Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phase 4 > PTS Mock 1 > Flashcards

PTS Mock 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the surface antigen for Hep B ?
A
  • HBsAg
  • The first marker and causes production of anti-HBs
  • Implies acute disease (1-6 months)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What antigen against Hep B implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation) ?
A
  • Anti-HBs
  • Negative in chronic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What antigen against Hep B implies previous or current infection ?
A
  • Anti-HBc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What antigens present during acute or recent Hep B infection and is present for about 6 months ?
A
  • IgM anti-HBc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What antigens would suggest previous immunisation ?
A
  • Anti-HBs positive
  • All other antigens negative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What antigens would suggest previous (>6 months) Hep B infection and not a carrier ?
A
  • Anti-HBc
  • HBsAg negative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What antigens would suggest previous Hep B infection and now a carrier ?
A
  • Anti-HBc positive
  • HBsAg positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. How would CSF findings present with bacterial meningitis ?
A
  • Cloud/turbid CSF
  • Predominantly neutrophils
  • High protein
  • Low glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. How would CSF findings present with viral meningitis ?
A
  • Clear CSF
  • Predominantly lymphocytes
  • Normal/high protein
  • Normal glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. How would CSF findings present with TB meningitis ?
A
  • Cloudy and viscous CSF
  • Predominantly lymphocytes
  • High protein
  • Low glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What are contraindications for performing a lumbar puncture ?
A
  • Infected skin over puncture
  • Increased intracranial pressure
  • Trauma to lumbar vertebrae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What are complications of meningitis ?
A
  • Septic shock
  • Hearing loss
  • Seizures
  • Intellectual impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What are findings of a breast lump that may suggest malignancy ?
A
  • Non-tender lump
  • Peau d’orange
  • Dimpling of skin
  • Ulceration
  • Rash around nipple
  • New nipple inversion
  • Bloody nipple discharge
  • Weight loss
  • Cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What occurs at a triple assessment breast clinic ?
A
  • Examination
  • Imaging
  • Biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What are the main 2 surgical approaches to a breast carcinoma ?
A
  • Lumpectomy
  • Wide local excision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What histological findings will inform an MDT in treatment planning ?
A
  • Tumour size
  • Tumour grade
  • Lymph node involvement
  • Completeness of excision/if the margins are clear
  • Vascular invasion
  • Oestrogen receptor status/progesterone receptor status/ steroid receptor status
  • Her2 status
17
Q
  1. When does breast screening occur ?
A
  • Every 3 years
  • Between ages of 50 and 71
18
Q
  1. If a patient is found to be a BRAC1 carrier how often should she be invited for screening and what imaging modality should be used ?
A
  • Annual MRI scan
19
Q
  1. What tissue does the majority of breast cancer arise from ?
A
  • Ductal or lobular
20
Q
  1. What is the most common type of breast cancer ?
A
  • Invasive ductal carcinoma
21
Q
  1. What are common types of breast cancer ?
A
  • Invasive ductal carcinoma
  • Invasive lobular carcinoma
  • Ductal carcinoma-in-situ
  • Lobular carcinoma-in-situ
22
Q
  1. What type of cancer is Paget’s disease of the nipple associated with ?
A
  • 90% of patients will have an invasive carcinoma if underlying mass lesion
  • 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma in situ if no mass
23
Q
  1. RFs for Breast Cancer
A
  • BRAC1 and BRAC2 genes
  • 1st degree premenopausal relative with breast cancer
  • Nulliparity
  • Early menarche
  • Late menopause
  • Combined HRT
  • COCP
  • Not breastfeeding
  • P53 gene mutation
  • Obesity
24
Q
  1. What type of disease are crypt abscesses associated with ?
A
  • Ulcerative colitis
25
Q
  1. What would see on biopsy of a patient with UC ?
A
  • Continuous inflammation
  • Goblet cell depletion
  • Ulceration
  • Pseudopolyps
  • Mucosal inflammation
  • Crypt abscesses
26
Q
  1. What would one see on histology of a Crohn’s patients ?
A
  • Inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa
  • Goblet cells
  • Granulomas
27
Q
  1. What would be seen on colonoscopy for Crohn’s disease
A
  • Skip lesions
  • Deep ulcers
  • Strictures
  • Proximal bowel dilation
  • Ulcers
  • Fistulae
28
Q
  1. What can be seen on colonoscopy for UC ?
A
  • Red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily
  • No inflammation beyond the submucosa
  • Widespread ulceration with pseudopolyps
  • Crypt abscesses
  • Depletion of goblet cells
29
Q
  1. What investigation is preferred for patients with severe colitis and why ?
A
  • Flexible sigmoidoscopy
  • Colonoscopy should be avoided due to the risk of perforation
30
Q
  1. What biopsy findings would be suggestive of coeliac disease ?
A
  • Villous atrophy
  • Crypt hyperplasia
  • Intraepithelial lymphocytes

Phase 4 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions