Psychosis Flashcards

1
Q

Define psychosis

A

The thoughts, affective response or ability to recognise reality and the ability to communicate and relate to others is grossly impaired with the capacity to deal with reality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the classic characteristics of psychosis?

A

Hallucinations
Delusions
Disorders of form of thought
Lack of insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can psychosis occur?

A
  • Organic conditions
  • Manic depressive
  • Substance use
  • Dementia praecox
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What signs are involved in psychotic experiences?

A
  • Hallucinations
  • Ideas of reference
  • Delusions
  • Passivity
  • Loosening of associations
  • Neologisms
  • Circumstantiality
  • Changing and punning
  • Thought interference
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are hallucinations?

A

Occurs in the absence of stimuli but has the same qualities as normal perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is meant by ideas of reference?

A

Innocuous, day to day events that a person with psychosis will think are significant to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give an example of ideas of reference

A

Message in the news

Number plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are delusions?

A

Abnormal belief held to absolute conviction, usually false and not amenable to social or cultural beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary delusions?

A

Primary - no preceding event

Secondary - derived from a preceding event e.g hallucination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe passivity phenomena

A

Behaviour is experienced as being controlled by an external agency rather than the individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe loosening of associations

A

Speech is muddled and difficult to follow, cannot be clarified with no logical connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are neologisms?

A

Patient makes up a new work/phrase with no accepted meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is another name for loosening of associations?

A

Knights move thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name four types of thought interference

A
  • insertion
  • withdrawal
  • broadcasting
  • blocking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What illicit substances can cause psychosis?

A

Legal highs , amphetamine, cannabis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which prescription drugs can cause psychosis?

A

Levodopa, steroids, anti-malarial, anti-psychotic, anti-convulsants, anti-depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes psychosis on withdrawal?

A

Alcohol

Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does a drug induced psychosis present?

A

Florid symptoms - visual or tactile hallucinations which should resolve on cessation of the drug (takes up to 4 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How will depressive psychosis present?

A

Delusions of worthlessness, guilt, nihilism, derogatory hallucinations usually auditory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe manic psychosis

A

Delusions of grandeur and auditory hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is delirium?

A

Acute disorder of the mental processes whereby mental confusion is accompanied by a physical condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the symptoms of delirium?

A
  • Disorientation in time and place
  • Delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Insomnia
  • Agitation
  • Worse at night
  • May have lucid periods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three types of passivity?

A

of volition - made actions
of affect - made feelings
of impulse - made urges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is your lifetime risk of schizophrenia?

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which gender and class are more at risk of schizophrenia?

A

Men and those of lower socioeconomic class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the average age of onset of schizophrenia?

A

Males - 15-25 years old

Females 25-35 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What percentage of cases of schizophrenia are inherited?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What environmental factors can contribute to schizophrenia?

A
Obstetric complications (2nd trimester virus, pre-eclampsia, hypoxia?
Childhood CNS infection 
Early Cannabis use 
Urban upbringing 
Psychological stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What neurochemical changes can be seen in schizophrenia?

A

Changes in dopamine signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What histological changes can be seen in schizophrenia?

A

Lack of gliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What structural changes can be seen in schizophrenia?

A

Ventricular enlargement and altered CSF flow
Decrease in healthy white matter associated with cognitive decline
Reduced frontal lobe volume (and grey matter) Reduced grey matter in the temporal cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

State the first rank symptoms

A
  • 3rd person auditory hallucinations that give a running commentary
  • Thought insertion, broadcast, removal
  • Passivity phenomena
  • Delusional perception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is delusional perception?

A

Belief attached to a real perception

34
Q

State the symptoms in ICD10 that only require one for diagnosis

A
Thought interference 
Delusional perception 
Hallucinatory voices 
Persistent delusions 
One for at least one month
35
Q

State the symptoms in ICD10 that require two for diagnosis

A

Persistent hallucinations occurring everyday
Incoherent/irrelevant speech due to neologisms/breaks/interpolations
Catatonic behaviour
Negative symptoms

36
Q

What are the positive symptoms?

A
  • hallucinations
  • delusions
  • passivity phenomena
  • disorder of form of thought
37
Q

What are the negative symptoms?

A
  • reduced speech
  • reduced motivation
  • reduced interest/pleasure
  • reduced social interaction
  • blunting affect
38
Q

Describe paranoid schizophrenia

A

Most common type (80%)

Mainly first rank symptoms (hallucinations and delusions of self)

39
Q

Describe hebephrenic schizophrenia

A

Disorganised, thought disorder with odd behaviour and bizarre delusions, intellectual disorientation

40
Q

Describe catatonic schizophrenia

A

Predominant mood disorders (odd postures), mutism, stupor, resistance to command/attempts to be moved = negativism or automatic command

41
Q

Name four other types of paranoid psychoses

A
  • persistent delusional disorder
  • schizotypal disorder
  • acute and transient psychotic disorder (<1month)
  • schizoaffective disorder (first rank +depression or mania)
42
Q

Name the poor prognostic indicators

A
Poor pre-morbid adjustment 
Insidious onset 
Early onset 
Long duration of untreated psychosis 
Cognitive impairment 
Enlarged ventricles
43
Q

Name good prognostic indicators

A
Shorter time of untreated psychosis 
Older onset 
Female 
Marked mood disturbance
Family history of mood disorders
44
Q

How are antipsychotic drugs classified?

