Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the process of disposal of the dead
when there is no next of kin available to
arrange a funeral.

A

Local Authorities can arrange cremations or
burials, recover costs from the deceased’s
estate, and follow specific procedures to
search the residence, find necessary
documents, and register the death.

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2
Q

How does the repatriation process for
deceased individuals work, especially when
the body is being taken out of the UK?

A

The funeral director must obtain permission
from the local coroner, provide various
documents, ensure embalming, and meet
specific requirements before transporting the
body to the destination country.

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3
Q

Define embalming and explain its purpose in
the context of preserving a body

A

Embalming involves injecting embalming fluid
to preserve a body, improve its appearance,
and prevent decay. It requires specific
protective gear, family permission, and may
involve wax for damaged areas.

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4
Q

What are the considerations and procedures
involved in private burials, especially in terms
of public health, planning, and groundwater
impact?

A

Private burials should consider public health
laws, planning permissions, and groundwater
protection regulations. SEPA
recommendations include using
biodegradable coffins, keeping records, and
avoiding specific distances from water
sources.

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5
Q

Describe the process and challenges
associated with exhumations in Scotland,
including the legal steps and authorities
involved.

A

Exhumations in Scotland require legal
authorization, involvement of next of kin,
solicitors, cemetery administrators, and the
Sheriff. The process is complex, costly, and
time-consuming for all parties.

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6
Q

Explain the concept of communicable
diseases and how they are managed under
the Public Health (Scotland) Act 2008.

A

Communicable diseases are illnesses that can
spread between individuals. Outbreaks are
identified through linked cases, and
responsible authorities like LAs and HPA/HPS
manage notifiable diseases as per the Act’s
Schedule 1.

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7
Q

Describe the purpose of a quarantine order
under the Public Health (Scotland) Act.

A

A quarantine order allows a health board to
detain a person in their house of residence or
another place to prevent the spread of
infectious diseases.

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7
Q

Define a public health incident as per the Act.

A

A public health incident occurs when a person
has an infectious disease, has been exposed
to an organism causing infectious disease, is
contaminated, exposed to a contaminant, or
when premises are infected, infested, or
contaminated.

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8
Q

How is an outbreak control plan structured
between Health Boards and Local Authorities?

A

An outbreak control plan details
arrangements and actions for setting up an
Outbreak Control Team (OCT), describes roles
of key members, provides aim statements,
and sets out arrangements for patient care
and public information.

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9
Q

Describe the role of a Problem Assessment
Group (PAG) in outbreak control.

A

A PAG is an informal meeting between public
health officials, microbiologists, and EHOs to
decide if an Outbreak Control Team (OCT) is
needed based on the severity, spread, and
immediate health hazard of a disease
outbreak.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of a Section 73 Notice
under the Public Health (Scotland) Act 2008?

A

A Section 73 Notice places a duty on the
owner or occupier of infected premises to
disinfect, disinfest, or decontaminate within a
specified time period.

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9
Q

How does integrated pest management work
in pest control?

A

Integrated pest management is a planned
program that includes continuous monitoring,
education, record-keeping, and
communication to prevent pests and disease
vectors from causing damage by using the ER-D principle: Exclusion, Restriction, and
Destruction.

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10
Q

Describe the process of assessing and solving
pest problems in an area like Govanhill.

A

Identify reasons for pest attraction, evaluate
if good housekeeping can solve the issue,
consider non-chemical methods, choose
appropriate chemical pesticides, and assess
post-treatment actions.

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10
Q

Define the identification characteristics of a
Brown Rat.

A

Coarse brown fur, hairless ears, tail shorter
than body, terrestrial, and occupies areas
with humans.

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11
Q

How can rodent activity be detected in a
building?

A

Look for droppings, grease smears, UV-visible
urine, odors, runways, tracks, gnawing
damage, and nests.

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12
Q

Describe the health risks associated with
cockroaches.

A

They can cause allergies, contaminate food
with pathogens like salmonella, and transport
disease-causing organisms.

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13
Q

What are the signs of a bed bug infestation?

