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Psychopathology > Psychopathology Flashcards - Midterm 1,5 (1) > Flashcards

Psychopathology Flashcards - Midterm 1,5 (1)

1
Q

Front: What is Antisocial Behavior (ASB)?

A

Back: ASB is a developmental, biopsychosocial trait rooted in the interplay of biological, psychological, and social factors.

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2
Q

Front: What is the biopsychosocial approach to ASB?

A

Back: The biopsychosocial approach integrates biological, psychological, and social perspectives to understand ASB.

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3
Q

Front: How does ASB manifest across the lifespan?

A

Back: ASB can manifest in various forms, from childhood conduct problems to adult violent crimes.

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4
Q

Front: What are the developmental pathways of ASB?

A

Back: Genetic, neurobiological, and environmental factors influence the onset, persistence, or decline of ASB over time.

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5
Q

Front: What are the implications of understanding ASB as a developmental trait?

A

Back: Early identification of ASB patterns and the development of effective intervention strategies.

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6
Q

Front: What do twin and adoption studies suggest about the genetic influence on antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Twin and adoption studies estimate that approximately 50% of the variance in antisocial behavior is due to genetic factors.

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7
Q

Front: What is the role of molecular genetics in understanding antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Molecular genetics investigates specific genetic polymorphisms, but single polymorphisms have small effects. Genome-Wide Association Studies (GWAS) offer a more comprehensive approach but face challenges like limited power and replication issues.

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8
Q

Front: What is the Evolutionist Model of Antisocial Behavior?

A

Back: This model suggests that certain antisocial traits, such as fearlessness and aggression, may have been adaptive in ancestral environments.

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9
Q

Front: How do evolutionary traits relate to modern society?

A

Back: Traits like aggressiveness, while potentially adaptive in ancestral environments, may be challenging to manage in modern society.

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10
Q

Front: What is the focus of the evolutionary perspective on antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Understanding the “why” behind certain behaviors by tracing them to adaptive ancestral traits.

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11
Q

Front: How does the evolutionary perspective explain impulsivity and response to the environment?

A

Back: It suggests that impulsivity and response to environmental conditions may have evolutionary roots.

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12
Q

Front: What is the Biopsychological Model of Antisocial Behavior?

A

Back: This model focuses on the biological systems, such as the brain, hormonal system, nervous system, and immune system, that influence antisocial behavior.

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13
Q

Front: What is the significance of the Phineas Gage case?

A

Back: The case highlighted the link between frontal lobe injury and personality changes, including increased impulsivity and aggression.

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14
Q

Front: How is the P300 event-related potential related to antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Reduced P300 amplitude, linked to prefrontal activity, is associated with behavioral disinhibition.

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15
Q

Front: What role does brain imaging play in understanding antisocial behavior?

A

Back: MRI studies have shown reduced prefrontal cortex structure and function in individuals with antisocial behavior.

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16
Q

Front: How does the environment influence brain development and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Environmental factors like poverty can impact brain development, particularly in infancy, and contribute to the development of antisocial behavior.

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17
Q

Front: What are Psychosocial Models of Antisocial Behavior?

A

Back: Psychosocial models focus on the role of social and psychological factors in influencing antisocial behavior.

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18
Q

Front: What is Social Learning Theory?

A

Back: Social Learning Theory suggests that antisocial behavior is learned through observation, modeling, and reinforcement.

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19
Q

Front: What are Social Development Models?

A

Back: Social Development Models emphasize the role of risk and protective factors in influencing the development of antisocial behavior.

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20
Q

Front: What are some examples of risk factors for antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Low intelligence, poor supervision, harsh discipline, delinquent peers, and poverty.

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21
Q

Front: What are some examples of protective factors against antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Positive parenting, supportive schools, and constructive social interactions.

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22
Q

Front: How do modern psychosocial models integrate other perspectives?

A

Back: Many modern psychosocial models integrate genetic and neurobiological vulnerabilities to provide a more comprehensive understanding of antisocial behavior.

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23
Q

Front: What is the Integrative Developmental Biopsychosocial Model of Antisocial Behavior?

A

Back: This model emphasizes the interplay of genetic, environmental, and psychological factors in the development of antisocial behavior.

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24
Q

Front: What are the early manifestations of antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Physical aggression in the first year of life, peaking between 3-4 years, and then declining into adulthood for most individuals.

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25
Q

Front: What are some early risk factors for antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Maternal adolescent ASB, low education and smoking during pregnancy, depression, coercive parenting, family dysfunction, low SES, and delinquent peers.

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26
Q

Front: What is the genetic influence on antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Twin studies suggest a strong genetic basis, with heritability estimates around 50%.

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27
Q

Front: What are some heritable traits linked to antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Impulsivity, sensation-seeking, and P300 brain response.

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28
Q

Front: What is the relationship between low resting heart rate and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Low resting heart rate is a well-established biological correlate of antisocial behavior, particularly proactive aggression.

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29
Q

Front: What evidence supports the link between low resting heart rate and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Meta-analyses have shown a consistent negative correlation between low resting heart rate and antisocial behavior across various studies.

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30
Q

Front: How does low resting heart rate relate to the onset of antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Low heart rate may precede the onset of antisocial behavior.

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31
Q

Front: How does low resting heart rate relate to sensation seeking?

A

Back: Low arousal may lead individuals to engage in risky behaviors to seek stimulation.

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32
Q

Front: How does low resting heart rate relate to fearlessness?

A

Back: Low heart rate may reflect reduced fear response, potentially contributing to fearless behavior.

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33
Q

Front: What are the concerns regarding causality between low resting heart rate and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Recent findings suggest that familial confounding, rather than causation, may explain the link between low resting heart rate and externalizing behavior. Low heart rate during stress may be a stronger predictor of antisocial behavior.

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34
Q

Front: How does low resting heart rate relate to antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Low resting heart rate is a predictor of future antisocial behavior, especially in boys with high social risk.

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35
Q

Front: How does social context influence the relationship between low heart rate and aggression?

A

Back: The relationship between low heart rate and aggression may be more pronounced in higher social classes and among white males.

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36
Q

Front: What is the role of autonomic nervous system (ANS) reactivity in antisocial behavior?

A

Back: While most research focuses on ANS reactivity, limited research on heart rate reactivity suggests alignment with the dual-risk model.

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37
Q

Front: How does heart rate variability (HRV) relate to emotional regulation and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Higher resting HRV is associated with better emotional regulation and lower levels of antisocial behavior. Lower RSA is linked to antisocial behavior.

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38
Q

Front: How does stress response and HRV relate to antisocial behavior?

A

Back: RSA withdrawal during stress is linked to antisocial behavior.

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39
Q

Front: How do social risk factors influence the relationship between heart rate and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Higher resting HRV can buffer against the effects of social risk factors on antisocial behavior. Parental conflict and social risk variations can moderate this relationship.

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40
Q

Front: What is the Pre-Ejection Period (PEP)?

A

Back: The PEP is a physiological measure that reflects the functioning of the heart and the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). It represents the time interval between the electrical activation of the heart and the ejection of blood.

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41
Q

Front: How does PEP relate to SNS activity?

A

Back: A shorter PEP indicates increased SNS activity, while a longer PEP suggests decreased SNS activity.

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42
Q

Front: How is PEP linked to antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Lower SNS reactivity, indicated by a longer PEP, is associated with antisocial personality traits, aggression, and substance abuse.

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43
Q

Front: Are there inconsistencies in research on PEP and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Yes, some studies have shown increased cardiac SNS activity in antisocial individuals, potentially due to differences in experimental conditions, measurement techniques, and participant sampling.

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44
Q

Front: How do biosocial interactions influence the relationship between PEP and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Callous-unemotional traits and prolonged stress and adversity can interact with PEP to influence antisocial behavior.

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45
Q

Front: Are there gender differences in the relationship between PEP and antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Among girls facing high adversity, higher PEP recovery from stress is associated with antisocial behavior.

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46
Q

Front: What is superficial moral judgment?

A

Back: A lack of depth in understanding moral principles and consequences of actions.

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47
Q

Front: Why do individuals with superficial moral judgment obey the law?

A

Back: Often due to fear of punishment or external authority rather than internalized moral principles.

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48
Q

Front: What is a key characteristic of individuals with superficial moral judgment?

A

Back: A pronounced and prolonged egocentric bias.

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49
Q

Front: What are self-serving cognitive distortions?

A

Back: Cognitive biases that serve to protect self-esteem and avoid taking responsibility for negative actions.

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50
Q

Front: What is the primary cognitive distortion in individuals with superficial moral judgment?

A

Back: A self-centered perspective.

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51
Q

Front: What are some secondary cognitive distortions associated with superficial moral judgment?

A

Back: Blaming others, assuming the worst, and minimizing or mislabeling negative behaviors.

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52
Q

Front: Who is Timothy McVeigh?

A

Back: A man executed for the Oklahoma City bombing.

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53
Q

Front: What was McVeigh’s moral-cognitive development like?

A

Back: McVeigh exhibited a profound egocentric bias and a “eye-for-an-eye” mentality.

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54
Q

Front: How did self-serving cognitive distortions influence McVeigh’s actions?

A

Back: McVeigh had an inflated sense of self-importance and fantasized about martyrdom, disconnecting from the consequences of his actions.

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55
Q

Front: How did McVeigh engage in blaming others?

A

Back: He shifted responsibility for failures onto others, including teachers and the government, and developed a paranoid belief in a constant threat from the government.

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56
Q

Front: How did McVeigh minimize and mislabel his actions?

A

Back: He reframed violence as necessary for his “war” and viewed victims as “collateral damage.” He lacked empathy and minimized the significance of death.

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57
Q

Front: What is an emotion?

A

Back: An emotion is a complex psychological state involving physiological arousal, cognitive appraisal, and subjective feelings.

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58
Q

Front: What are the two levels of emotional experience?

A

Back: State-level and trait-level.

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59
Q

Front: What is state-level emotional experience?

A

Back: Our emotional reaction at a specific moment.

