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Peer Teaching Mock 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the aim of the cervical cancer screening programme ?
A
  • Screen for HPV
  • Screen for abnormal cells indicative of pre-invasive (dyskaryosis) disease
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2
Q
  1. How regularly are cervical screenings conducted ?
A
  • Every 3 years in 25-49 year olds
  • Every 5 years in 50-64 year olds
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3
Q
  1. RFs for cervical cancer ?
A
  • Multiple sexual partners
  • Younger age at first intercourse
  • Non-attendance at smears
  • Immunosuppression
  • Oral contraceptives
  • Higher parity
  • Tobacco use
  • Deprivation
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4
Q
  1. What would one see on speculum examination that could suggest malignancy ?
A
  • Ulceration
  • Visible mass
  • Inflammation and bleeding
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5
Q
  1. What are RFs for bacterial vaginosis ?
A
  • Excessive vaginal cleaning
  • Multiple sexual partners
  • Smoking
  • Recent antibiotic treatment
  • Copper coli
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6
Q
  1. How best should a 70 yo with urinary symptoms be investigated and why ?
A
  • Urine culture and sensitivities
  • NICE does not recommend doing urinary dipstick in women over the age of 65
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7
Q
  1. What are the criteria of a CURB score ?
A
  • Confusion
  • Urea >7 (mmol/L)
  • RR >30
  • BP 90/60
  • Age >65
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8
Q
  1. What blood tests would be requested as part of a confusion screen ?
A
  • FBC
  • CRP/ESR
  • Folate and B12
  • U&Es
  • HbA1c
  • Calcium
  • LFTs and TFTs
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9
Q
  1. What is the most common type of leukaemia in children and what condition is it associated with ?
A
  • Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
  • Down syndrome
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10
Q
  1. What type of adult leukaemia is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome ?
A
  • Chronic myeloid leukaemia
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11
Q
  1. What leukaemia is associated with Auer Rods and Blast cells ?
A
  • Acute myeloid leukaemia
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12
Q
  1. What genetic mutation is the Philadelphia chromosome ?
A
  • Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22
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13
Q
  1. How should leukaemia be investigated ?
A
  • FBC
  • Peripheral blood film
  • Bone marrow biopsy
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14
Q
  1. What is a common complication of treatment of chemotherapy for leukaemia ?
A
  • Tumour lysis syndrome
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15
Q
  1. What is the age of incidence of leukaemia ?
A