A

Presence in mattresses, behind furniture,
blood spotting, sweet smell, live or dead
bugs, eggs, and customer complaints

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13
Q

Explain the impacts of stored product insects
on goods.

A

They cause weight loss in products, economic
losses, damage to goodwill, loss of
production, and require strict monitoring and
cleaning measures.

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14
Q

How can bed bug infestations be treated?

A

Through physical removal of infected items,
vacuuming, heat treatment, steam treatment,
cold treatment, mattress encasements, and
approved chemical methods.

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14
Q

Describe the factors that authorities should
consider when determining if a nuisance
exists based on the impact on individuals.

A

Authorities should consider the degree of
health risk interference, the number of people
affected, the distance from the source, and
the sensitivity of the receptor

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15
Q

Define the term ‘statutory nuisances’ as per
the Environmental Protection Act 1990.

A

Statutory nuisances include various
conditions such as smoke, fumes, noise, dust,
and accumulations that are prejudicial to
health or a nuisance.

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15
Q

How does the time of occurrence impact the
perception of nuisances like odours?

A

Odours are typically more bothersome when
the public is outdoors, affecting the degree of
annoyance and impact.

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16
Q

Describe the significance of frequency in
determining a nuisance.

A

Frequent or continuous nuisances are more
likely to be considered a nuisance compared
to those that occur infrequently

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17
Q

Define the concept of ‘avoidability’ in the
context of nuisance abatement.

A

Avoidability refers to whether reasonable
steps have been taken to minimize the
impact of an activity, even if it holds social
importance

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18
Q

How does convention play a role in
determining what constitutes a nuisance?

A

Convention considers what a reasonable
person would find objectionable, taking into
account common practices and accepted
behaviors in a given area

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19
Q

Describe the concept of statutory nuisance as
outlined in the content.

A

Statutory nuisance refers to any
accumulation, deposit, animal, noise, or other
matter declared prejudicial to health or a
nuisance by law, which can lead to legal
action.

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20
Q

Define the ‘best practicable means’ defense
mentioned in the content.

A

The ‘best practicable means’ defense refers
to the statutory provision that exempts
industrial or trade premises from liability for
nuisances if they can prove they have taken
all reasonable steps to prevent or minimize
the nuisance.

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20
Q

How does the Sewerage (Scotland) Act 1968
address defective drainage issues?

A

The Act allows for serving notices to
owners/occupiers of properties with defective
drainage, giving them 7 days to rectify the
issue. If not fixed, the council can carry out
default work and recover expenses.

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21
Q

Describe the purpose of Section 95 of the
Civic Government (Scotland) Act 1982.

A

Section 95 aims to keep open and private
spaces free from dangers and nuisances,
allowing local authorities to issue notices for
the removal of waste or vegetation causing
hazards.

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22
Q

What does the Prevention of Damage by
Pests Act 1949 entail?

A

The Act empowers councils to issue notices to
landowners for rat and mice control, requiring
specific treatments or repairs. Failure to
comply may lead to the council conducting
the works and recovering expenses.

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22
Q

What is the purpose of a fixed penalty notice
in accordance with section 80?

A

To offer the opportunity of discharging any
liability to conviction by payment of a fixed
penalty

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22
Q

Describe the consequences of failing to
comply with a notice served by the Local
Authority

A

It is considered an offence, and the person
may face legal consequences.

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23
Q

Define ‘best practicable means’ in the context
of non-compliance with an abatement notice.

A

It refers to using the most effective methods
available to address the issue, subject to the
discretion of the Local Authority

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24
Q

How are default works carried out by the
Local Authority prioritized?

A

Considerations include the number of people
affected, health impact, cost-effectiveness,
permanence of the repair, duration of the
nuisance, property damage, living space
impact, owner availability, funding sources,
and likelihood of recurrence.

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24
Q

Describe the process when a matter
regarding non-compliance is referred to the
Procurator Fiscal.

A

Factors considered include the recipient’s
efforts to comply, level of cooperation,
previous default works, involvement of other
agencies, complainant satisfaction, and
feedback from the Procurator Fiscal office.

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25
Q

What are the main duties outlined for
addressing health issues such as dirty
houses, common stairs, defective drains, and
infestations?

A

Legislation specifies requirements for
cleansing, maintenance, repair, and
prevention of health hazards, with potential
penalties for non-compliance.

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26
Q

Describe the process of breakpoint
chlorination in pool water treatment.

A

Breakpoint chlorination involves adding
chlorine to a pool to form monochloramine
and then dichloramine. As more chlorine is
added, chloramines break up until a point
where free chlorine rises without an increase
in combined chlorine, indicating successful
oxidation of pollutants.

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27
Q

Define Cryptosporidium and its transmission.

A

Cryptosporidium is a single-celled parasitic
protozoan that causes symptoms like watery
diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. It is
transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

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27
Q

How can the risk of infections in swimming
pools be minimized?

A

Risk of infections in swimming pools can be
minimized by encouraging pre-swim showers,
ensuring swimmers use toilets before
swimming, not allowing swimmers with recent
contagious infections, discouraging children
under 6 years old, and providing adequate
nappy changing facilities

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28
Q

Describe the process for handling diarrheal
fouling in a pool suspected of
Cryptosporidium contamination.

A

In case of diarrheal fouling, the pool should be
closed, disinfectants maintained at a high
level, pool vacuumed and swept, filters
backwashed, and final disinfectant residual
levels and pH values checked. This process is
specifically used for suspected
Cryptosporidium contamination.

29
Q

What are the swimming pool standards for
free chlorine, combined chlorine, pH,
alkalinity, hardness, and TDS?

A

Free chlorine should be 1.5-2.0mg/L,
combined chlorine should be less than free
chlorine, pH should be 7.2-7.8, alkalinity
should be 75-220mg/L, hardness should be
75mg/L, and TDS should be below 1000mg/L,
with a maximum of 3000mg/L.

30
Q

Define the term ‘coagulation’ in the context of
water treatment.

A

Coagulant added to water and mixed, then
water passes to flocculation tank for gentle
stirring to increase flocculation.

30
Q

What is the purpose of fine screening in water
treatment?

A

Fine screening follows coarse screens and
traps fine suspended solids.

31
Q

Describe the process of disinfection in water
treatment.

A

Disinfection reduces microbial numbers to an
acceptable level, with methods like ozone,
UV, and chlorination used for this purpose.

31
Q

Describe the parameters mentioned in the
content related to water quality.

A

The parameters include coli, copper, lead,
THM, hydrogen ion pH, iron, manganese,
coliform bacteria, colony count, and
Clostridium perfringens.

31
Q

What steps must be taken if samples fail to
meet micro and chemical parameters in a
Type A PWS?

A

Relevant persons must be notified
immediately, steps for maintenance of the
system or distribution system must be
identified, and consumers must be informed.

32
Q

Describe the process of issuing a ‘boil water’
notice as per the content.

A

If E.coli is present in the water, an
unsatisfactory micro test triggers the
issuance of a ‘boil water’ notice to consumers,
with further sampling and notifications to
relevant authorities.

33
Q

Describe the life cycle of flies such as Lucilia
spp

A

Flies undergo complete metamorphosis with 4
stages: eggs, larva, pupa, and adult. The
duration of each stage depends on
temperature and food/moisture availability.

34
Q

Define Stored Product Insects (SPI) and
provide examples.

A

SPI are significant pests that spend most of
their life in chosen products. Examples
include Bruchid Beetle, Dried Fruit Beetle,
Flour Mite, Tobacco Beetle, Rice Weevil, and
Grain Weevil.

35
Q

How can infestations of Stored Product
Insects (SPI) be identified?

A

Signs of infestation include dead or alive
insects, moth webbing, damaged goods, and
unusual smells.

36
Q

What are some methods for population
reduction of pests like birds

A

Methods include culling, trapping, stupefying
baits, shooting (licensed), egg pricking, egg
oiling, and nest destruction.

37
Q

Describe the statutory nuisances related to
general health duties.

A

Statutory nuisances include factors like
impact, locality, time, frequency, duration,
convention, importance, and avoidability.

38
Q

What are the key aspects of the Prevention of
Damage by Pests Act 1949?

A

The Act requires complete destruction of rats
and mice on land, served on the owner, to
prevent damage and contamination by pests.

39
Q

Define the responsibilities regarding
swimming pools according to relevant
legislation.

A

While there is no specific legislation,
responsibilities for swimming pools fall under
the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974,
Water Supply Regulations 2001, and Control
of Substances Hazardous to Health
Regulations 2002.

39
Q

How are licensed activities regulated under
the CGA 1982?

A

Local Authorities attach conditions to licensed
activities like street trading, public
entertainment, late-night catering, window
cleaning, and tattooing before granting a
license.

40
Q

Describe the process for dealing with
defective drains according to relevant
legislation.

A

Legislation like the Sewerage (Scotland) Act
1968 and the Civic Government Act 1982
outline procedures for identifying and
rectifying defective drains, including serving
notices to owners for repairs.

41
Q

How are dirty houses and common stairs
regulated under the Civic Government Act
1982?

A

The Act places duties on occupants to keep
common property clean, with provisions for
LA notices to ensure cleanliness. Failure to
comply can result in penalties.

42
Q

What are the criteria for a statutory nuisance
under the EPA 1990, Section 79?

A

Statutory nuisances include various factors
like smoke, fumes, dust, water, animals,
insects, noise, and other matters that are
prejudicial to health or a nuisance, as outlined
in the legislation.

43
Q

How are abatement notices served under the
EPA 1990, Section 80 enforced?

A

Local Authorities can serve abatement notices
for statutory nuisances, specifying actions
required, timeframes, and consequences for
non-compliance. Offences can lead to fines or
works by default.

44
Q

Describe the process of appealing an
abatement notice under the EPA 1990,
Section 80.

A

Individuals have the right to appeal
abatement notices within 21 days to a sheriff,
presenting defences like reasonable excuse or
best practicable means used to address the
nuisance.

45
Q

Describe the process outlined in the
Sewerage (Scotland) Act 1968 for dealing
with defective drainage.

A

If a drainage defect persists after 7 days, a
notice is served on the owner, and the Local
Authority can carry out works by default and
recover expenses.

46
Q

How can cockroach infestations be controlled
through sanitation measures?

A

By practicing good housekeeping, proper food
storage, waste disposal, screening vents and
windows, reducing access to water sources,
and ensuring regular cleaning of kitchen
areas.

47
Q

Define the role of Port Health in relation to
international travel and public health.

A

Port Health conducts inspections on ships
arriving from international travel to assess
public health risks on board, covering areas
like food safety, water quality, medical
facilities, waste management, and pest
control.

48
Q

What are some signs of a cockroach
infestation?

A

Signs include ootheca cases, dead
cockroaches, faeces, and an ammonia smell
indicating a heavy infestation.

49
Q

How does the Public Health Act 2008
empower Local Authorities in controlling
infections

A

The Act allows for serving notices on
occupiers or owners of infected premises,
specifying steps to disinfect or
decontaminate, with the authority to take
action if steps are not followed

50
Q

Describe the process of notification and
investigation of notifiable diseases as per the
PHA 2008.

A

Health boards receive notifications,
investigate cases within 1 working day,
complete forms to find the source, and may
set up Outbreak Control Teams if necessary.

51
Q

Define SSI certificate and its two types

A

SSI certificate includes Ship Sanitation Control
Certificate (SSCC) and Ship Sanitation Control
Exemption Certificate (SSCEC). SSCC is issued
when a public health risk is detected on
board, while SSCEC is given when there is no
evidence of such risks.

52
Q

Describe the process of outbreak control in
public health incidents.

A

Outbreak control involves identifying 2 or
more linked cases of the same illness or an
unusually high number of cases. It can be
minor with little intervention or major with
heightened media and public interest.

