconday to otosclerosis
  • Dental imperfections
484
Q

How do main bone investigations present in Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Calcium, phosphate, PTH, ALP usually normal

485
Q

How is Osteogenesis imperfecta managed

A

Bisphosphonates to increase BMD
Vit D supplementation

486
Q

What is Rickets, and what are predisposing factors

A

Inadequately mineralised bones, causing soft and easily deformed bones. (osteomalaica, but in kids)

Usually due to vit D deficiency

  • Dietary deficiency of calcium (e.g. developing countries)
  • Prolonged breastfeeding
  • Unsupplemented cows milk formula
  • Lack of sunlight
487
Q

How does Rickets present

A

Abnormalities
- Genu varum (bow legs) - younger kids
- Genu valgum (knock knees) - older kids
Also:
- Aching bones/joints
- Rickety rosary (swelling of costochondral junction)
- Kyphoscoliosis
- Crainotabes (soft skull delayed closure of sutures)
- Harrison’s sulcus

488
Q

Investigations in rickets

A

Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D - low
X ray - osteopenia (radiolucent bones)

Calcium and phosphate maybe low
ALP and PTH maybe high

489
Q

Management of rickets

A

Oral vit D - Ergocalciferol + calcium supplementation

*Bow legs normally self resolve by 4

490
Q

What is transient synovitis and how does it present

A

Transient inflammation of the synovial membrane of the hip following a viral URTI. Most common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-10.

  • Limping
  • Refusal to weight bear
  • Hip/groin pain
  • NO/LOW GRADE FEVER (If fever, treat for septic!)
491
Q

Management of transient synovitis

A
  • Exclude septic ASAP. If generally unwell, admit. Otherwise, significant improvement within 48 hours, with full recovery in 1-2 weeks.
492
Q

What is septic arthritis

A

Infection within a joint. Most common in under 4s. Emergency, can destroy joint and cause sepsis.

Common complication of joint replacement

493
Q

How does septic arthritis present

A

Single, hot, swollen, red joint
Non weight bearing
Stiffness and reduced motion
Systemic symptoms (fever, lethargy, malaise)

494
Q

What bacteria commonly cause septic arthritis

A

Staph aureus
N gonorrhoea (sexually active)
Group A strep (pyogenes - under 5)
H influenzae
E coli

495
Q

Investigations of septic arthritis, and how long should abx be done for

A

Joint aspiration
- Yellow/cloudy, high WCC, culture positive, neutrophils
- Send for gram staining, culture, antibiotic sensitivity and crystal microscopy
- Take before antibiotics

Blood culture.

3-6 weeks,

496
Q

What scoring criteria is used to diagnose septic arthritis

A
  1. Fever>38.5 (high grade)
  2. Non weight bearing
  3. Raised ESR
  4. Raised WCC
497
Q

What is osteomyelitis and what are its types

A

Infection of bone/marrow

Haematogenous
- Results from bacteraemia, monomicrobial
- Most common form in children
- Vertebral osteomyelitis is most common in adults

Non haematogenous
- Contiguous spread from adjacent infection; tissues, bone, direct injury/trauma to bone
- Most common form in adults, often polymicrobial

498
Q

Risk factors for the 2 types of osteomyelitis

A

Haem
- Sickle cell, IV drug use, immunosuppression, IE

Non haem
- Diabetic foot, DM, PAD, penetrating injury, cellulitis

499
Q

What microorganisms most commonly cause osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus most common
P aeurginosa (gram negative rod)
Salmonella (important in sickle cell)
N gonorrhoea
M Tuberculosis

500
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice in osteomyelitis. What might you see on initial imaging investigation

A

MRI, X ray can be normal, but possible signs are:
- Involucrum/sequestrum (fallen leaf sign)
- Periosteal thickening
- Lytic lesions
- Cortical bone less

501
Q

Management of Osteomyelitis

A

6 weeks flucloxacillin
Clindamycin if allergic

Surgical debridement may be needed
(abscess, failure to respond, vertebral osteomyelitis)

502
Q

What is slipped upper/capital femoral epiphysis

A

Rare hip condition seen usually in obese boys, where head of femur is displaced along growth plate, postero-inferiorly. ~12 years.

503
Q

Presentation of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

Hip pain, can be longstanding, usually following minor trauma (disproportionate to pain)
- High, groin, thigh, knee pain
- Leg preferred in external rotation, restricted internal rotation due to pain.
- Painful limp
- Can be bilateral or unilateral

504
Q

Investigation and management of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

X ray normally diagnostic (antero-posterior and lateral, frog leg views)

Managed surgically with internal fixation, with a single cannulated screw in the centre of the epiphysis

505
Q

Complications of SUFE

A

Osteoarthritis
Avascular necrosis of femoral head
Chondrolysis
Leg length discrepancy

506
Q

What is Osgood-Schlatters disease with pathophys

A

Inflammation at the tibial tuberosity, where the patella ligament inserts. Common cause of anterior knee pain.