ALL: 0-14
- AML: 14-39
- CML: 40-59
- CLL : 60+

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16
Q
  1. Hyperthyroid signs
A
  • Fine tremor
  • Palmar erythema/warm sweaty hands
  • Tachycardia
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Pretibial myxedema
  • Lid retraction/lid lag
  • Exophthalmos
  • Acropachy
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17
Q
  1. What is the most serious side effect of carbimazole ?
A
  • Bone marrow suppression leading to pancytopenia and agranulocytosis
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18
Q
  1. What signs might suggest a patient is suffering from bone marrow suppression secondary to carbimazole ?
A
  • Bruising
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Sore throat
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Non-specific illness
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19
Q
  1. RFs for placental abruption ?
A
  • PMHx
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Abnormal lie of baby
  • Age of mother > 40
  • Abdominal trauma
  • Smoking or cocaine use
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Gestational diabetes
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20
Q
  1. What are differentials for placental abruption ?
A
  • Placenta praevia
  • (Vasa praevia)
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21
Q
  1. What are features of an Apgar score ?
A
  • Appearance/body colour
  • Pulse rate
  • Grimace/reflex irritability
  • Activity/muscle tone
  • Respiratory effort
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22
Q
  1. What are activities of daily living ?
A
  • Bathing/shower
  • Toileting
  • Getting dressed/grooming
  • Walking
  • Eating meals/feeding
  • Transferring/moving from bed to chair/standing from sitting
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23
Q
  1. Which type of laxatives should be avoided in constipation secondary to opioid induced ?
A
  • Bulk forming e.g. ispaghula husk
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24
Q
  1. What laxatives should be offered for opioid induced constipation ?
A
  • Osmotic e.g. Laxido or macrogol
  • And stimulant laxative e.g. senna
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25
Q
  1. What are symptoms of issues of urinary voiding ?
A
  • Hesitancy
  • Weak or intermittent stream
  • Splitting
  • Spray
  • Straining
  • Incomplete emptying
  • Terminal dribbling
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26
Q
  1. What are symptoms of issues of urinary storage ?
A
  • Urgency
  • Frequency
  • Nocturia
  • Incontinence
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27
Q
  1. Which validated screening tool is used to evaluate LUTS and give a symptom score?
A
  • International prostate symptom score ?
28
Q
  1. 1st line investigation for prostate cancer ?
A
  • Used to be biopsy but is now multiparametric MRI
29
Q
  1. What is the most common site of prostate cancer metastasis ?
30
Q
  1. What is the name for when a child becomes irritable, struggles with his breathing, and then his lips turn blue ?
A
  • Tet spells
31
Q
  1. What anatomical abnormalities make up TOF ?
A
  • Pulmonary stenosis
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Ventricular septal defect
  • Overriding aorta
32
Q
  1. What pregnancy test would you offer to a women to screen for Down’s syndrome ?
A
  • Combined test
33
Q
  1. What would suggest Down’s on a combined test ?
A
  • Thickened nuchal translucency
  • Reduced PAPPA
  • Raised beta-HCG
34
Q
  1. What test would you offer a pregnant woman to confirm Down’s
    diagnosis from the screening tests during pregnancy?
A
  • Chronic villus sampling
  • Amniocentesis
35
Q
  1. What medication can be used in polycystic kidney disease ?
36
Q
  1. What symptoms would suggest smoke inhalation ?
A
  • Burning sensation in nose or throat
  • Productive cough
  • Stridor, dyspnoea and SOB
  • Wheezing, horse voice
  • Cyanosis
  • Tachypnoea
37
Q
  1. What effect does carbon monoxide have on the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve and how does this cause symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A
  • Carbon monoxide has a greater affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen (so readily
  • binds to Hb)
  • Causing the curve to shift to the left
  • Left shift → increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen / so haemoglobin holds onto
  • oxygen more tightly
  • Reducing the release of oxygen to tissues, causing hypoxia and the associated symptoms
38
Q
  1. What is the definition of a hernia ?
A
  • Protrusion of part or whole of an organ or tissue through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it
39
Q
  1. What is the difference between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia ?
A
  • Direct inguinal hernias – the bowel enters the inguinal canal directly through a weakness in the posterior wall of the canal whereas indirect hernias the bowel enters the inguinal canal via the deep inguinal ring
40
Q
  1. What are common types of hernia seen in infants
A
  • Indirect inguinal hernia
  • (Occur because of a) patent processus vaginalis
41
Q
  1. What are the complications of an incarcerated/irreducible hernia ?
A
  • Obstruction and strangulation
42
Q
  1. What is the pathology of wet macular degeneration ?
A
  • WET – neovascular – new choroidal blood vessels formation
  • Leakage of serous fluid and blood which can result in rapid loss of vision
43
Q
  1. What medication and what route is wet macular degeneration managed ?
A
  • Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor
  • Intravitreal injection
44
Q
  1. What is the triad of shaken baby syndrome ?
A
  • Retinal haemorrhages
  • Subdural haematoma
  • Encephalopathy
45
Q
  1. What are RA x-ray changes ?
A
  • Loss of joint space
  • Juxta-articular osteoporosis
  • Soft-tissue swelling
  • Periarticular erosions
  • Subluxation
46
Q
  1. Typical features of RA presentation ?
A
  • Swollen, painful joints in hands and feet
  • Stiffness worse in the morning
  • Gradually gets worse with larger joints becoming involved
  • Presentation usually insidiously develops over months
  • Positive squeeze test – discomfort on squeezing across the metacarpal or metatarsal joints
47
Q
  1. What are late features of RA ?
A
  • Swan neck
  • Boutonniere deformity
48
Q
  1. What is fine line antibody investigation for RA and which AB is more specific ?
A
  • Rheumatoid factor
  • Anti-CCP
49
Q
  1. What are the medical terms for a hip replacement ?
A
  • Total hip arthroplasty
  • Hemiarthroplasty
50
Q
  1. Name 3 features of skin lesions that are suggestive of chronic plaque psoriasis ?
A
  • Raised clearly defined plaques
  • Found on the extensor surfaces/elbows + knee/trunk/scalp
  • Symmetrically distributed
  • Pink or red erythematous violet or grey in pigmented skin
  • Silvery scales
  • Itch
  • Auspitz sign – pinpoint bleeding if scale removed
51
Q
  1. Which type of psoriasis presents with a ‘’rain drop appearance’’ – multiple small scattered scaly papules ?
A
  • Guttate psoriasis
52
Q
  1. Reasons to refer to a dermatologist for psoriasis ?
A
  • Suspected generalised pustular psoriasis (emergency)
  • Suspected erythrodermic psoriasis (emergency)
  • Uncertainty about diagnosis
  • Extensive involvement (more than 10%)
  • Moderate or severe disease
  • Resistance to topical drug treatments in primary care
  • Significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing
53
Q
  1. What is the difference between the terms ‘oligoarthritis’ and ‘polyarthritis’ ?
A
  • Oligoarthritis affects 4 joints for fewer
  • In polyarthritis more than 4 joints are involved
54
Q
  1. Nail signs for psoriatic arthritis
A
  • Nail pitting
  • Onycholysis
55
Q
  1. Name the difference between mania and hypomania ?
A
  • Mania must have lasted for at least 6 weeks whereas in hypomania they only have to lasted for 4 days
  • A manic episode includes psychotic features (delusions/hallucinations)
  • A manic episode is severe enough to cause marked impairment in social or occupation functioning or necessitate hospitalisation
56
Q
  1. What is section 4 of the mental health act ?
A
  • Allows the emergency detainment for the purpose of assessment for a duration of up to 72 hours
  • The application can be made by the nearest relative or an Approved Mental Health Professional and must be supported by one doctor
57
Q
  1. When is lithium monitored when initiating treatment ?
A
  • Weekly until concentrations are stable
58
Q
  1. How long after taking a dose should lithium levels be checked ?
A
  • 12 hours post-dose
59
Q
  1. What 2 serological markers are used initially in Hep B screening ?
A
  • HBsAg
  • Anti-HBc
60
Q
  1. What serological marker gives a direct count of viral load ?
61
Q
  1. What is injected in Hep B vaccine ?
62
Q
  1. Which forms of hepatitis can be vaccinated against ?
A
  • Hep B
  • Hep A
63
Q
  1. What investigations should a patient have post seizure ?
A
  • EEG
  • MRI head
  • Blood glucose
  • FBC U&Es
64
Q
  1. What are gout crystals composed of ?
A
  • Monosodium urate
65
Q
  1. What are pseudogout crystals composed of ?
A
  • Calcium pyrophosphate
66
Q
  1. 1st line for acute gout ?
A
  • NSIADs or colchicine
67
Q
  1. 1st line and 2nd to prevent gout attacks ?
A
  • Allopurinol (Xanthine oxidase inhibitor)
  • Febuxostat

Phase 4 (17 decks)

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