Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advanced PTEeXAM > PTE Masters Practice Question Material > Flashcards

PTE Masters Practice Question Material Flashcards

1
Q

Most common pathologic finding in patients with MVR 2/2 degenerative MV disease?

A

posterior leaflet prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three leaflets of the tricuspid valve?

What is above the junction of septal and posterior leaflets?

What is labeled as 1-4?

A

Anterior, Posterior, Septal Leaflets

Coronary sinus and then IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the formula for axial resolution?

A

1/2 spatial pulse length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Another word for Azimuthal resolution?

A

Lateral resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is duty factor?

A

a unitless number which describes the amount of time that the ultrasound machine is producing sound. The percent of “On” time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are structures 1-5?

What structure runs under the left atrial appendage?

A

1 - Inferior Wall

2 - Anterior Wall

3 - Circumflex Coronary Artery

4 - Left Atrial Appendage

5 - Left Atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does a low pass filter do?

When is it used?

A

Filters out high velocities.

Used in tissue doppler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the grading system for hypokinesis/akinesis/dyskinesis?

A

Grade 1 - Normal with endocardial thickening > 30 %

Grade 2 - Slightly decreased with endocardial thickening 10-30%

Grade 3 - Severe hypokinesis with endocaradial thickening < 10%

Grade 4 - Akinesis with absolutely no endocardial thickening

Grade 5 - Dyskinesis (outward endocardial movement during systole with thinning of the wall during systole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why does TEE underestimate 3D volumes compared to cardiac MRI?

A

TEE does not visualize the apex well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to tell a pseudoaneurysm vs a true aneurysm?

A

Pseudoaneurysm: Abrupt transition, acute angle, narrow neck, ratio of neck diameter to aneurysm diameter < 0.5

Aneurysm: Gradual tapered transition, wide angle, wide neck, Ratio of neck diameter to aneursym diameter > 0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What two arteries might supply the inferiolateral wall?

A

RCA or Cx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cuttoffs for degree of Left Ventricular Hypertrophy in men and women?

A

See Attached Image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an enhancement artifact?

A

Occurs when ultrasound travel through a medium with a lower rate of attenuation than the surrounding soft tissue.

Happens in LV because blood in Left ventricle has lower acoustic impedance than surrounding soft tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Other name for comet tail artifact?

A

Ring Down artifact, Reverberation artifact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What view allows visualization of cross sectional view of the superior vena cava?

A

Midesophageal Ascending aortic short axis view.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What view can the pulmonary artery bifurcation be seen in?

A

Midesophageal Ascending Aortic Short Axis View

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Over what velocities in the Left Atrial Appendage is a thrombus unlikely?

A

Above 40-45 cm/sec

NPV of 100% if velocity > 55 cm/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the cutoffs for pericardial effusion sizes for mild moderate severe?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which ASD is associated with mitral valve prolapse?

A

Ostium Secundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which ASD is associated with trisomy 21?

A

Ostium Primum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which ASD is associated with anomalous pulmonary venous return?

A

Sinus Venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which ASD is associated with a persistent left superior vena cava?

A

Coronary Sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Annulus Reversus?

What does it occur in?

A

Septal e’ > lateral e’

Happens in constrictive pericarditis because the lateral mitral annulus has been “tethered” by the constricting pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What pressure does mitral peak A wave velocity correlate with?

A

LVEDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What LA max volume index supports the diagnosis of elevated left atrial pressure?

A

> 34 ml/m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does percutaneous coronary revascularization increase risk of post infarct VSD?

A

No. It has been shown to decrease risk of rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Risk factors for increase risk of mechanical complications (Rupture of free wall, septum, or papillary muscle rupture) following MI?

A

Absence of collateral flow

Large infarct size

No prior angina or MI

ST segment elevation of Q wave development on initial EKG

Peak CK MB > 150 international units/L

Age > 70

Female gender

Anterior location of infarction

Abscense of beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In a ME 4 chamber name the leaflets of the tricuspid valve.

A

Septal leaflet next to septum

Anterior or posterior leaflet next to free wall depending on where it is being sliced through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Another name for damping material?

A

Backing material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens to spacial pulse length due to damping?

A

Decreased spatial pulse length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the Q factor? What does damping do to it?

A

Q factor = resonant frequency/bandwidth. Damping decreases Q factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the material of most Piezoelectric cyrstals?

A

Lead Zirconate Titanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the temperature at which a crystal looses its function?

A

Curie temperature (not the critical temperature)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What determines the pulsed-wave ultrasound beam frequency?

What determines the frequency of a continuous wave ultrasound beam?

A

Thickness of a piezoelectric crystal and the velocity of sound through the crystal.

For continuous wave it is the electrical frequency of the excitation voltage applied to the crystal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two variables for acoustic impedance?

A

Impedance = density * velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are acceptable pressure gradients across the PA anastomosis is acceptable following a lung transplant?

Pulmonary venous anastomosis diameter?

Peak systolic pulmonary venous velocity?

A

20 mmHg

> 0.5 cm

< 100 cm/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the frequency range of most echocardiography machines?

A

2-10 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the left atrial appendage velocity for 100% negative predictive valve for thrombus?

A

55 cm/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the formula for resonant frequency (RF) of the piezoelectric crystal?

A

RF = V/2T

V is velocity of sound in crystal

T is thickness of crystal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How to distinguish between constrictive and restrictive pericarditis?

A

normal or elevated propagation velocity Vp on color M-mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Are Tissue doppler velocities of the lateral mitral annulus affected by loading conditions?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are 1-3 in image?

A
  1. Pulmonic Valve
  2. Aorta
  3. Innominate Vein - brachiocephalic vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a Cor Triatriatum Sinister?

A

is a rare congenital condition in which the left atrium is subdivided by a fibromuscular membrane into two distinct chambers, a posterosuperior and anteroinferior chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Cor Triatriatum Dexter?

A

right atrium is divided into two chambers by a membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the primary form of attenuation in soft tissue?

A

Absorption which accounts for > 80% of attenuation in soft tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Explain the anatomy of a Fontan in terms of blood flow

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a chiari network associated with?

A

PFO and paradoxical embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Is Right atrial diastolic collapse alone consistent with pericardial tamponade?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three diseases on a continuum of cardiac eosinophilia?

A

Hypereosinophilic syndrome, endomyocardial fibrosis, and loffler endocarditis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most common location of traumatic aortic injury?

A

Aortic Isthmus which is the insertion of the ligamentum arteriosum near the left subclavian artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is 1-3?

A
  1. Pulmonic Valve
  2. Aorta
  3. Innominate Vein (Brachiocephalic Vein)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What refers to the strength of an ultrasound beam and it’s ability to cause cavitation of bubbles?

A

Mechanical Index of an ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Left Ventricular Non-compaction has what ratio of non-compacted to compacted myocardium?

A

2:1 at end systole in the TTE parasternal Short axis view.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What % of patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy have LVOT obstruction?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Normal LV Dp/dt?

A

1610 +/- 290 mmHg/sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which walls are most involved with Left Ventricular Noncompaction?

A

Apical and Mid Inferior, inferiolateral and anteriolateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the most common Primary Malignant Cardiac tumor?

Most common primary malignant cardiac tumor in children?

Most common benign cardiac tumor?

A

Angiosarcoma

Rhabdomyoma

Myxoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the cutoff for aneurysmal interatrial septum diagnosis in setting of bulging of septal plane in setting of absence of chronically elevated left and right atrial pressures?

A

> 15 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which wall is usually spared in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Basal inferolateral wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the indications for surgery on HOCM?

A

LVOT obstruction with resting peak instantaneous gradient of > 30 mmHg

Angina/Dyspnea, and or syncope resulting in significant impairement in quality of life

Persistent symptoms despite appropriate medical treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the blood flow in D-TGA?

What about L-TGA?

A

D-TGA there are two circuits

RA to TV to RV to aortic valve to aorta. Then also Pulmnoary vein to LA to MV to LV to Pulmonic Valve to pulmonary artery to lungs to pulmnoary veins and then back to LA

L-TGA there is one circuit

RA to MV to LV to Pulmonic valve to PA to Lungs to Pulmonary veins to LA to TV to RV to Aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the surgical repair of D transposition of the great arteries?

A

Jatene Procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a normal pulmonary vein flow velocity stay under?

A

< 1 m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the 3 beat rule?

A

If contrast is in LA within 3 beats following release of positive pressure breath than it is positive and shunt present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What problem may be expected in TOF repaired patient when they are an adult?

A

RV volume overload due to severe pulmonic insufficiency.

Valve destroyed in transannular patch repair of RV outflow tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What Ar-A duration indicates an increased LVEDP?

A

Ar-A duration > 30 milliseconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Under what LA volume Index is LV relaxation likely normal or impaired?

A

< 34 ml/m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what parameter of sound wave is determined by both source and the medium through which it travels?

A

Wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is annulus Reversus?

A

Where the septal e’ > lateral e’

As in constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Is a TAVR or surgical AVR have a higher incidence of stroke?

Complete heart block?

A

TAVR has higher incidence of stroke.

slightly higher incidence of complete heart block with TAVR.

71
Q

Does Fulminant or Acute nonfulminant myocarditis have thick walls?

A

Fulminant myocarditis has thick walls. Rapid onset, full recovery likely.

Acute nonfulminant myocarditis has normal to thin walls, dilated chamber size, gradual onset and progresses to dilated cardiomyopathy.

72
Q

AVA cutoffs for aortic stenosis?

A

Mild >1.5

Modearte 1-1.5

Severe > 1.0

73
Q

Equation for wavelength, velocity and frequency of sound?

A

Wavelength = V/Frequency = 1540/Frequency

74
Q

E/Vp > what predicts a PCWP > 15 mm Hg in patients with decresaed LVEF?

75
Q

Causes of hypotension during liver transplant by phase?

A

Dissection Phase: Hypovolemia from ascites drainage, compression of major vessles, blood loss, fluid shifts

Anhepatic phase: Inadequate preload 2/2 loss of venous return (most common), endotoxemia resuilting in RV and LV systolic dysfunction

Reperfusion phase: Hypovolemia, metabolic derangements, PE, Pulmonary HTN, RV and LV dysfunction

76
Q

What should be done about TR if greater than mild on preimplantation of LVAD?

A

Should be addressed surgically.

TR does not improve with LVAD placement

77
Q

TR jet peak velocity > what is consistent with a grade 2 diastolic dysfunction?

A

> 2.8 m/sec

78
Q

What is the goal blood pressure after a continuous flow VAD placement?

A

60-85 mmHg mean arteral pressure

79
Q

When is a decrease in pump speed of LVAD contraindicated?

A

If an aortic root thrombus is present and the aortic valve does not open.

Decrease in pump speed could cause aortic valve opening and flushing out of thrombus.

80
Q

What are cutoff values for normal mitral annular e’ in the septal and lateral walls?

A

Septal e’ > 7 cm/sec, lateral e’ > 10 cm/sec

81
Q

What kind of LVAD makes doppler interrogation of inflow velocities impossible?

A

HeartWare continuous flow LVAD

82
Q

What wall is always of normal thickness in patients with HOCM?

A

Basal inferolateral wall.

83
Q

What does a mitral E/A decrease > 50% after a 10 second valsalva mean for LV relaxation and LAP?

A

LV relaxation is impaired and LAP is increased.

84
Q

What valve in the aortic position is most likely to have significant presure recovery?

A

19 mm Saint Jude mechanical valve.

85
Q

Mitral deceleration time < what has a reasonable accuracy for prediction of increased LV diastolic pressures?

86
Q

When to measure LVOT diameter in cardiac cycle for calculation of the area of the LVOT?

A

mid systole.

87
Q

What is the normal and pseudonormal patient’s isovolumentric relaxation time (IVRT)?

88
Q

What happens to IVRT with restrictive diastolic dysfunction?

A

Decreassed

89
Q

Equation for mitral valve area from pressure half time?

A

Mitral valve area = 220/PHT

90
Q

Identify anatomy of 1-4.

A

1 - coronary sinus

2 - Body of P3 of mitral valve leaflet

3 - Body of A2 Scallop,

4 = Circumflex coronary artery

91
Q

What is an avalon catheter?

A

Veno-venous bi-caval dual lumen catheter designed to enable optimal ECMO

92
Q

What is the optimal positioning of an Impella ventricular assist device?

A

Optimal distance from annulus to inlet is 3.5 cm

93
Q

What are the names of the cusps of the pulmonary valve?

Which ones are closes to aortic valve?

A

Anterior, left, and right cusps

The left and right are adjacent to the aortic valve

94
Q

What disease is associated with biventricular apical thrombi?

A

Loeffler eosinophilia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, and endomyocardial fibrosis.

95
Q

What happens to Color M-mode Vp with any kind of diastolic dysfunction?