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60
Q

Front: What is trait-level emotional experience?

A

Back: Our typical or habitual tendency to experience specific emotions.

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61
Q

Front: What is the relationship between fear, anxiety, and aggression?

A

Back: High levels of fear and anxiety can sometimes lead to increased aggression. Conversely, a lack of fear and anxiety can be linked to severe antisocial behavior.

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62
Q

Front: How does the absence of emotions relate to aggression?

A

Back: A failure to experience fear or anxiety can correlate with aggressive tendencies and a deficiency in prosocial emotions.

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63
Q

Front: What is the relationship between guilt and shame?

A

Back: Guilt is associated with reduced externalizing behavior, while shame can be linked to aggression and violent recidivism.

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64
Q

Front: Why is emotion regulation important in forensic psychology?

A

Back: Understanding how emotions are regulated is crucial for assessing risks of offending and reoffending.

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65
Q

Front: What is Psychopathy?

A

Back: A personality disorder characterized by manipulation, lack of empathy, impulsivity, and irresponsibility.

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66
Q

Front: How is psychopathy related to antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Psychopathy is linked to antisocial behavior in both adults and juveniles.

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67
Q

Front: What is Antisocial Personality Disorder (ASPD)?

A

Back: A personality disorder characterized by disregard for others’ rights, deceitfulness, impulsivity, and lack of remorse.

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68
Q

Front: How are psychopathy and ASPD related?

A

Back: They share core features, and the DSM-5 Alternative Model recognizes psychopathy as a specifier for ASPD.

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69
Q

Front: What is Narcissism? .

A

Back: A personality disorder characterized by grandiosity, entitlement, and lack of empathy

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70
Q

Front: How is narcissism related to aggression?

A

Back: Grandiose narcissism is more closely related to aggression than vulnerable narcissism.

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71
Q

Front: What is the Five-Factor Model of Personality (FFM)?

A

Back: A model that describes personality in terms of five broad domains: Neuroticism, Extraversion, Openness to Experience, Agreeableness, and Conscientiousness.

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72
Q

Front: How are psychopathy, ASPD, and narcissism related to the FFM?

A

Back: Each disorder has a distinct FFM profile, characterized by specific patterns of scores on the five domains and their facets.

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73
Q

Front: What are the benefits of using the FFM to understand personality disorders?

A

Back: It provides a common language, predicts comorbidity, explains overlap between disorders, and helps predict outcomes.

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74
Q

Front: How does Agreeableness-Antagonism relate to psychopathy, ASPD, and narcissism?

A

Back: Low scores on Agreeableness-Antagonism are shared across these disorders and contribute to their similar characteristics.

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75
Q

Front: How can the FFM be used to gain further insights into personality disorders?

A

Back: By connecting personality disorders to established research on the FFM, we can better understand their development, continuity, and the factors that influence these traits.

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76
Q

Front: What is the importance of Antagonism in understanding personality disorders?

A

Back: Antagonism is a crucial trait for understanding psychopathy, antisocial personality disorder, and narcissism.

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77
Q

Front: How does Antagonism relate to Agreeableness?

A

Back: Antagonism is the opposite of Agreeableness. Agreeable individuals prioritize harmonious relationships, while antagonistic individuals may sacrifice them for personal goals.

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78
Q

Front: What is the relationship between Antagonism and aggression?

A

Back: Antagonism is strongly linked to aggression and other forms of antisocial behavior.

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79
Q

Front: What is the Hierarchical Taxonomy of Psychopathology?

A

Back: A model that includes “antagonistic externalizing” as a core dimension, encompassing ASPD, NAR, conduct disorder, and other externalizing disorders.

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80
Q

Front: Why is further research on Antagonism important?

A

Back: Increased research is needed to understand the implications of Antagonism for externalizing problems and interpersonal impairment.

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81
Q

Front: What are Callous-Unemotional (CU) traits?

A

Back: CU traits in children and adolescents are linked to deficient empathy.

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82
Q

Front: What are the dimensions of empathy?

A

Back: Cognitive empathy (understanding others’ perspectives) and affective empathy (mirroring others’ emotional states).

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83
Q

Front: How do CU traits impact empathy?

A

Back: Individuals with CU traits may have deficits in both cognitive and affective empathy.

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84
Q

Front: Can individuals with CU traits understand others’ mental states?

A

Back: Yes, they can, but they may use this knowledge for antisocial purposes.

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85
Q

Front: How does the development of empathy differ between individuals with and without CU traits?

A

Back: Boys with CU traits often show deficits in affective empathy, while cognitive empathy can develop over time.

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86
Q

Front: What are the implications for future research on CU traits and empathy?

A

Back: Future research should examine cognitive and affective empathy separately and explore the nuances of the relationship between CU traits and empathy.

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87
Q

Front: What is pain empathy?

A

Back: The ability to understand and share the pain of others.

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88
Q

Front: How do individuals with high CU traits process pain empathy?

A

Back: They struggle to accurately recognize facial expressions of pain and may exhibit reduced physiological responses to painful stimuli.

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89
Q

Front: What are the consequences of impaired pain empathy?

A

Back: It may lead to increased violence as individuals with CU traits fail to recognize distress in others.

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90
Q

Front: How does pain tolerance relate to CU traits?

A

Back: Individuals with CU traits may have a higher pain threshold, leading them to perceive others’ pain as less distressing.

91
Q

Front: What are the overall implications of research on pain empathy and CU traits?

A

Back: Higher CU traits correlate with poorer recognition of pain cues and weaker physiological responses, suggesting a lack of empathy for others’ distress.

92
Q

Front: What is the traditional discourse surrounding criminality?

A

Back: It often focuses on factors beyond individual control, such as genetics, biology, upbringing, and culture.

93
Q

Front: How does the traditional discourse affect the perception of criminal responsibility?

A

Back: It can diminish the emphasis on the offender’s intentionality, suggesting that they cannot be held fully accountable.

94
Q

Front: What is the legal perspective on criminal behavior?

A

Back: The legal system focuses on the conscious choices individuals make to violate laws, treating them as active agents.

95
Q

Front: How do personal narratives contribute to understanding criminal behavior?

A

Back: Personal narratives bridge the gap between legal considerations and psychological insights by highlighting offenders’ choices and self-perception.

96
Q

Front: What is the narrative framework in psychology?

A

Back: Human memory and thought are structured as stories, providing meaning and coherence to life experiences.

97
Q

Front: How does Canter apply the narrative framework to criminality?

A

Back: Canter argues that understanding offenders’ personal narratives reveals their motivations and intentions.

98
Q

Front: How does Presser’s perspective on narratives differ from Canter’s?

A

Back: Presser emphasizes the dynamic nature of narratives, highlighting their role as active forces shaping behavior.

99
Q

Front: How does McAdams’ work relate to the narrative perspective on criminality?

A

Back: McAdams’ work shows how life stories create coherence and reveal personality patterns over time, which can be applied to understanding criminal behavior.

100
Q

Front: How does Maruna’s work contribute to the narrative perspective on criminality?

A

Back: Maruna argues that an individual’s self-narrative can affect their likelihood of stopping criminal behavior.

101
Q

Front: What is the Narrative Roles Questionnaire (NRQ)?

A

Back: A tool designed to capture offenders’ subjective experiences during the commission of a crime.

102
Q

Front: How does the NRQ help uncover personal narrative themes?

A

Back: By focusing on offenders’ self-perceived roles during a crime, the NRQ can reveal implicit and socially unacceptable themes.

103
Q

Front: How was the NRQ developed?

A

Back: Through in-depth interviews with offenders, analyzing key statements, and creating a Likert scale for self-assessment.

104
Q

Front: What are the challenges in validating the NRQ?

A

Back: Memory distortion, post-offense justifications, and the subjective nature of self-reports.

105
Q

Front: What is the value of the NRQ?

A

Back: The NRQ provides insights into offenders’ internal narratives, helping to understand criminal behavior and inform therapeutic interventions.

106
Q

Front: What are the two dimensions of offence narratives?

A

Back: Potency (agency) and Intimacy (communion).

107
Q

Front: What are the behavioral patterns associated with high potency and high intimacy?

A

Back: High potency: Dominating, imposing will for personal gain. High intimacy: Personal interaction with the victim, aiming to affect them.

108
Q

Front: What are the two primary criminal styles?

A

Back: Instrumental (proactive) and expressive (reactive).

109
Q

Front: How do potency and intimacy relate to different crimes?

A

Back: Bank robbery is high in potency and low in intimacy, while spousal violence is high in both potency and intimacy.

110
Q

Front: What do offenders’ narratives reveal about their motivations?

A

Back: Offenders’ narratives can reveal distinct patterns of behavior and motivations linked to varying levels of potency and intimacy.

111
Q

What are the Cognitive Components of the psychological aspects of narratives in criminal behaviour?

A

Passive rGE: Genetic similarity leads to shared environments.
Evocative rGE: Genetic traits evoke specific responses from others.
Active rGE: Individuals seek out environments that match their genetic predispositions.

112
Q

What are the Affective Components of the psychological aspects of narratives in criminal behaviour?

A

Emotional States: Emotions like elation, distress, depression, and calm can influence criminal behavior.
Motivations for Crime: Thrill-seeking, humiliation, and righteousness can drive criminal actions.
Emotional Responses to Crime: Offenders with high potency may feel calm, while those with low potency may experience anxiety or heightened emotions.

113
Q

What are the Identity Components of the psychological aspects of narratives in criminal behaviour?

A

Interpersonal Dynamics: Offenders’ sense of self in relation to the victim can influence their actions.
Role Definitions: Offenders may define themselves as strong or weak, professional or impulsive.
Identity and Motivation: The way offenders see themselves can impact their criminal behavior and motivations.

114
Q

Front: What is the relationship between avoidant attachment and offending?

A

Back: Avoidant attachment is most prevalent among violent offenders, potentially contributing to criminal behavior due to emotional suppression and overemphasis on self-reliance.

115
Q

Front: How does preoccupied/ambivalent attachment relate to IPV?

A

Back: Preoccupied/ambivalent attachment is common in IPV perpetrators, characterized by emotional instability in close relationships.

116
Q

Front: What is the link between disorganized attachment and violence?

A

Back: Disorganized attachment, when combined with mental illness, can be a potential mediator in extreme cases of violence, such as filicide.

117
Q

Front: What is the relationship between attachment insecurity and violence?

A

Back: Attachment insecurity, particularly avoidant, anxious, and disorganized attachment styles, can contribute to emotional dysregulation and violent behavior.

118
Q

Front: How does avoidant attachment relate to violence?

A

Back: Avoidant attachment can lead to emotional suppression and difficulty managing intense emotions, potentially leading to violent outbursts.

119
Q

Front: How does anxious attachment relate to violence?

A

Back: Anxious attachment can lead to externalizing distress through violence, particularly in the context of intimate partner violence.

120
Q

Front: How does disorganized attachment relate to violence?

A

Back: Disorganized attachment, often linked to childhood trauma, can contribute to severe violence, especially when combined with mental illness.

121
Q

Front: How does attachment insecurity impact mentalizing abilities?

A

Back: Insecure attachment can hinder mentalizing, making it difficult for individuals to understand others’ intentions and leading to violent actions as a means of emotional escape.

122
Q

Front: How does attachment insecurity relate to specific types of violence?

A

Back: Attachment insecurity is particularly relevant to relational violence, such as intimate partner violence and child abuse.

123
Q

Front: What is Albert Bandura’s social-cognitive learning theory?

A

Back: This theory suggests that people learn aggressive behavior through observation and imitation, especially when the behavior is rewarded.

124
Q

Front: What is Edwin Sutherland’s differential association theory?

A

Back: This theory proposes that criminal behavior is learned through interactions with others, where deviant values and rationalizations are exchanged.

125
Q

Front: What is deviancy training?

A

Back: Deviancy training refers to the process through which peers reinforce and escalate each other’s deviant behavior through social interactions and discussions.

126
Q

Front: How does similarity attraction (homophily) influence peer relationships?

A

Back: Individuals may affiliate with others based on similarity in characteristics like gender, race, age, and delinquent attitudes and behaviors.

127
Q

Front: What is the role of peer relationships in adolescent behavior?

A

Back: Peer relationships are central to identity formation and behavior, and peer influence can significantly impact delinquency.

128
Q

Front: What is social network analysis?

A

Back: Social network analysis examines how social connections influence behavior, including delinquent behavior.

129
Q

Front: How does clustering of delinquency occur among peers?

A

Back: Delinquent youths tend to associate with peers who exhibit similar behaviors, creating a reinforcing cycle of delinquency.

130
Q

Front: What role does social influence play in delinquency?

A

Back: Peer influence can significantly impact individual behavior, with aggressive peer groups increasing the likelihood of individual aggression.

131
Q

Front: How does status and social hierarchy influence delinquency?

A

Back: Adolescents may engage in delinquent behavior to assert their autonomy and social status, particularly in hierarchical peer groups.

132
Q

Front: What is the role of gangs in delinquency?

A

Back: Gangs provide a context for social influence and can perpetuate cycles of violence and delinquency.

133
Q

Front: How do peer relationships influence behavior beyond adolescence?

A

Back: Peer relationships continue to influence behavior into adulthood, affecting attitudes towards laws and contributing to various forms of criminal behavior.

134
Q

Front: How do romantic relationships influence criminal behavior?

A

Back: Romantic partners can significantly influence each other’s delinquent behavior, particularly during adolescence.

135
Q

Front: How does gender influence the impact of romantic relationships on delinquency?

A

Back: Boys tend to resist antisocial influences from partners, while girls are more susceptible, especially in short-term relationships.

136
Q

Front: What is the role of selection processes in romantic relationships and delinquency?

A

Back: Delinquent individuals may be more likely to form relationships with antisocial partners, increasing their risk of future offending.

137
Q

Front: How does marriage influence recidivism?

A

Back: Stable marriages typically correlate with reduced recidivism, but this effect is influenced by the partner’s criminal history.

138
Q

Front: What is the impact of a partner’s criminal history on recidivism?

A

Back: Partners with criminal backgrounds can increase the likelihood of offending for both genders.

139
Q

Front: How does relationship stability influence recidivism?

A

Back: Longer and more stable relationships are linked to greater reductions in offending.

140
Q

Front: How do gender differences affect the impact of romantic relationships on recidivism?

A

Back: Negative influences of criminal partners tend to be more pronounced for women, especially in violent relationships.

141
Q

Front: What role do selection processes play in romantic relationships and recidivism?

A

Back: Offenders are less likely to marry and more likely to form relationships with partners who have similar criminal backgrounds.

142
Q

Front: What are the key characteristics of traumatic experiences?

A

Back: Overwhelming negative cognitions and overwhelming negative arousal.

143
Q

Front: What are some short-term effects of trauma?

A

Back: Disrupted sleep, emotional deadening, dissociation, and PTSD symptoms.

144
Q

Front: What are some long-term effects of trauma?

A

Back: Problems with prosocial behavior and moral development.

145
Q

Back: Why is it important to address the effects of trauma therapeutically?

A

Back: The effects of trauma are generally remediable through therapeutic interventions.

146
Q

Front: Who is particularly vulnerable to trauma?

A

Back: Children are particularly vulnerable to the effects of trauma.

147
Q

Front: What are the two main types of trauma?

A

Back: Single-incident (acute) trauma and ongoing (chronic) trauma.

148
Q

Front: How does chronic childhood trauma affect brain development?

A

Back: Chronic childhood trauma can impact the development of executive function and emotional regulation.

149
Q

Front: What is the prevalence of PTSD among prisoners?

A

Back: PTSD rates among prisoners are significantly higher than in the general population, ranging from 4% to 21.4%.

150
Q

Front: How do trauma experiences differ between offenders and the general population?

A

Back: Offenders often experience a higher number of adverse childhood experiences (ACEs) compared to the general population.

151
Q

Front: What are some examples of adverse childhood experiences?

A

Back: Abuse, parental criminality, and household substance abuse.

152
Q

Front: What is Type II trauma?

A

Back: Type II trauma, or complex trauma, refers to the enduring psychological impact of prolonged traumatic exposure.

153
Q

Front: What is Type III trauma?

A

Back: Type III trauma is a severe form of trauma that involves extreme, pervasive, and often sadistic abuse that begins in early childhood and continues for years.

154
Q

Front: How does Type III trauma compare to Type I and Type II trauma?

A

Back: Type III trauma survivors experience far worse outcomes than those with Type I or Type II trauma.

155
Q

Front: How does the type and timing of trauma influence the development of antisocial behavior?

A

Back: Childhood abuse and neglect are strong predictors of adult criminal behavior and future recidivism.

156
Q

Front: Which is more harmful, abuse or neglect?

A

Back: Neglect may be more harmful than abuse, as it disrupts essential developmental processes related to self-worth and interpersonal trust.

157
Q

Front: What are the diagnostic criteria for PTSD according to the DSM-5?

A

Back: 1) Presence of intrusion symptoms, avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and alterations in arousal and reactivity; 2) symptoms begin or worsen after the trauma; 3) symptoms persist for more than one month; 4) significant impairment in functioning; 5) symptoms are not due to medication, substance use, or a medical condition.

158
Q

Front: How has the traditional understanding of PTSD evolved?

A

Back: Traditionally viewed as a psychiatric illness, recent studies suggest PTSD is a systemic disorder affecting multiple organ systems.

159
Q

Front: How does PTSD contribute to complex pathologies?

A

Back: PTSD-associated behavioral changes, such as increased tobacco use and alcohol consumption, can exacerbate other health issues.

160
Q

Front: What is a major area of research in PTSD?

A

Back: Determining whether abnormal brain structures, like smaller hippocampal volumes, are a cause or consequence of PTSD.

161
Q

Front: What is the legal standard for competency to stand trial?

A

Back: A defendant must have the ability to consult with their lawyer with a rational understanding and a rational and factual understanding of the trial process.

162
Q

Front: How does severe mental disturbance relate to competency to stand trial?

A

Back: Severe mental disturbance alone does not necessarily make a defendant incompetent; it must specifically impair their ability to assist their attorney or understand the proceedings.

163
Q

Front: How can PTSD impact competency to stand trial?

A

Back: PTSD can negatively impact attention, perception, concentration, and memory, which can derail the stages of competence-relevant decision-making.

164
Q

Front: What is the historical connection between PTSD and tort law?

A

Back: The concept of PTSD can be traced back to the 1860s with the term “railway spine.”

165
Q

Front: How did World War I influence the understanding of PTSD?

A

Back: World War I introduced terms like “shell shock” and “war neuroses,” linking PTSD to war trauma.

166
Q

Front: How did the DSM-III influence the legal recognition of PTSD?

A

Back: The DSM-III defined PTSD as a result of trauma outside normal human experience, facilitating tort claims by linking causation to the diagnosis.

167
Q

Front: How have DSM revisions impacted the definition of PTSD?

A

Back: Later DSM revisions expanded PTSD criteria, allowing for a broader range of traumatic events and shifting to a subjective standard for trauma assessment.

168
Q

Front: What is a tort?

A

Back: A civil wrong, other than a breach of contract, for which a remedy may be obtained.

169
Q

Front: How is PTSD relevant to tort law?

A

Back: PTSD is most relevant to negligence claims for mental or emotional harm, associated with or without physical injuries.

170
Q

Front: What is the difference between pain and suffering and emotional distress?

A

Back: Pain and suffering stems from physical injuries, while emotional distress is a result of fright or anxiety.

171
Q

Front: What are the three general categories of torts?

A

Back: Intentional torts, negligent torts, and strict liability torts.

172
Q

Front: What is a negligent tort?

A

Back: A failure to act with the level of care that a reasonable person would have exercised under similar circumstances.

173
Q

Front: What is a strict liability tort?

A

Back: A wrongful act without any accompanying intent or mental state, often associated with product liability.

174
Q

Front: What are the elements of Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress (IIED)?

A

Back: 1. Intentional or reckless conduct; 2. Extreme and outrageous conduct; 3. Causation of severe emotional distress.

175
Q

Front: What are the elements of Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress (NIED)?

A

Back: Causation of severe emotional distress through negligent action, often requiring impact or being within the zone of danger of physical harm.

176
Q

Front: What are the requirements for a viable claim for psychological damages?

A

Back: 1. Defendant’s responsibility for the injury; 2. Plaintiff’s documented mental disorder or emotional condition; 3. Causation between the negligent act and the disorder; 4. Loss or impairment suffered by the plaintiff.

177
Q

Front: What are the key components of a forensic assessment of PTSD?

A

Back: 1. Existence of PTSD or related disorders; 2. Temporal relationship between the trauma and the disorder; 3. Potential for remission with treatment; 4. Extent of functional disability.

178
Q

Front: How do forensic psychologists integrate scientific knowledge and individual characteristics in their assessments?

A

Back: Forensic psychologists integrate scientific knowledge, epidemiological data, and actuarial data with the plaintiff’s specific characteristics to predict outcomes and assess the impact of the trauma.

179
Q

Front: What is comorbidity?

A

Back: Comorbidity refers to the simultaneous occurrence of multiple mental health disorders in a single individual.

180
Q

Front: How does comorbidity complicate the diagnosis and treatment of PTSD?

A

Back: Comorbidity can make it difficult to determine the primary cause of symptoms and to develop an effective treatment plan.

181
Q

Front: What challenges does comorbidity pose for forensic assessors?

A

Back: Forensic assessors must discern whether other psychological conditions predate the traumatic event that led to the PTSD diagnosis.

182
Q

Front: Can health professionals reliably diagnose PTSD?

A

Back: Yes, health professionals have reliable tools and criteria to diagnose PTSD, distinguishing it from similar disorders like major depressive disorder and generalized anxiety disorder.

183
Q

Front: What makes PTSD unique among mental health disorders?

A

Back: PTSD is linked to a specific traumatic event, unlike conditions like depression, which often have less clear onset.

184
Q

Front: Why is understanding the rate of spontaneous remission in PTSD important for forensic assessment?

A

Back: It helps in estimating the potential course of the disorder and the impact of treatment.

185
Q

Front: How do treatment-seeking and non-treatment-seeking samples differ in terms of PTSD remission rates?

A

Back: Treatment-seeking samples may have higher rates of PTSD due to the nature of seeking help, while non-treatment-seeking samples may have lower rates.

186
Q

Front: What are continuous admission samples?

A

Back: Continuous admission samples are studies that include all individuals who meet specific criteria, such as trauma survivors seeking treatment.

187
Q

Front: What are the typical rates of spontaneous remission for PTSD in motor vehicle accident survivors?

A

Back: Initial PTSD rates range from 29% to 34%, with remission rates varying from 10% to 60% within one or two years.

188
Q

Front: How does trauma type influence the course of PTSD?

A

Back: Different types of trauma, such as those resulting from natural disasters or sexual assault, can have varying rates of spontaneous remission.

189
Q

Front: Can PTSD develop long after the traumatic event?

A

Back: Yes, some studies have shown that PTSD can develop years after the initial trauma.

190
Q

Front: What did Blanchard and colleagues’ study on Motot Vehicle Accident survivors show about the spontaneous remission of PTSD?

A

Back: Approximately 40% of MVA survivors met the criteria for PTSD initially, and 55% of those with PTSD remitted within six months.

191
Q

Front: How does the rate of spontaneous remission change over time for PTSD?

A

Back: While many studies show significant remission within the first year, some research indicates slower remission or even an increase in PTSD prevalence over time.

192
Q

Front: How does the type of trauma influence the rate of spontaneous remission?

A

Back: The rate of spontaneous remission can vary depending on the type of trauma. For example, studies on sexual assault victims have shown lower remission rates compared to other types of trauma.

193
Q

Front: What is delayed onset PTSD?

A

Back: Delayed onset PTSD refers to the development of PTSD symptoms months or even years after a traumatic event.

194
Q

Front: What are the challenges in defining delayed onset PTSD?

A

Back: Challenges include determining what constitutes a delay, identifying the precise starting point for symptom onset, and assessing the prevalence of delayed onset.

195
Q

Front: How does the nature of the traumatic event influence the onset of PTSD?

A

Back: Prolonged or diffuse trauma, such as combat or ongoing medical challenges, may increase the likelihood of delayed onset PTSD.

196
Q

Front: What are the implications of delayed onset PTSD for diagnosis and treatment?

A

Back: Delayed onset PTSD highlights the need for a nuanced understanding of the temporal course of PTSD and the importance of ongoing assessment and treatment.

197
Q

Front: What are effective treatments for PTSD?

A

Back: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are effective treatments for PTSD.

198
Q

Front: What are some challenges in treating PTSD?

A

Back: Limited access to effective treatments and incomplete remission even with the best interventions.

199
Q

Front: How does the effectiveness of treatment impact PTSD claims?

A

Back: Effective treatments can improve prognosis and potentially reduce the impact of PTSD on an individual’s life, which is relevant to compensation claims.

200
Q

Front: What is the importance of considering the limitations of treatment in PTSD claims?

A

Back: It’s important to recognize that not all individuals with PTSD achieve full recovery, even with treatment, which can impact the assessment of long-term consequences and compensation claims.

201
Q

Front: What are the challenges in determining a plaintiff’s pretrauma mental state?

A

Back: The unreliability of autobiographical memories and limitations of routine mental health screening pose challenges.

202
Q

Front: How do retrospective recall biases affect the assessment of pretrauma mental state?

A

Back: Individuals may reconstruct past memories based on current beliefs and stereotypes, leading to inaccurate recall of past distress.

203
Q

Front: How can forensic assessors mitigate the impact of recall biases?

A

Back: By relying on methods like reviewing past health records and interviewing collateral informants.

204
Q

Front: What is the importance of understanding the temporal course of PTSD symptoms?

A

Back: Understanding the temporal course of PTSD symptoms helps in determining the impact of the traumatic event on the individual’s mental health.

205
Q

Front: How has the understanding of sexual violence evolved?

A

Back: Since the 1970s, sexual violence has been recognized as a harm to both individual and collective identity.

206
Q

Front: What are the different perspectives on trauma?

A

Back: Western models often focus on individual trauma and medical treatment, while other cultures emphasize the collective and socio-political roots of trauma.

207
Q

Front: How does culture shape the experience of trauma? Back: Western models often focus on individual trauma and medical treatment, while other cultures emphasize the collective and socio-political roots of trauma.

A
208
Q

Front: How do individuals respond to sexual violence?

A

Back: Reactions to sexual violence vary widely and depend on factors such as personal characteristics, social context, and support systems.

209
Q

Front: How has the understanding of sexual violence evolved in legal contexts?

A

Back: Since the 1970s, there has been increased recognition of the psychological impact of sexual violence, leading to its inclusion in damage assessments in court cases.

210
Q

Front: What are the challenges of seeking compensation for sexual violence?

A

Back: Compensation can be seen as commodifying trauma and may not address broader socio-political issues related to sexual violence.

211
Q

Front: How can the pursuit of compensation impact the narrative of sexual violence?

A

Back: The legal process may pressure survivors to portray themselves as permanently damaged, potentially reinforcing harmful stereotypes.

212
Q

Front: What are the limitations of tort claims in addressing trauma?

A

Back: Tort claims may not fully account for the complex, interconnected nature of sexual violence and trauma, which are influenced by systemic power relations.

213
Q

Front: How does the legal process impact trauma survivors?

A

Back: The legal process can be challenging for survivors due to the need to disclose traumatic events in detail and the potential for fragmented or inconsistent memories.

214
Q

Front: What is a trauma-informed approach to the legal process?

A

Back: A trauma-informed approach can help lawyers navigate the challenges faced by survivors and reduce potential harm.

215
Q

Front: What is trauma-informed lawyering?

A

Back: Trauma-informed lawyering involves understanding the impact of trauma, adapting legal methods accordingly, and creating healing environments.

216
Q

Front: What are the key principles of trauma-informed practices?

A

Back: Recognizing the impact of violence and victimization, building positive relationships, and minimizing re-traumatization.

217
Q

Front: How can lawyers apply trauma-informed practices?

A

Back: By understanding the nature of violence and its social, structural, and individual dimensions, and adapting practices to minimize further trauma.

218
Q

Front: What are the key aspects of trauma-informed practices?

A

Back: Attention to the cultural, historical, and gender dimensions of trauma and its causes.

219
Q

Front: How does cultural sensitivity play a role in trauma-informed practices?

A

Back: Trauma-informed practices involve actively addressing cultural stereotypes and biases, responding to the racial, ethnic, and cultural needs of service users, and attending to racial and historical traumas.

220
Q

What are the seven principles of Trauma informed practices?

A

Recognizing: recognizing the impact of sexual violence and trauma;
Building: building positive relationships;
Ensuring: ensuring safety, trust, and transparency;
Minimizing: minimizing re-traumatization;
Promoting: promoting empowerment, voice, and choice;
Attending: attending to cultural, historical, and gender dimensions; and
minimizing vicarious trauma

221
Q

Front: What is the role of a fact witness?

A

Back: A fact witness, typically a treating clinician, provides factual information limited to their clinical notes on the patient’s history and treatment.

222
Q

Front: What is the role of an expert witness?

A

Back: An expert witness, typically a non-treating clinician, provides an objective analysis of the case, often using a broader range of information to inform their testimony.

223
Q

Front: What are the ethical concerns with serving as both a treating clinician and an expert witness?

A

Back: Potential conflicts of interest can arise, impacting the clinician’s ability to prioritize the patient’s therapeutic needs and leading to biased reporting.

224
Q

Front: How can ethical conflicts be avoided in dual roles?

A

Back: Clearly defining roles and boundaries is essential to maintain objectivity and protect the therapeutic relationship.

Psychopathology (4 decks)

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