53
Q

How can rodent control be achieved using
non-chemical methods?

A

Non-chemical rodent control methods include
trapping using spring traps, back break traps,
and glue boards (with caution).

54
Q

What is the first priority of an Integrated Pest
Management (IPM) program for insects?

A

The first priority of an IPM program for insects
is to identify and address issues such as
droppings, harbourages, sanitation
deficiencies, maintenance deficiencies, and
educate employees.

55
Q

Describe the life cycle of cockroaches

A

Cockroaches undergo incomplete
metamorphosis, where most species lay eggs
in an egg case (ootheca). The egg stage lasts
from a few days to a few months, and it takes
1-12 months for them to reach sexual
maturity.

56
Q

What are the signs of rodent activity that can
be observed?

A

Signs of rodent activity include droppings,
urine (visible under UV light), distinctive
odors, runways (indoors and outdoors),
grease marks, tracks, gnawing damage, and
nests.

57
Q

Describe the process of breakpoint
chlorination in water treatment.

A

Breakpoint chlorination is a process where the
addition of chlorine allows the formation of
monochloramine and dichloramine. As more
chlorine is added, chloramines break up,
causing levels to fall to the breakpoint. Free
chlorine rises without an increase in
combined chlorine.

58
Q

What are the key parameters monitored in
Type A public water supply sampling?

A

Parameters monitored include Enterococci,
E.coli, Copper, Lead, THM, pH, Iron,
Manganese, Coliform bacteria, Colony count,
and C.perfringens.

59
Q

How is a failure investigation conducted in
public water supplies

A

A failure investigation identifies the cause and
extent of failure, notifies relevant persons,
and takes steps to address issues related to
system maintenance or distribution. It
involves notifying consumers, potential
consumers, and relevant authorities, along
with issuing notices and taking remedial
actions.

60
Q

Describe the requirements for a Private Water
Supply in Scotland.

A

Private Water Supplies are not provided by a
statutory water undertaker, and their
maintenance lies with the owner. All PWS
must be registered with the local authority,
which classifies and maintains a register of
these supplies.

61
Q

What are the key parameters in the Drinking
Water Quality Standards in Scotland?

A

Parameters include Total coliforms, Faecal
coliforms, Colour, Turbidity, pH, Aluminium,
Iron, Manganese, Lead, and THM’s, each with
specific standards to meet.

62
Q

How is smoking regulated under the Smoking,
Health & Social Care (Scotland) Act 2005?

A

The Act prohibits smoking in no-smoking
premises, requires warning notices to be
displayed, and outlines specific exemptions
such as residential areas, adult hospices,
private vehicles (subject to change),
designated hotel bedrooms, and certain
detention or interview rooms.

63
Q

Describe the documents required for the
removal of a body from Scotland.

A

2 copies of death certificate, FD details at
collection point, arrangements for reception
and disposal of body, certificates of
registration of death, embalming certificate,
free from infectious disease certificate,
customs clearance, flight details, confirmation
from country of destination, and deceased
passport.

64
Q

Define the procedure for disposal of the dead
under the National Assistance Act 1948.

A

Local authorities can arrange cremations or
burials if there is no next of kin to carry out a
funeral. Costs incurred are recovered from the
deceased’s estate

65
Q

How is embalming defined and what are the
requirements for embalmers?

A

Embalming is the preservation of a body
through arterial injection of embalming fluid.
Embalmers must wear nitrile gloves, arm
protectors, aprons, eye protection, and
wellies. Permission from family members is
required.

66
Q

Describe the process of private burials and
the considerations involved.

A

There is no law against private burials.
Environmental, planning, and public health
factors are considered. Bodies are often
embalmed and placed in biodegradable
coffins away from water sources

67
Q

What are the regulations regarding tobacco
control under the Tobacco Primary Medical
(Scotland) Act 2010?

A

Regulations include fixed penalties for
traders, restrictions on underage selling,
display bans, licensing requirements, and
plain packaging rules.

68
Q

Explain the process and requirements for
exhumations.

A

Legal authorization is needed. Next of kin
must inquire with the cemetery administrator,
contact a solicitor, and obtain a license from
the sheriff. The process involves confirming
burial details, obtaining feasibility certificates,
and ensuring re-interment plans.

69
Q

Define disinfection methods like ozone, UV,
and chlorination in water treatment.

A

Ozone has powerful oxidizing properties, UV is
used in small plants, and chlorination is costeffective with residual effects. Chlorination
can lead to disinfection byproducts like
trihalomethanes, regulated by water quality
regulations.

70
Q

Describe the process of clarification in water
treatment.

A

Clarification in water treatment involves
removing flocs by allowing them to settle out
through sedimentation or using air to float
them to the surface through floatation.

70
Q

Describe the concept of wholesomeness in
water supply for human consumption.

A

Water is considered wholesome if it does not
contain microbes, parasites, or harmful
substances when supplied from a public water
source for human consumption

71
Q

Define rapid sand filtration in water
treatment

A

Rapid sand filtration is a physical-chemical
process where water is strained through a
bed of coarse grain sand, allowing rapid
passage due to large gaps, often covered with
activated carbon to absorb impurities.

72
Q

Describe the requirements for obtaining a
license for riding establishments as per the
Riding Establishments Act 1964 & 1970.

A

Licenses for riding establishments are
distributed by the Local Authority for a fee,
based on a report from a listed veterinary
practitioner, ensuring suitable care, good
condition of horses, proper accommodation,
hygiene controls, and fire safety procedures.

72
Q

How does slow sand filtration differ from rapid
sand filtration in water treatment?

A

Slow sand filtration is a physical-biological
process where water passes through a deep
bed of fine sand at a slower flow rate,
developing a biologically active layer to
breakdown organic matter

73
Q

What are some key aspects covered in the
Animal Health & Welfare Act 2006 in
Scotland?

A

The Act details protected animals, offenses
related to causing harm, cruel operations,
poisoning animals, animal fighting, animals in
distress, care notices, licensing of activities
involving animals, and prohibitions on
keeping certain animals

74
Q

Define coagulation and flocculation in the
context of water treatment.

A

Coagulation and flocculation are processes in
water treatment where chemical coagulants
with opposite charges are added to water to
neutralize particles, allowing them to clump
together (flocculate) and form larger flocs
that can be easily removed.

74
Q

How can the risk of infections be minimized in
swimming pools?

A

Risk of infections in swimming pools can be
minimized by encouraging pre-swim showers,
using the toilet before swimming, avoiding
swimming with contagious infections,
providing nappy changing facilities, and
maintaining proper disinfection and filtration
processes.

75
Q

Describe the purpose of aeration in treatment
processes.

A

Aeration in water treatment processes helps
to improve water quality by increasing
dissolved oxygen levels removing soluble
gases and volatile organics, reducing acidity
and corrosiveness, removing iron and
manganese, and enhancing taste.

76
Q

How does micro-straining work in water
treatment processes?

A

Micro-straining involves using a rotating drum
with a steel micromesh fabric to trap fine
suspended solids (SS) larger than 20
micrometers, such as algae and plankton,
thereby improving the operational time of
sand filters and reducing clogging rates.

77
Q

Describe the purpose of screening in water
treatment.

A

Screening in water treatment involves the use
of bars or drums to remove coarse and fine
materials like weeds, branches, and gross
debris to prevent damage to subsequent
processes, reduce maintenance costs, and
ensure the efficient operation of downstream
treatment stages.

78
Q

What are some common problems associated
with water storage in reservoirs?

A

Common problems with water storage in
reservoirs include atmospheric fallout, bird
pollution, algal development affecting taste
and odor, the need for large land
requirements, and the potential for
stratification in deep reservoirs.

79
Q

Explain the key components of a conventional
water treatment process

A

A conventional water treatment process
typically includes storage prior to treatment,
screening to remove coarse and fine
materials, aeration to improve water quality,
coagulation and flocculation to neutralize
particles, clarification, filtration, disinfection,
and final storage before distribution.