A

Reduced. normal is > 55 cm/s

96
Q

What sinus surrounds the left atrial appendage?

A

Transverse sinus

97
Q

Which modality and time in cardiac cycle is LA size best measured?

A

Transthoracic at end of LV systole

98
Q

What is the matching layer of an ultrasound probe?

What is the ideal thickness of this layer?

A

It is the layer of the ultrasound probe that facilitates improved transpmission from the probe to the tissue..

Ideal matching layer has a thickness of 1/4 the wavelength.

99
Q

What is Barlow’s syndrome associated with?

A

Bileaflet mitral valve prolapse and myxomatous mitral valve

100
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome associated with?

A

Coarctation of aorta, bicuspid aortic valve, aortic Stenosis, hypoplastic left heart syndrome

101
Q

What is shone complex associated with?

A

Parachute mitral valve, supramitral ring, valvular aortic stnnosis, subaortic stenosis, and aortic coarctation

102
Q

What is formula for EROA calculation?

A

EROA = 2pier^2 x Velocity alias / Velocity of peak MR

103
Q

EROA cutoffs for moderate?

A

EROA 0.2-0.4 cm^2

104
Q

What abnormality is associated with a sail-like anterior leaflet of the tricuspid valve and an ostium secundum asd?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly.

105
Q

What abnormality is associated with a defect in the elastin gene, and with sudden death with sedation and anesthesia?

A

William’s syndrome

106
Q

Formula for myocardial performance Index?

A

MPI = (IVCT - IVRT)/ET

IVCT = Isovolumetric contraction time

IVRT = Isovolumetric Relaxation time

ET = Ejection Time

107
Q

What syndrome is associated with isolated pulmonic stenosis?

A

Noonan’s syndrome

108
Q

What syundrome is the pulmonic valve often stenotic in?

A

Alagille syndrome.

109
Q

What are the 5 functions of the reciever for post processing?

Order of these 5 functions.

A

1 Amplification

2 Compensation (time gain compensation)

3 - compression

4 Demodulation

5 Rejection

Order is alphabetical.

110
Q

How many pap muscles in RV?

111
Q

Which muscle in the posterior pharynx may cause some normal resistance when inserting a TEE probe?

A

Cricopharyngeus muscle

112
Q

What is the rate of copmlications from TEE procedure in ambulatory setting?

A

1 in 500

GI perforation occurs about 2 in 10,000 patients.

113
Q

What % of biological prosthetic valves have trace to mild regurgitation?

114
Q

What is responsible for the pathogenesis of Rheumatic valvular disease?

A

Molecular mimicry.

115
Q

What is Bechet syndrome?

A

Rare blood vessel inflammatory disease that can be associated with sinus of valsalva aneurysms

116
Q

What is Lutembacher syndrome associated with?

A

Ostium secundum ASD and mitral stenosis

117
Q

what is Scimitar syndrome associated with?

A

Inferior sinus venosus ASD

118
Q

What is the ligament of Marshall?

A

Coumadin Ridge

119
Q

Where does the ramus intermedius as a variant coronary artery come from?

A

Trifurcation of the left main coronary artery.

120
Q

What syndrome is associated with isolated narrowing of the sinotubular junction?

A

William’s syndrome

121
Q

How many cm from the teeth of an average adult to the upper esophageal, mid esophageal, transgastric, and deep transgastric?

A

Upper - 25 cm

Mid esophageal - 35 cm

Transgastric 40 cm

Deep transgastric 50 cm

122
Q

Rounded symmetrical CWD jet with an acceleration time of > what is associated with severe prosthetic aortic stenosis?

123
Q

Incidence of PFO?

124
Q

Anterior mitral valve leaflet longer than what is a risk factor for SAM?

125
Q

Maximum Vena contracta on color flow after watchman device so they can stop anticoagulation?

126
Q

What syndrome is associated with ypoplastic left heart syndrome?

A

Kabuki syndrome.

127
Q

Most common cause of TR?

A

Functional MR 2/2 RV enlargement

128
Q

Best aliasing velocities for measurement of vena contracta?

A

50-60 cm/sec

129
Q

What is normal global longitudinal strain?

A

Normal is -17 to - 20%

130
Q

What procedure is used to repair Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

The cone procedure.

131
Q

Deploy what valve with pacing for patient’s who won’t tolerate rapid ventricular pacing?