Tibial tuberosity is at epiphyseal plate. Stress from running, jumping etc causes apophytis (ligament inflammation). Multiple avulsion fractures, where patella pulls away bits of bone, causing a visible lump under the knee. This starts hard and tender but eventually heals to be non tender.

507
Q

Presentation of Osgood Schlatter

A
  • Visible/palpable hard lump at tibial tuberosity
  • Pain in anterior aspect of knee
  • Pain exacerbated by activity
508
Q

Management of Osgood Schlatter and what is the main complication

A

Supportive
- Ice
- Reduction in activity
- NSAID

Physiotherapy after to strengthen joint

Complication: Full avulsion fracture - tibial tuberosity is pulled away from rest of tibia

509
Q

What is Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip, what can it lead to and when is it normally picked up?

A

Congenital hip abnormality causes instability and potential for subluxation (partial) or full dislocation.

Can lead to weakness, recurrent dislocation, abnormal gait, or early degenerative changes.

Usually picked up during newborn examination or when child presents with hip asymmetry.

510
Q

Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A
  • First degree family history
  • Breech from 36 weeks
  • Breech at birth if 28 weeks
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Female
  • Firstborn
511
Q

How is developmental dysplasia of the hip screened for

A

During NIPE Exam 6-8 weeks.
Features suggesting DDH:
- Different leg lengths
- Restricted hip abduction on one side
- Significant bilateral restriction in abduction
- Different in knee level when hips flexed
- Clunking of hips during special tests

If breech, do USS at 6 weeks ALWAYS

512
Q

DDH Screening special tests

A

Ortolani test - baby on back with knees and hips flexed. Palms on baby’s knees with thumbs on inner thigh and four fingers on outer thigh. Gently abduct and apply pressure behind legs to see if legs dislocate anteriorly

Barlow test - Baby on back with hips adducted and flexed to 90 and knees bent to 90. Gentle downward pressure applied to knee to see if femoral head will dislocate posteriorly.

(clicking is a common finding -> hip will be normal on USS. Clunking more likely to indicate DDH, requires USS)

513
Q

Management of DDH

A

Most will stabilise by 3-6 weeks

If <6 months of age, Pavlik harness is fitted and kept on permanently, holding the femoral head in the correct position and allowing acetabulum (hip socket) to take correct shape.

Pavlik harness keeps hips flexed and abducted.

Usually removed after 6-8 weeks.

514
Q

What is discoid meniscus

A

A congenital abnormality where the meniscus (usually C shaped) ends up disc shaped, commonly affects lateral meniscus. 6-10 years

Makes the meniscus broader, thicker and more circular causing pain, swelling, clicking, decreased range of motion and locking/giving way of the knee

515
Q

Types of discoid meniscus

A
  • Complete: Meniscus fully covers tibial plateau
  • Incomplete: partially covers
  • Wrisberg: Lacks posterior tibial attachments, much more instability, clicking and locking
516
Q

Investigations and complications of a discoid meniscus

A
  • MRI is Gold standard imaging

Untreated:
- Early onset osteoarthritis
- Post meniscectomy: pain, instability, join degeneration etc

517
Q

What is Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

A

Inflammatory arthritis lasting >6 weeks in someone younger than 16.

If there are systemic symptoms its called Still’s disease

518
Q

Presentation of Stills disease

A
  • Subtle salmon pink rash
  • High swinging fevers
  • Enlarged lymph nodes
  • Weight loss
  • Joint inflammation/pain
  • Muscle pain
  • Pleuritis/pericarditis
519
Q

Investigations in JIA

A

ANA may be raised (associated with anterior uveitis)
RF negative
Raised: CRP, ESR, platelets and ferritin

520
Q

What are important types of JIA

A

Oligoarticular - 1 joint, girls under 6, anterior uveitis (refer to ophthalmology) ANA positive
Polyarticular - >5 joints, symmetrical, may have fever, anaemia, reduced growth
Enthesitis related - Involves inflammation where tendon inserts into muscle. HLAB27, psoriasis, anterior uveitis.
Psoriatic - Skin psoriasis and associated hand changes (pitting, onycholysis, dactylitis, enthesitis)

521
Q

How is JIA managed

A

Paediatric rheumatology
- NSAID
- Steroids
- DMARD (methotrexate etc)
- Biologics (Anti-TNF etc)

522
Q

What is Scoliosis, with types, presentation and examination

A
  • Lateral (coronal plane) spinal curvature >10 degrees, often has vertebral rotation.
  • Affects females most and can be congenital, neuromuscular, syndromic (marfans, ehlers danlos)
  • Affects females more
  • Uneven shoulders, hips, ribcage asymmetry, back pain
  • Adams forward bend test, rib hump on side of bend.
  • Cobb angle>10 = scoliosis. >50 progress into adulthood.
523
Q

What is Torticollis

A

A condition where the head is tilted one way but rotated to the opposite side.