A

1st, 2nd and 3rd generation

45
Q

Give examples of first generation anti-psychotics

A

Haloperidol and flupenticol

46
Q

Give examples of second generation anti-psychotics

A

Clozapine, risperiodone, olanzapine, quetiapine

47
Q

Give examples of third generation anti-psychotics

A

Aripiprazole (dopamine partial agonist)

48
Q

What pathology in relation to dopamine is present in schizophrenia?

A

Excess and aberrant firing of dopaminergic neutrons in schizophrenia

49
Q

Name the five dopamine pathways

A
  • mesolimbic (leads to first rank symptoms)
  • mesocortical (links to higher brain function)
  • nigrostriatal (voluntary movements)
  • tuberoinfundibular (hypothalamus and pituitary)
  • hypothalamospinal (into PNS)
50
Q

How many dopamine receptors are there and which do you want to target?

A

5

Aim to affect D2- limbic and mesolimbic pathways

51
Q

What other receptors are involved?

A

ACh, 5HT, Histamine, NAdr

52
Q

What percentage of dopamine blockage is the target?

A

60-80% for minimal side effects and maximal clinical effects

53
Q

What are the four key classes of side effects?

A
  • extra-pyramidal
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • hyperprolactinaemia
  • akathesia/restless legs
54
Q

What extra-pyramidal side effects can occur?

A

Acute dystonia
Parkinsonism
Tardive Dyskinesia

55
Q

Describe acute dystonia

A

Onset in minutes, presents with energetic increased tone, tongue protrusion, torticolis and oculogyric crisis (all eye muscles contract at the same time)

56
Q

Describe tardive dyskinesia

A

Long term, often permanent involuntary repetitive pro-facial movements (blinking, grimacing, pouting), may involve limbs or trunk and occurs after decades of treatment

57
Q

How are extra-pyramidal side effects treated?

A

Aim to balance ACh and dopamine by anti-cholinergic drugs such as procyclidine

58
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Rare, onset over hours and fatal if untreated in 20-30%

Gradually increasing tone, pyrexia and autonomic instability - pulse/BP leads to rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure

59
Q

How is neuroleptic malignant syndrome investigated?

A

CK - elevated

60
Q

How is neuroleptic malignant syndrome treated?

A

Stop drug, rapid cooling and renal support, muscle relaxant and dopamine agonist - may need induced coma
dantrolene, bromocriptine

61
Q

How does hyperprolactinaemia present in women?

A

Galactorrhoea, reduced libido, arousalm organism, amenorrhoea and anovulation

62
Q

How will hyperprolactinaemia present in men?

A

Gynaecomastia, ED, oligospermia, reduced libido

63
Q

How will hyperprolactinaemia present in both sexes?

A

Reduced bone density leading to osteoporosis

64
Q

Describe akathesia

A

Affects 20% of patients within days to weeks of treatment

Pacing, rocking from foot to foot, unable to sit/stand, restless legs, agitation and high risk of suicide

65
Q

What is the treatment for akathesia?

A

Beta blocker or benzodiazepine

66
Q

Other than dopaminergic what other side effects can occur with anti-psychotics?

A

Anti-cholinergic
Serotonergic
Anti-adrenergic
Others - long QT, hepatotoxicity, photosensitivity

67
Q

What is the best anti-psychotic?

A

Clozapine particularly for negative symptoms it also has antisuicidal properties

68
Q

What are the side effects of clozapine?

A
Agranulocytosis 
Myocarditis 
Constipation leading to perforation
Weight gain (10kg in 3 months)
Sedation 
Sialorrhoea
69
Q

How often does a patient with clozapine need monitored?

A

Weekly for first 6 months
Biweekly for next 6 months
Monthly thereafter

70
Q

How long should an anti-psychotic be tried before it is deemed unsuccessful?

A

6-8 weeks

71
Q

What alternative administration can be considered in some patients?

A

Long acting depot - IM, deltoid or gluteal weekly to 3 months gives better stability

72
Q

What generation of drugs should be tried first?

A

2nd generation

73
Q

What is the function of the D1 receptor family?

A

Stimulates cAMP

74
Q

What is the function of the D2 receptor family?

A

Inhibit adenylyl cyclase
Inhibit voltage gates calcium channels
Open potassium channels

75
Q

Which set of dopamine receptors are present in the pituitary?

A

D2 important for pharmacology

76
Q

What is the difference between the effect of subcortical and mesocortical dopamine?

A

Subcortical hyperactivity causes psychosis

Mesocortical hyperactivity causes negative/cognitive symptoms

77
Q

What three proteins are involved in schizophrenia?

A

Neuregulin
Dysbindin
DISC-1

78
Q

What does neuregulin do?

A

Signalling protein that mediates cell-cell interactions and plays critical roles in the growth and development of multiple organ systems

79
Q

What does dysbindin do?

A

Essential for adaptive neural plasticity

80
Q

What is the function of DISC-1?

A

Neuritic outgrowth and cortical development through its interaction with other proteins