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MCAT > Psychology/Sociology (Concepts 6A, 6B, 6C) > Flashcards

Psychology/Sociology (Concepts 6A, 6B, 6C) Flashcards

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1
Q

sensory processing

A

the process of first taking in the stimuli through our senses and then interpreting the stimuli in the brain

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2
Q

threshold

A

the minimum stimulation required to sense a stimuli

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3
Q

Weber’s Law

A

states that a change in a stimulus that will be just noticeable is a constant ratio of the original stimulus

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4
Q

signal detection theory

A

states that humans will detect a signal based on two factors: how large the stimulus is and how much attention the person is paying it

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5
Q

sensory adaptation

A

when our senses become adapted to certain stimuli that we don’t pay attention to it

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6
Q

cornea

A

the outermost layer of the eye responsible for protecting the eye and the majority of light refraction

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7
Q

aqueous humor

A

fluid between the cornea and lens that also refracts light

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8
Q

iris

A

the colored portion of the eye that controls how much light gets in the eye

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9
Q

pupil

A

opening in the eye that allows light to enter

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10
Q

lens

A

focuses light and allows the eye to focus on closer and farther objects

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11
Q

sclera

A

outer layer of the inner eyer that attaches the eye to muscle and allows the eyer to move

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12
Q

ciliary body

A

connects the eye to the choroid and changes the shape of the lens during accommodation

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13
Q

retina

A

the inner layer of the eye that contains rods and cones used for the detection of light

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14
Q

vitreous humor

A

jelly-like fluid in the inside of the eye that allows the eye to keep its shape

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15
Q

mucula

A

small portion of the retina that detects the light from objects directly in front of you

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16
Q

fovea

A

a small point in the macula that is where cones are concentrated

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17
Q

optic nerve

A

the nerve that takes the signals from the rods and cones and sends them to the brain

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18
Q

rods

A

cells containing the photopigment rhodopsin located in the peripheral of the retina that do not detect any color but are used during low-resolution and night vision situations

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19
Q

parallel processing

A

brains ability to process more than one stimulus at a time

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20
Q

feature detection

A

how the brain filters and sorts different stimuli based on their relevance and importance

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21
Q

auricle

A

external cartilaginous part of the ear that capturs sound

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22
Q

external auditory meatus

A

the passage in the external ear that transmits sound towards the middle ear

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23
Q

tympanic membrane

A

the eardrum that converts the sound waves into vibrations that vibrate the ossicles

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24
Q

ossicles

A

three small bones in the middle ear that amplifies and transmits sound vibrations to the oval window in the cochlea

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25
Q

malleus

A

the “hammer” ossicle that is attached to the eardrum

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26
Q

incus

A

the middle ossicle connecting the malleus and stapes

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27
Q

stapes

A

the third ossicle that is connected to the cochlea via the oval window

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28
Q

eustachian tube

A

a tube that connects the middle ear to the pharynx to help equalize the pressure int he ear

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29
Q

oval window

A

a thin diaphragm in the cochlea that transmits oscillations to the fluid in the cochlea

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30
Q

semicircular canal

A

the organ in the ear consisting of three tubular loops oriented in the three spatial planes that detect the angular acceleration and deceleration from rotation via the shifts in fluid in the canals

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31
Q

vestibule

A

the organ in the inner ear that detects the linear acceleration from moving in a straight line… contains two primary receptor organs (utricle and saccule) that detect the change in movement through tiny crystals attached to hairs in a gelatinous liquid

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32
Q

choroid

A

the pigmented vascular layer of the eye between the retina and sclera

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33
Q

accommodation

A

when the lens bends to focus on objects that are differing distances away

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34
Q

cones

A

cells containing photopigments/photopsins located in the center of the retina that detect red, green, and blue colors and are used during high-resolution and day vision situations

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35
Q

myopia

A

nearsightedness; inability to focus on objects at a far distance but can be fixed using concave lenses

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36
Q

hyperopia

A

farsightedness; inability to focus on objects at a close distance but can be fixed using concave lenses

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37
Q

cochlea

A

the organ in the inner ear that detects sound via the changes in fluid which bend the cilia hair fibers located in the basilar membrane within this organ

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38
Q

basilar membrane

A

positions the hair cells in the cochlear fluid so that they can sense variable sounds frequencies.. low frequencies are detected near the apex of the cochlea; high sound frequencies are detected near the base/round window of the cochlea

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39
Q

organs of corti

A

lies on top of the basilar membrane and contains the hair cells

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40
Q

hair cells

A

detects movement in the fluid of the cochlea and send electrical signals to the brain

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41
Q

round window

A

the base of the cochlea that relieves pressure caused by the movement of fluid in the cochlea