Can be congenital or acquired

Presents with head tilt to one side and rotation to other. Palpable mass or tightness in sternocleidomastoid (fibrosis)

USS to assess SCM

Physio, botulinum toxin, surgery etc for management

Good prognosis if physio, resolved by 1 yr

524
Q

How does physiological jaundice present, and why does it occur

A

Mild jaundice and scleral ictera from 2-7 days, resolves in 10.

Fetal RBC break down quicker, but bilirubin normally excreted via placenta. At birth, no placenta, so rise in bilirubin while liver develops and starts removing bilirubin

525
Q

What are causes of jaundice in the first 24 hours

A

ALWAYS pathological

Increased production
- Haemolytic disease of the newborn
- ABO or Rhesus haemolytic disease
- Haemorrhage
- G6PD deficiency
- Sepsis!

Decreased clearance
- Prematurity
- Breast milk jaundice
- Neonatal cholestasis
- Extrahepatic biliary atresia
- Gilbert syndrome

526
Q

What are some complications of neonatal jaundice

A

Kernicterus - Bilirubin crosses blood brain barrier causing CNS damage. Presents with less responsive, floppy, drowsy baby with poor feeding.

Deafness

Developmental delay

Acute bilirubin encephalopathy

527
Q

What are some causes of jaundice >14 days

A
  • Biliary Atresia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Galactosaemia
  • Breast milk clearance
  • Prematurity
  • Congenital infection (CMV, toxoplasmosis)
528
Q

What tests should be performed in prolonged jaundice

A
  • Conjugated/unconjugated bilirubin
  • Direct Coombs antiglobulin test
  • TFT
  • FBC/blood film
  • U&E and LFT
  • Urine MCS
529
Q

Baby presents with anaemia and jaundice. Mother had bleeding early in pregnancy. Whats going on

A

Haemolytic disease of the newborn (Rhesus disease)

530
Q

How is neonatal jaundice managed

A

Treatment threshold chart - GA of baby (hours) against total bilirubin

Phototherapy first line, extremely high may require exchange transfusion (remove blood from neonate, replace with donor)

531
Q

How does phototherapy work

A

Blue light (little/no UV) is used to break down unconjugated bilirubin into isomers, meaning they can be excreted in bile and urine without conjugation.

Measure rebound bilirubin 12-18 hours later to ensure no further treatment needed

532
Q

Why does Neonatal Hypoxia occur and what can it cause

A

When contractions occur, the placenta cant carry out gas exchange, leading to hypoxia. Extended hypoxia leads to anaerobic respiration and a drop in heart rate (bradycardia).

Further hypoxia reduces consciousness and drop in respiratory effort, worsening hypoxia. Extended hypoxia leads to hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy, can cause cerebral palsy.

533
Q

How to resuscitate a newborn

A

(First 30 secs)
- Dry and warm baby ASAP.
- Assess babys tone (floppy?), breathing (chest moving?), HR (Ideally >100bpm)

If not gasping/breathing or HR<100
- open airway and give 5 inflation breaths (5 breaths 2/3 secs each, aiming for chest rise)

Reassess HR and chest movements
- If HR60-100, continue with ventilation breaths 40/60 a min.
- If HR<100, begin compressions, at 3 compressions to 1 breath. (90 compressions and 30 breaths per min)
- Reassess HR every 30 seconds

534
Q

What are 4 reasons a baby may need resuscitation

A

Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia
Hypoglycaemia
Hypothermia

535
Q

What score is used to determine if a baby needs resuscitation? When should it be done?

A

APGAR - 1, 5 and 10 mins after birth
A - appearance (colour)
- 0: Blue/pale
- 1: pink, but extremities blue
- 2: Pink

P - Pulse
- 0 No HR, 1 for <100, 2 for >100

G - Grimace (reflex irritability - suctioning, gentle slap on soles of feet etc)
- 0: No response, 1: grimace/weak cry, 2: vigorous cry, pull away etc

A - Activity
- 0: Limp, 1: some flexion of arms/legs, 2: Active motion, well flexed limbs

R - Respiration
- 0: No breathing, 1: weak, irregular, gasping breaths, 2: Strong, regular breathing, crying

> 7 = good
4-6 = moderate low
<3 = Bad

536
Q

What is placental transfusion

A

Delayed cord clamping - significant fetal blood in placenta, allows it time to enter baby circulation. Improves Hb, iron stores, BP, reduces intraventricular haemorrhage, necrotising enterocolitis.

Does cause more neonatal jaundice.

If they require resus, dont wait.

537
Q

What is Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome

A

Premature neonates - usually <32 weeks, before lungs start producing surfactant. Causes high surface tension in alveoli, causing atelectasis (lung collapse) as alveoli and lungs cant expand.

Causes inadequate gas exchange, causing hypoxia, hypercapnia, respiratory distress.

538
Q

What does X ray show in RDS and how is it managed

A

X ray shows ground glass appearance (bilateral infiltrates)

Management
- Antenatal steroids (Dexamethasone) to mother with suspected/confirmed preterm labour, increases surfactant production.
- Intubation/ventilation of child
- Endotracheal surfactatnt
- CPAP
- O2 sats maintained 91-95

539
Q

Short and long term complications of respiratory distress syndrome

A

Short
- Pneumothorax
- Infection
- Intraventricular haemorrhage
- Apnoea
- Pulmonary haemorrhage
- Necrotising enterocolitis

Long
- Chronic lung disease of prematurity
- Retinopathy of prematurity
- Neurological, hearing, visual impairment

540
Q

When is surfactant produced in neonates

A

24-34 weeks gestation, by type 2 alveolar cells

541
Q

What is Caput Succedaneum

A

Fluid collection on the scalp, outside the periosteum, and hence, crosses suture lines.

Caused by a traumatic, prolonged, or instrumental delivery. Usually no discoloration of the skin, and resolves on its own in days

Caput SuccaDAYneum (Crosses Sutures) - resolves within a few days

542
Q

What is Cephalohaematoma

A

AKA traumatic subperiosteal haematoma. (between skull and periosteum)

Caused by damage to blood vessels in traumatic, prolonged, instrumental delivery.

Presents as discolouration and lump, which does not cross suture lines.

Resolves on its own over months. Risk of anaemia and jaundice.

cephalohaematoMONTH (doesn’t cross sutures) - resolves within a few months

543
Q

What is a common complication of a forcep delivery

A

Facial paralysis - Caused by damage to facial nerve, one sided symptoms. Function returns on its own in a few months

544
Q

What is Erbs palsy and how does it present

A

Damage to C5/C6 nerves in brachial plexus during birth. Associated with shoulder dystocia, traumatic/instrumental birth, or high birth weight.

Leads to weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation, arm flexion and finger extension.

Causes waiters tip deformity:
- Internally rotated shoulder
- Extended elbow
- Flexed wrist pronated (facing backwards)
- Lack of movement.

(as if someone is discretely trying to take something being passed from behind)

Function returns spontaneously in months

545
Q

How does fractured clavicle present and whats its main complication

A
  • Lack of movement and asymmetry in affected arm
  • Asymmetry of shoulders, affected arm lower
  • Pain/distress on movment

Complication - injury to brachial plexus, causes nerve palsy

546
Q

When should Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy be suspected, and what are some causes

A
  • Events that could lead to hypoxia during the perinatal or intrapartum period
  • acidosis (pH < 7) on the umbilical artery blood gas,
  • poor Apgar scores
  • Multi organ failure

Caused by:
- Maternal shock
- Intrapartum haemorrhage
- Prolapsed cord
- Nuchal cord (cord wrapped around baby neck)

547
Q

How is HIE graded

A

Mild: poor feeding, generally irritable, hyper alert. Resolves in 24 hrs

Moderate: Lethargy, hypotonic, seizures. Takes weeks to resolve. 40% Cerebral palsy

Severe: Reduced consciousness, apnoea, flaccid, absent reflexes.
50% mortality, 90% palsy

548
Q

When is therapeutic hypothermia used in HIE

A

When baby is close to term. Target 33-34C, measured with rectal probe. 72 hrs, then rewarmed over 6 hrs.

Reduces inflammation and neurone loss after initial injury. Reduces risks of complication

549
Q

What is meconium aspiration syndrome and what are some risk factors

A

Respiratory distress in newborn caused by meconium in trachea. More common post term (44%>42 weeks).

Higher rates in
- Maternal HTN
- Pre eclampsia
- Chorioamnionitis
- Smoking
- Substance abuse

550
Q

What vitamin needs to be supplemented in neonates

A

Vitamin K!

IM in thigh shortly after birth.