132
Q

C-sept distance and AL/PL ratio for increasing risk of SAM?

A

C-sept distance of 2.5 cm

AL/PL less than 1.3

133
Q

What coronary does the ramus intermedius come off?

A

Variant coronary artery resulting from trifurcation of the left main coronary artery.

134
Q

What is the Mitral Valve to Aortic Valve angle below which increases the risk of SAM?

135
Q

What type of ASD is associated with MVP?

A

Ostium Secundum ASD

136
Q

Pressure Half Time cutoffs for severe PR?

137
Q

Where to best place left atrial appendage closure device through interatrial septmu?

A

Inferior and posterior

138
Q

What happens to velocity of ultrasound through a medium with changes in density and stiffness?

A

Increase velocity with decrease in density and increase in stiffness.

139
Q

What is Scimitar syndrome associated with?

A

Inferior Sinus Venosus ASD

140
Q

What Effective orifficcd area to BSA predicts severe patient prosthesis mismatch in the aortic position?

A

0.65 cm2/m2

141
Q

What is the normal transtricuspid E wave velocity?

A

120-229 ms

142
Q

What is cuttoff for severe aoritic regurgitation pressure half time?

143
Q

EROA greater than what for severe aortic regurgitation?

144
Q

What measurements are needed for LV mass calculation?

A

LV internal end-diastolic diameter, inferolateral wall thickness, interventricular septal thickness.

145
Q

What is lutembacher syndrome a combination of?

A

Mitral stenosis and ASD

146
Q

What is the most common cause of MR in western countries?

A

P2 prolapse

147
Q

GI tract perforation rate from a TEE?

A

2 in 10,000

148
Q

What are the four load-independent measures of systolic function?

A

End-systolic elastance, preload recruitable stroke work, preload adjusted max power, strain rate

149
Q

What is the EOA/BSA for a patient prosthesis mismatch for a prosthetic mitral valve replacement?

A

< 1.2 cm2/m2

150
Q

What RVOL is consistent with severe aortic regurgitation?

151
Q

Ostium criteria for the watchman procedure for left atrial appendage?

A

Width of ostium 17-31 mm and length must be equal to or greater than the ostium width.

152
Q

What is the most common variant of total anomalous pulmonary venous return?

A

Supracardiac

153
Q

What is backing material composed of?

A

Tungsten powder and araldite

154
Q

DIlation of sinuses of valsalva and sinotubular junction is what type of leaflet motion?

155
Q

What is the mean aortic valve gradient for which there is severe prosthetic aortic valve stenosis?

156
Q

Most common type of VSDs?

A

Perimembranous.

157
Q

What is the most common congenital defect recognized at birth?

Recognized in adults?

A

VSD at birth

Bicuspid aortic valve in adults

158
Q

What acceleration time to ejection time is indicative of severe aortic stenosis in prosthetic?

159
Q

What mean gradient is consitent with severe mitral stenosis?

A

> 10 mm Hg

160
Q

What is the reverse piezoelectric effect?

A

Conversion of electrical signal to sound

161
Q

most common frequency of TEE transducer?

A

5-7 megahertz

162
Q

What does the sinus venousus become?

A

Crista terminalis, Eustachian valve, The thebesian valve

163
Q

What determines wavelength, frequency, and velocity? Sound source or medium?

A

Wavelength is determined by both

Frequency is determined by source

Velocity is determined by medium

164
Q

What syndrome is associated with TOF?

A

Alagille syndrome.

165
Q

What is the mean gradient for moderate mitral stenosis?

166
Q

Over what RV MPI by continuous wave doppler indicates RV dysfunction?

167
Q

RV MPI by tissue doppler of > what indicates RV dysfunction?

168
Q

What is myocardial perfusion index calculation?

A

(IVCT + IVRT)/ET

169
Q

A vena contracta to PV annulus ratio > what is correlated with severe PR on cardiac MRI?

170
Q

For what patient is a PA catheter contraindicated?

A

LBBB in a patient without a pacemaker

171
Q

when and how to measure sinotubular junction?

A

Leading edge to leading edge at end diastole

172
Q

When to measure aortic annulus?

A

Mid systole leading edge to leading edge

173
Q

What is lower limit of 2D LV ejection fraction in men and women?

A

52% in men and 54% in women

Advanced PTEeXAM (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions