Last Push Flashcards

1
Q
  1. How does pancreatitis present ?
A
  • Acute severe abdominal pain
  • Vomiting, nausea and fever
  • Tachycardia or shock
  • Peritonitis
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2
Q
  1. 3 common causes of pancreatitis ?
A
  • Alcohol
  • Gallstones
  • ERCPs
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3
Q
  1. How is pancreatitis investigated ?
A
  • Obs
  • Routine bloods including LFTS, Amylase (or lipase), calcium
  • ABG if 02 demand
  • USS or CT depending on clinical picture
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4
Q
  1. What score can measure severity of pancreatitis ?
A
  • Glasgow score
  • PANCREAS
  • Pa02 < 8
  • Age > 55
  • Neutrophils (WBC > 15)
  • Calcium < 2
  • Urea > 16
  • Enzymes (AST/ALT 200)
  • Albumin < 32
  • Sugar (glucose > 10)
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5
Q
  1. How is pancreatitis managed ?
A
  • IV fluid resuscitation
  • Anglesea
  • Eat as able
  • Cholecystectomy
  • CT if unwell 7-10 days after presentation
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6
Q
  1. How can UGI bleed risk be stratified ?
A
  • Blatchford score
  • 0 = no intervention and discharge early
  • > 6 = likely to need urgent intervention
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7
Q
  1. What are the most common causes of small bowel obstruction ?
A
  • Adhesions
  • Incarcerated hernia
  • Crohn’s
  • Malignancy
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8
Q
  1. How is a small bowel obstruction managed ?
A
  • NBM
  • IV fluids
  • NG tube for decompression
  • Most have conservative management
  • (Analgesia and antiemetics)
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9
Q

What type of small bowel obstructions are operated on ?

A
  • Closed loop obstructions
  • Surgical emergency
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10
Q
  1. How is ileus managed ?
A
  • NG tube
  • Fluids
  • Daily bloods
  • Encourage mobilization and reducing opioids
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11
Q
  1. How is Diverticular disease managed ?
A
  • Diverticular disease Fluid and simple analgesia
  • Acute diverticulitis: Abx, IVI, analgesia, Ix with flexi sig
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12
Q
  1. What surgery could be performed for severe diverticulitis ?
A
  • Harmann’s
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13
Q
  1. In AAA how often is it monitored ?
A
  • 3-4.5cm yearly USS
  • 4.5-5.4: 3 monthly USS
  • > 5.5/growing >1cm/yr/unstable – urgent
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14
Q
  1. How is AAA rupture managed ?
A
  • Oxygen
  • Access
  • Urgent bloods including crossmatch
  • Assess whether stable
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15
Q
  1. Most important sites for renal stones ?
A
  • Pelviuteric junction
  • Pelvic brim
  • Vesicouteric junction
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16
Q
  1. DDs for upper right abdo pain ?
A
  • Cholecystitis
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Ureteric colic
  • Hepatitis
  • Pneumonia
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17
Q
  1. DDs for lower right abdo pain ?
A
  • Appendicitis
  • Ureteric colic
  • Inguinal hernia
  • IBD
  • UTI
  • Gynecological pain
  • Testicular torsion
18
Q
  1. DDs for upper left abdo pain ?
A
  • Gastric ulcer
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Ureteric colic
  • Pneumonia
19
Q
  1. DDs for lower left abdo pain ?
A
  • Diverticulitis
  • Ureteric colic
  • Inguinal hernia
  • IBD
  • UTI
  • Gynecological
  • Testicular torsion
20
Q
  1. What are differentials for dysmenorrhea ?
A
  • PID
  • Endometriosis
  • Fibroids
  • Adenomyosis
21
Q
  1. What is the gold standard investigation endometriosis ?
A
  • Laparoscopy
22
Q
  1. What is endometriosis management ?
A
  • 1st line NSAIDS or paracetamol
  • Hormonal – COCP or progesterone
  • Surgical – Laparoscopic to excise or ablate – or hysterectomy
23
Q
  1. How does adenomyosis present ?
A
  • Dysmenorrhea
  • Menorrhagia
  • Enlarged boggy uterus
24
Q
  1. How is adenomyosis investigated ?
A
  • 1st line = transvaginal USS
25
Q
  1. How is adenomyosis managed ?
A
  • TXA
  • GnRH agonists
  • Uterine artery embolization
  • Definite treatment – hysterectomy
26
Q
  1. How does fibroids present ?
A
  • May be asymptomatic
  • Menorrhagia
  • Subfertility
  • Bulk-related symptoms
  • Lower abdominal pain
  • Bloating
  • Urinary symptoms
27
Q
  1. How is fibroids investigated ?
A
  • Transvaginal USS
28
Q
  1. How is fibroids managed ?
A
  • Asymptomatic – monitor size and growth
  • Menorrhagia – Levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSIADs, TXA, COCP
  • Treatment to shrink or remove e.g. GnRH agonists
29
Q
  1. What are conservative management for urogenital prolapse ?
A
  • Pelvic floor exercises
  • Incontinence pads
  • Vaginal oestrogen cream
  • Treat related symptoms
30
Q
  1. What is medical management for urogenital prolapse ?
A
  • Many different types
  • Should be removed and cleared periodically
  • They may cause irritation
31
Q
  1. What could be used to treat urge incontinence if there was worry about anticholinergic side effects in frail elderly patients ?
A
  • Mirabegron
32
Q
  1. What heart murmur is normal in pregnancy ?
A
  • Systolic ejection murmur over the left sternal border
  • 3rd intercostal space (erb’s point) is common due to increased blood flow across the aortic valve
33
Q
  1. Transudate
A
  • Low in protein
  • Heart failure
  • Liver failure
  • Nephrotic syndrome
34
Q
  1. Exudates
A
  • High in protein
  • Pneumonia/TB
  • Malignancy
  • Infarction
  • Blood
  • Empyema
35
Q
  1. Definition of death
A
  • Irreversible loss of the capacity for consciousness
  • Irreversible loss of the capacity to breath
36
Q
  1. How long should the examination and observation take at a minimum to certify a death ?
A
  • 5 minutes listening for heart and breath sounds with stethoscope
  • 5 minutes feeling for a central pulse with a finger
  • Then check response to voice, pain (supra-orbital pressure) and pupillary light or corneal reflex
37
Q
  1. What procedure should one could through in establishing death using a neurological criteria ?
A
  • An established Aetiology
  • An exclusion of reversible conditions
  • A clinical examination (neurological test and apnoea test)
  • This is for patients who will be breathing on a ventilator but will be brain dead
38
Q
  1. What conditions can mirror death but are reversible ?
A
  • Extreme hypothermia
  • Paralytic agents
39
Q
  1. What is an apnoea test ?
A
  • Take off ventilator and make sure they don’t start breathing as C02 rises
40
Q
  1. Who looks into unnatural death ?
A
  • The coroner
41
Q
  1. What needs to be documented RE cause of death ?
A
  • 1A e.g. left ventricular failure
  • 1B e.g. myocardial infarction
  • 1C e.g. ischemic heart disease
  • 2 – contirubting but not directly causing death e.g. diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease
42
Q
  1. Before documenting and confirming death you need to ensure one of the following criteria has been fulfilled
A
  • The patient meets the criteria for not attempting cardiopulmonary resuscitation e.g. DNACPR form
  • Attempts at CPR have failed
  • Treatment aimed at sustaining life has been withdrawn as it has been decided that it would be to no further benefit to the patient