OR orally, immediately, 7 days and 6 weeks

551
Q

What is blood spot screening

A

Blood spot screening - Day 5-9. Heel prick gets blood drops.
- Sickle cell
- CF
- Congenital hypothyroid
- Phenylketonuria
- MCADD
- MSUD
- IVA
-GA1
- Homocystin

552
Q

What is Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Chronic lung disease affecting premature infants, especially those on oxygen therapy. Results from lung injury caused by oxygen, pressure from ventilation and inflammation.

553
Q

Pathophys of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A
  • Fewer, larger, simplified alveoli.
  • Ventilator induced airway pressure damage and overdistension of alveoli
  • Oxygen toxicity (rich oxygen species damage lung cells including alveolar epithelium and endothelial cells of blood vessels.
  • Inflammation
554
Q

Signs/symptoms of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A
  • Tachypnoea
  • Persistent oxygen need
  • Wheezing
  • Failure to thrive
  • Persistent infections
555
Q

Investigations and complications of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

CXR - lung overinflation, atelectasis

History of O2/ventilation need >36 weeks in preterm infant.

  • Pulmonary HTN
  • Recurrent infection
  • Developmental delay
  • Growth retardation
  • SIDS
556
Q

What infections can be passed from mother to child in pregnancy

A

TORCH
T - Toxoplasmosis
Other (Syphilis, VZV, HIV)
R - Rubella
C - Cytomegalovirus
H - Herpes simplex

557
Q

What is Toxoplasmosis caused by

A

Toxoplasma gondii (often from contaminated food or cat faeces)

Obligate intracellular protozoan

558
Q

What are the RCH caused by

A

Rubella
CMV
Herpes simplex

All viral

559
Q

What damage does Toxoplasmosis cause

A

Neurological
- Cerebral calcification
- Hydrocephalus
- Chorioretinitis

Ophthalmic
- Retinopathy
- Cataracts

560
Q

In HIV, How can cerebral toxoplasmosis be managed and how does it present on CT

A

Pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine, 6 weeks

Ring enhancing lesions

561
Q

How do the TORCH infections present

A

T: Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
R: Cataracts, Congenital Heart defects, sensorineural hearing loss, developmental delays
CMV: Sensorineural hearing loss, microcephaly, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly
HSV: Vesicular skin lesions, encephalitis

562
Q

How can TORCH infections be investigated

A
  • Serology on maternal and infant blood (IgM, IgG)
  • PCR testing for viral DNA
  • USS (Fetal abnormalities - hydrocephalus, calcifications)
  • Amniocentesis
563
Q

What is necrotising entercolitis

A

Bowel disorder affecting premature neonates. Part of the bowel becomes necrotic and can lead to perforation, peritonitis, shock and sepsis

564
Q

Risk factors for NEC

A
  • Premature or very low birth weight
  • Formula feeds
  • Respiratory distress/assisted ventilation
  • Sepsis
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
565
Q

How does necrotising enterocolitis present

A
  • Feeding intolerance
  • Green bilious vomit
  • Distended tender abdomen
  • Absent bowel sounds
  • Blood in stools
566
Q

How is NEC investigated

A

X ray
- Dilated bowel loops
- Bowel wall oedema
- Pneumatosis intestinalis (intramural gas)
- Pneumoperitoneum (free gas in peritoneal cavity - implies perforation)
- Air both inside and outside bowel wall

567
Q

Management of NEC and complications of short bowel syndrome

A

NBM
IV fluids
TPN
ABx

Surgical emergency - short bowel syndrome is a complication.

568
Q

Complications of NEC

A
  • Perforation and peritonitis
  • Sepsis
  • Strictures
  • Abscess
  • Recurrence
569
Q

What is Gastroschisis

A

Congenital defect in abdominal wall causes organs to protrude directly through the hole.

This normally presents to the right of the belly button.

Requires surgical correction, should be covered with cling film in mean time

570
Q

How does Gastroschisis usually present

A

Abdominal organs protrude through hole to right of belly button.

No protective covering, meaning they can be irritated by amniotic fluid.

Isolated defect, no association

More common in young (teenage) mothers.

Good prognosis after surgery

571
Q

What is Omphalocele

A

AKA Exomphalos

Abdominal organs protrude through abdominal wall (usually at the belly button), but are covered by an amniotic sac, made of amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

Unlike gastroschisis, has some associations, and associated with advanced maternal age.

572
Q

What conditions are associated with Exomphalos/Omphalocele

A
  • Bekwith-Wiedemann syndrome
  • Downs (Trisomy 21, but also, 13 and 18)
  • Cardiac and kidney malformations
573
Q

How is Exomphalos/Omphalocele managed

A

C section indicated to reduce risk of sac rupture.

Staged repair - to allow lung development
- Sac allowed to granulate and epithelialise
- Forms a shell, when child big enough, contents can be put back into abdomen.

574
Q

What are the types of bowel atresia and oesophageal atresia

A

Bowel (usually small bowel)
- Duodenal, Jejunal, Colonic

Oesophageal
- Oesophageal atresia with tracheosophageal fistula (TEF) most common
- Can be isolated atresia
- Results in a blind pouch or disconnected oesophagus

575
Q

Presentation of bowel vs oesophageal atresia

A

Bowel
- Bilious vomiting
- Abdominal distension
- Failure to pass meconium

Oesophageal
- Drooling/choking post birth
- Difficulty swallowing
- Coughing, gagging, cyanosis
- Abdo distension

576
Q

Investigations in bowel and oesophageal atresia

A

Prenatal USS
- Bowel: Polyhydramnios and bowel loops.
- Oesophageal: Polyhydramnios

X ray:
- Bowel: Dilated bowel loops. Double bubble sign in duodenal.
- Oesophageal: Confirm diagnosis - blind ending oesophagus. Air in stomach if TEF

OA will block NG tube being passed to stomach

577
Q

Which atresia is polyhydramnios most common in

A

Oesophageal - impaired swallowing of amniotic fluid.

Also seen in duodenal atresia, less frequently in other bowel atresias.

578
Q

Associations with bowel atesia

A

Downs (duodenal)
CF (jejunal/ileal atresia)

579
Q

Associations with Oesophageal atresia

A

VACTERL abnormalities
- Vertebral
- Anorectal
- Cardiac
- Transoesophageal
- Renal
- Limb

  • Downs, Trisomy 18
580
Q

Immediate management of the atresias + Long term complications

A

Nasogastric decompression and fluid resuscitation (+prevention of aspiration in oesophageal)

Oesophageal: GORD, Oesophageal strictures, TEF

Bowel: Short bowel syndrome (if resected), malabsorption, need for nutritional support

581
Q

Causes of bilious vomiting in a neonate

A

Duodenal atresia
- Few hours post birth, AXR shows double bubble sign

Malrotation with volvulus
- Incomplete rotation during embryogenesis, 3-7 days post birth
- Emergency, volvulus may cut off blodd supply, causing peritoneal signs
- Treat with Ladd’s procedure

Necrotising enterocolitis
- 2nd week of life
- Dilated bowel loops, pneumatosis, portal venous air

Meconium ileus
- 24-48 hrs, associated with abdo distension, CF
- Air-fluid levels on AXR

582
Q

What is neonatal sepsis and what is it normally caused by

A

Infection in neonatal period. Non specific presentation; low threshold for treatment and high suspicion. Most common in late preterm infants

  • Early (<72 hrs) Group B strep (Lives harmlessly in maternal vagina)

Late onset (7-28 days - post delivery environment, contact from parents)
- E coli (2nd most)
- Staph epidermidis
- Pseudomonas
- Klebsiella
- Enterobacter
- Staph aureus

583
Q

Risk factors for Neonatal sepsis

A
  • Vaginal GBS
  • GBS sepsis in previous birth
  • Maternal sepsis, chorioamnionitis, fever>38C
  • PROM
  • Early rupture of membranes
  • Prematurity
  • Current maternal UTI
584
Q

Presentation of neonatal sepsis

A

Non specific
- Resp distress (grunting, nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles, tachypnoea)
- Tachycardia
- Jaundice
- Seizures (if meningitis)
- Vomiting
- Temperature (Can be high or low)

585
Q

Investigations for neonatal sepsis

A
  • Blood culture definitive. Ideally 2 cultures, to distinguish contamination
  • FBC, CRP
  • Blood gases (metabolic acidosis concerning)
  • Urine MCS
  • Lumbar puncture
586
Q

Management of Neonatal sepsis

A
  • IV Benzylpenicillin with gentamicin, first line.
  • Remeasure CRP 18-24 hours after presentation, if <10 and negative culture, cease Abx

Maintain
- O2 sats
- Fluid/electrolyte status
- Prevention of hypoglycaemia and metabolic acidosis

587
Q

What can be used to prevent apnoea of prematurity

A

Tactile stimulation

IV Caffeine

588
Q

Brief overview of neonatal hyopoglycaemia

A

Normal term often have hypoglycaemia in first 24 hours, which is usually fine because they can use ketones and lactate as fuel. ~<2.6mmol/L

Transient hypoglycaemia common in the few hours post birth!

589
Q

What can cause persistent/severe hypoglycaemia

A
  • Preterm birth
  • Maternal DM
  • IUGR
  • Hypothermia
  • Neonatal sepsis
  • Nesidioblastosis
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
590
Q

Features of neonatal hypoglycaemia and management

A

May be asymptomatic - no treatment just breast feeding and monitoring.

Autonomic
- Jitteriness
- Irritability
- Tachypnoea
- Pallor

Neuroglycopenic
- Poor feeding/sucking
- Weak cry
- Hypotonia
- Seizures
- Drowsy
- Apnoea and hypothermia

If symptomatic, or very low,
- Admit to neonatal unit and IV infusion of 10% dextrose!

591
Q

How many pregnancies are complicated by diabetes

A

1 in 20. 87% of these are gestational diabetes.

2nd most complicatin of pregnancy after HTN.

592
Q

How is gestational diabetes screened for

A

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
- ASAP After booking, again at 24-28 weeks.
- Fasting >5.6, 2-hour glucose >7.8

593
Q

How is gestational diabetes managed

A

See in joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within week

If fasting glucose <7
- diet and exercise
- If doesnt work in 1-2 weeks, start metformin
- If that doesnt work add SHORT ACTING insulin

If fasting glucose >7m start insulin

Glibenclamide if cannot tolerate metformin, or decline insulin

594
Q

How is pre existing diabetes managed in pregnancy

A
  • Weight loss to BMI 27
  • Stop all meds except metformin and start insulin
  • Folic acid 5mg/day, pre conception to 12 weeks
  • Detailed anomaly scan, including 4 heart chambers
  • Retinopathy worsens during pregnancy
595
Q

Glucose targets in diabetes

A

Fasting <5.3
1 hr post meal <7.8
2 hr post meal <6.4

596
Q

Considerations in hypothyroidism in pregnancy

A
  • Thyroxine safe in pregnancy, crosses placenta so need to increase dose by up to 50%
  • Serum TSH measured each trimester and 6-8 weeks post partum
  • Safe to breastfeed on thyroxine
  • Complications include, miscarriage, anaemia, SGA, pre-eclampsia
597
Q

How does pregnancy affect thyroid hormones

A

There is an increase in thyroxine-binding globulin, increasing total thyroxine but not free thyroxine

598
Q

What does untreated thyrotoxicosis cause in pregnancy

A

Increases risk of
- Fetal loss
- Maternal heart failure
- Premature labour

599
Q

What is a rise in Thyroid hormone during first trimester

A

Transient Gestational Hyperthyroidism

TSH receptor activated by HCG - increases in first trimester, decreases in 2 and 3

600
Q

How is hyperthyroidism treated in pregnancy

A

Propylthiouracil!
(Risk of severe hepatic injury though)
Carbimazole associated with increased risk of congenital abnormality so not used

Keep maternal free thyroxine in upper 3rd of normal, so fetus gets enough thyroid hormone

Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies checked 30-36 weeks

NO RADIOIODINE

601
Q

What is a cleft lip and palate

A

1in1000. Most common congenital abnormality affecting orofacial.

  • Polygenic inheritance
  • Maternal antiepileptic use increases risk
  • Lip results from failure of fronto-nasal and maxillary processes to fuse
  • Cleft palate from failure of palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse
602
Q

Problems caused by cleft lip and palate

A

Feeding: Orthodontic devices
Speech: speech therapy
Increased risk of otitis media

603
Q

Management of cleft lip and palate

A

Lip repaired first first week-3 months
Palate repaired 6-12 months

604
Q

What is group B strep

A

Strep agalctiae. Transferred from mother to baby during labour. Harmless in maternal vagina but can cause serious infection; Sepsis, pneumonia, respiratory distress, meningitis

Late onset (7-89 days): Meningitis, bacteraemia, focal infections (bone joint tissue)

605
Q

How is GBS prevented and what are its complications

A

Recto-vaginal swab for GBS at 35-37 weeks

Intrapartum antibiotics for at risk or confirmed

  • Neurodevelopmental impairment (esp meningitis)
  • High mortality (10-20%)
606
Q

Risk factors for listeria infection

A

Listeria monocytogenes (Gram positive rod)

  • Maternal consumption of contaminated food (Unpasteurised dairy, deli meat, smoked seafood)
  • Immunocompromised
  • Preterm birth
607
Q

Investigations of listeria infection

A

Blood culture
CSF culture
Placental/cord culture

CSF analysis shows elevated protein, low glucose, increased WBC (pleocytosis)