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42
Q

mechanotransduction

A

the transformation of the mechanical force into electrical signals

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43
Q

tympanic cavity

A

the thin air-filled compartment in the middle ear that is surrounded by bone and is separated from the external ear by a thin tympanic membrane (tympanum) and is in direct communication with the pharynx via the auditory tube

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44
Q

cochlear nerve

A

the nerve that takes auditory information from the cochlea to the brain

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45
Q

vestibular nerve

A

the nerve that takes vestibular information (information about the body’s position in space, balance, and acceleration) from the vestibule cavity to the brain

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46
Q

somatosensation

A

consists of all sensations received from the skin and mucous membranes, as well as, from the limbs and joints

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47
Q

Merkel’s disk

A

a type of mechanoreceptor that is found in the base of the epidermis of both skin that has hair and glabrous skin and responds to light touch

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48
Q

Meissner’s corpuscle

A

tactile receptors found in the upper dermis and base of the epidermis of both types of skin that respond to fine touch and pressure, and also respond to low-frequency vibration or flutter

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49
Q

Ruffini ending

A

slow-adapting, encapsulated mechanoreceptors that are found in the dermis of both hair and glabrous skin that detect skin stretch and deformations within joints

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50
Q

Pacinian corpuscle

A

mechanoreceptors found deep in the dermis that sense deep transient (but not prolonged) pressure and high-frequency vibration

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51
Q

Krause end bulb

A

a mechanoreceptor that is only found in specialized area of the body and detects the cold

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52
Q

Muscle spindles

A

stretch receptors that detect the amount of stretch, or lengthening of muscles.

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53
Q

Golgi tendon organs

A

tension receptors that detect the force of muscle contraction.

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54
Q

baroreceptors

A

receptors in the arteries, veins, and lungs that sense changes in pressure due to blood pressure or air filling up in the lungs

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55
Q

nociceptors

A

receptors that detect pain

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56
Q

thermoreceptors

A

receptors located in the dermis, skeletal muscles, liver, and hypothalamus, that are activated by different temperatures.

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57
Q

free nerve endings

A

an unencapsulated dendrite of sensory neurons that are sensitive to painful stimuli, to hot and cold, and to light touch.

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58
Q

glabrous skin

A

skin without hair (the palms of the hand and the soles of the feet)

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59
Q

epidermis

A

upper layer of the skin

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60
Q

dermis

A

inner layer of the skin

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61
Q

gustation

A

sense of taste

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62
Q

olfaction

A

sense of smell

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63
Q

olfactory epithelium

A

a collection of specialized olfactory receptors in the back of the nasal cavity

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64
Q

olfactory receptors

A

a dendrite of a specialized neuron that responds when it binds certain molecules inhaled from the environment by sending impulses directly to the olfactory bulb of the brain

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65
Q

odorants

A

odor molecules enter the nose and dissolve in the olfactory epithelium,

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66
Q

bipolar neurons

A

neurons with two processes from the cell body

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67
Q

olfactory bulb

A

a neural structure of the forebrain involved in olfaction

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68
Q

pheromone

A

a chemical released by an animal that affects the behavior or physiology of animals of the same species

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69
Q

vomeronasal organ (aka Jacobson’s organ)

A

a tubular, fluid-filled, olfactory organ present in many vertebrate animals that sits adjacent to the nasal cavity and is very sensitive to pheromones

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70
Q

taste bud

A

a cluster of gustatory receptors that are located within the papillae

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71
Q

papillae

A

the bumps on the tongue

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72
Q

circumvallate papillae

A

papillae located towards the back of the tongue or in adjacent structures of the palate

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73
Q

fungiform papillae

A

papillae located in the middle of the tongue

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74
Q

filiform papillae

A

papillae located towards the front tip of the tongue

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75
Q

foliate papillae

A

leaf-like papillae located in parallel folds along the edges and toward the back of the tongue

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76
Q

tastants

A

food molecules that dissolve in saliva and bind with and stimulate the microvilli

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77
Q

salty tastant

A

provides the sodium ions (Na+) that enter the taste neurons and excite them directly

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78
Q

sour tastant

A

tastants that are acids and belong to the thermoreceptor protein family and trigger a change in the ion channel and these increase hydrogen ion (H+) concentrations in the taste neurons,

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79
Q

olfactory neurons

A

project from the olfactory epithelium to the olfactory bulb as thin, unmyelinated axons

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80
Q

glomeruli

A

neural clusters that receive signals from one type of olfactory receptor (so each glomerulus is specific to one odorant)

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81
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

receptors that sense stimuli due to physical deformations of their plasma membranes in response to pressure, touch, stretching, and sound

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82
Q

chemoreceptors

A

chemical receptors

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83
Q

microvilli

A

hair-like projects on cells

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84
Q

psychophysics

A

the branch of psychology that deals with the relations between physical stimuli and mental phenomena

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85
Q

proprioceptors

A

sensory receptors located in the muscles and joints that are responsible for the awareness of the position and movement of the parts of the body

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86
Q

bottom-up processing

A

the stimulus itself shapes our perception, without any preconceived ideas

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87
Q

top-down processing

A

our background knowledge and expectations is used to interpret what we sense

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88
Q

perceptual organization

A

the way information is received by our senses and interpreted to make it meaningful

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89
Q

depth

A

the ability to see objects in three dimensions, including their size and how far away they are

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90
Q

form

A

ability to visually perceive objects in the world in response to the patterns of light that they caste on our retinas

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91
Q

motion

A

inferring the speed and direction of elements in a scene based on stimuli

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92
Q

consistency

A

tendency to perceive an object one is familiar with as having a constant shape, size, and brightness despite any changes

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93
Q

Gestalt principles

A

a set of principles for understanding some of the ways perception works

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94
Q

habituation

A

the getting used to a stimuli you are exposed to constantly

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95
Q

sensitization

A

when a particular sensation causes a stronger response than it once did

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96
Q

cross-sensitization

A

when an acquired sensitization of a stimulus causes the sensitization of other stimuli that are closely related to the one you were sensitized to before

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97
Q

absolute detection threshold

A

the lowest level of intensity required of a stimuli that causes detection of the stimuli

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98
Q

signal detection theory

A

multiple factors influence whether or not an individual will detect a stimuli including the intensity of the stimuli and their attention on the stimuli

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99
Q

Weber’s law

A

law that states there is a relationship between the original intensity of a stimulus and the threshold at which humans will detect a change in the intensity of the same stimuli

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100
Q

Just Noticeable Difference

A

relationship between the original intensity of a stimulus and the threshold at which humans will detect a change in the intensity of the same stimuli

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101
Q

Fechner

A

the person who coined the term psychophysics

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102
Q

sensation

A

stimulation of sensor reseptors

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103
Q

perception

A

the brain’s processing and filtering of the stimuli

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104
Q

Pragnanz principle

A

humans perceive patterns in what they see

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105
Q

Principle of continuity

A

when items overlap, humans tend to perceive those items as part of the same object

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106
Q

Principle of proximity

A

when items are close together humans tend to perceive them as being a part of the same group as opposed to when they are far apart

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107
Q

Principle of similarity

A

when items look similar humans tend to perceive them as being a part of the same object

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108
Q

Principle of common fate

A

when items look like they are moving, humans tend to perceive those items are moving at the same speed

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109
Q

Principle of closure

A

humans tend to “fill in” missing information

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110
Q

selective attention

A

focusing awareness on one stimulus while tuning out others, not ignoring them completely

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111
Q

divided attention

A

focusing awareness on more than one stimuli

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112
Q

information processing model

A

Sensory stimuli are converted to sensory memory which (if you pay attention to it) gets transformed into short-term memory. Short-term memory is then either encoded into long-term memory or lost if not rehearsed. Long-term memory can also be retrieved later or can become lost over time.

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113
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor stage

A
  • ages 0-2
  • children learn by manipulating objects, trial-and-error, using their five senses
  • important skills to learn intentional imitation, coordination, object recognition, object permanence
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114
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development: preoperational stage

A
  • ages 2-7 (preschooler age)
  • children learn by thinking relationally
  • important skills to learn: symbolistic representation, egocentrism (looking at things from outside perspectives), animism (believing objects have thoughts)
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115
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development: concrete operational state

A
  • ages 7-12
  • children learn by inductive logical reasoning
  • important skills to learn: conversation (quantitative reasoning), classification (separating items by their shared qualities), reversibility (knowing things can be put back in their original place)
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116
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development: formal operational stage

A
  • ages 12 to adulthood
  • learn by abstractive thinking
  • skills to learn: deductive reasoning, problem-solving, hypothetical scenarios, constructing arguments, metacognition (thinking about thinking)
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117
Q

cognitive changes in late adulthood

A
  • decline in: recall, episodic memory, processing speed, divided attention
  • improvements in: emotional reasoning, crystalized IQ, and semantic memory
  • stability in: recognition and implicit memories (eg, how to ride a bike)
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118
Q

role of culture in cognitive development

A
  • social milestones such as when a child can start school differ across cultures
  • parenting styles differ across cultures
  • race and racial stereotypes can affect a child’s cognitive development
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119
Q

schema

A

mental boxes we can use to organize and interpret information

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120
Q

accommodation

A

adjusting our schemas to better understand the information we have; its a way to deal with the disequilibrium we face when new information doesn’t match the existing schemas

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121
Q

assimilation

A

understanding new information based on our current understanding/schemas

122
Q

trial and error

A

continue trying different solutions until the problem is solved

123
Q

algorithmic problem solving

A

creating a step-by-step problem-solving formula

124
Q

heuristic problem solving

A

solving a problem using a general problem-solving framework that also includes shortcuts and working backwards to get to the answer faster