608
Q

Effect of listeria on child

A

Sepsis, meningitis, pneumonia

609
Q

Management of listeria

A

IV Amoxicillin or ampicillin

+ Gentamicin

610
Q

What is herpes simplex encephalopathy

A

Encephalitis caused by HSV-1

Usually attacks the temporal lobes, but also inferior frontal

611
Q

Features of herpes simplex encephalopathy

A
  • Fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, vomiting
  • Focal temporal lobe signs: Anterograde/Retrograde amnesia, Auditory hallucinations, Aphasia (Wernicke’s - posterior part of superior temporal gyrus), emotional changes, recognition changes
612
Q

Investigation and management of HSV encephalitis

A
  • CSF: lymphocytosis, elevated protein
  • PCR for HSV
  • CT: Medial temporal and inferior frontal changes (e.g. petechial haemorrhages). MRI preferred.
  • EEG lateralised period discharges at 2Hz

Managed with aciclovir

613
Q

How is hearing tested in children

A

Newborn - Otoacoustic emission test
Infants - Auditory brainstem response test
6-9 months - Distraction test
<2.5yo - Recognition of familiar objects
>2.5yo - Performance or speech discrimination testing
>3yo - Pure tone audiometry

614
Q

How/when should you do CPR on a child (not baby)

A

when HR <60bpm (bradycardic).

Start with 5 rescue breaths, then 15 compressions: 2 breaths. 100-120/min, lower half of sternum.

615
Q

Main causes of meconium ileus

A

Meconium hasnt passed.

CF
Hirschprungs

Big differentials to rule out

616
Q

Red flag symptoms in a child

A

Really Sick Babies Get Antibiotics
1. Recessions (moderate or severe chest wall recessions)
2. Skin turgor reduced
3. Blue or mottled appearance
4. Grunting
5. Asleep (does not wake if aroused)

617
Q

Shaken baby triad

A

Retinal haemorrhage, Subdural haematoma, Encephalopathy

618
Q

What is hand foot mouth disease

A

Self limiting condition caused by coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71

  • Causes mild coryzal symptoms
  • Oral ulcers
  • Red vescilces on palms and feet
619
Q

How are headlice diagnosed and treated

A

Diagnosed: Fine toothed combing of wet or dry hair

Malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate and cyclomethicone, Patient can choose

No school exclusion

620
Q

What is infantile colic

A

Relatively common, benign presentation where baby (<3 months) has colic. Self resolves.

621
Q

What is immune thrombocytopenic purpura in children

A

Immune/idiopathic reduction in platelet count.

Antibodies created against glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex.

Typically more acute in children, and normally follows infection or vaccination.

TYPE 2 HYPERSENSITIVITY

622
Q

Features of ITP

A

Pupuric rash - non blanching spots of bleeding under the skin
Bruising
Bleeding less common - usually presents as nose or gum bleeding

623
Q

Investigations in ITP

A

full blood count
- should demonstrate an isolated thrombocytopenia

blood film

bone marrow examinations is only required if there are atypical features e.g.
lymph node enlargement/splenomegaly, high/low white cells
failure to resolve/respond to treatment

624
Q

Management of ITP in kids

A

Usually no treatment required
- ITP resolves in 80% of children within 6 months, with or without treatment

Avoid trauma (e.g. team sports)

If platelet count very low
- Steroids, IV immunoglobulins, platelet transfusion EMERGENCY only

625
Q

How does ITP Contrast in adults compared to kids

A

More chronic, childrens tends to be acute and self resolves

More likely to bleed (catastrophic uncommon)

Managed with oral prednisolone
IV immunoglobulins raises platelet count faster

626
Q

What is evans syndrome

A

ITP associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

627
Q

What is fanconi anaemia

A

Autosomal recessive

  • Aplastic anaemia, increased risk of AML
  • Neurological changes
  • Short stature and thumb/radius abnormalities
  • Cafe au lait spots (look like spilt tea or coffee)
628
Q

What are the acquired haemolytic anaemias

A

Acquired (immune mediated - Coombs positive)
- Autoimmune: Warm/cold antibody type
- Alloimmune: Transfusion reaction, haemolytic disease of the newborn
- Drugs: Methyldopa, penicillin

Acquired
- Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia: TTP/HUS, DIC, malignancy, pre-eclampsia
- Prosthetic heart valves
- Malaria
- Zieve syndrome: Coombs-negative haemolysis

629
Q

Life threatening asthma exacerbation criteria

A

SpO2 <92%

PEF <33% best or predicted

Silent chest

Poor respiratory effort

Agitation

Altered consciousness

Cyanosis

630
Q

What is intestinal malrotation associated with

A
  • exomphalos,
  • congenital diaphragmatic hernia
  • intrinsic duodenal atresia