125
Q

abstraction

A

refers to solving the problem within a model of the situation before applying it to reality

126
Q

analogy

A

is using a solution that solves a similar problem

127
Q

brainstorming

A

refers to collecting and analyzing a large amount of solutions, especially within a group of people, to combine the solutions and develop them until an optimal solution is reached

128
Q

divide and conquer

A

breaking down large complex problems into smaller more manageable problems

129
Q

hypothesis testing

A

an assumption about what would happen in response to manipulating an independent variable is made, and then the analysis of the effects of the manipulation is made and compared to the original hypothesis

130
Q

lateral thinking

A

approaching problems indirectly and creatively by viewing the problem in a new and unusual light

131
Q

means-end analysis

A

choosing and analyzing an action at a series of smaller steps to move closer to the goal

132
Q

method of focal objects

A

putting seemingly non-matching characteristics of different procedures together to make something new that will get you closer to the goal

133
Q

morphological analysis

A

analyzing the outputs of and interactions of many pieces that together make up a whole system

134
Q

proof

A

trying to prove that a problem cannot be solved… where the proof fails becomes the starting point or solving the problem

135
Q

reduction

A

adapting the problem to be as similar problems where a solution exists

136
Q

research

A

using existing knowledge or solutions to similar problems to solve the problem

137
Q

root cause analysis

A

trying to identify the cause of the problem

138
Q

heuristics

A

mental shortcuts that allow people to make fast decisions

139
Q

biases

A

disproportionate weight in favor of or against an idea or thing

140
Q

overconfidence

A

a well-established bias in which a person’s subjective confidence in their judgments is reliably greater than the objective accuracy of those judgments

141
Q

belief perseverance

A

maintaining a belief despite new information that firmly contradicts it

142
Q

intuition

A

Intuition is the ability to acquire knowledge, without recourse to conscious reasoning or needing an explanation

143
Q

intelligence

A

the mental capacity to learn from experiences, adapt to new situations, understand and handle abstract concepts, and use knowledge to manipulate one’s environment

144
Q

Spearman’s theory of general intelligence

A
  • there is a general intelligence (G factor) and this g factor can predict the outcomes in various academic areas
  • strength: strong evidence that if one person scores well in one area, they will also score well in other areas
  • weakness: very controversial… can one single factor contribute to all abilities?
145
Q

Thurston’s theory of primary mental ability

A
  • there are 7 factors of intelligence (verbal comprehension, word fluency, number facility, spatial visualization, associative memory, perceptual speed and reasoning)
  • strength: seems more intuitive to have a breakdown
  • weakness: strong evidence that if one person scores well in one area, they will also score well in other areas
146
Q

Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligence

A
  • there are 7-9 independent intelligences that don’t rely on each other or depend on each other (visual-spatial, linguistic-verbal, logical-mathematical, body-kinesthetic, musical, interpersonal, intrapersonal, naturalistic, existential)
  • strength: accounts for not just book smarts
  • weakness: the lines between intelligence and talents start getting blurred and there is no evidence to support it
147
Q

Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence

A
  • there are three intelligence (creative, practical, analytical)
  • strength: real-world success and application, reliably measured
  • weakness: strong evidence that if one person scores well in one area, they will also score well in other areas; also are they all the different sides of the same coin
148
Q

Galton’s theory of intelligence

A

measuring people’s physical attributes, such as eyesight, strength of grip, hearing, etc., was a valid way of assessing their intelligence

149
Q

Binet’s idea of mental age

A

children who could not complete a certain set of tasks were below average… children who could complete tasks that were expected of older children were above average. The test he created is the IQ test.

150
Q

IQ

A
  • a measure of analytical intelligence
  • the average score of the population is 100, so your score tells you where you fall based on the average person
151
Q

fluid intelligence

A

ability to reason quickly and abstractly; tends to decrease as we move into adulthood

152
Q

crystalized intelligence

A

accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase as we move into adulthood

153
Q

emotional intelligence

A

the ability to perceive, understand, and interpret another person’s emotions during interactions with the other person

154
Q

intelligence

A

mental quality that allows you to learn from experience, solve problems, and adapt to new situations

155
Q

conscious

A

awareness of ourselves and our surroundings

156
Q

alertness

A

being fully able to percieve everything around you

157
Q

daydreaming

A

awake but not aware of the world around you; similar to light meditation

158
Q

drowsiness

A

almost asleep but still semi-aware of the world around you; similar to deep meditation

159
Q

sleep

A

start of unconsciousness where you are unaware of anything going on around you

160
Q

electroencephalogram

A

a machine that measures brain waves

161
Q

attention

A

being able to focus on everything around you

162
Q

gamma waves

A
  • 31-100 Hz
  • poorly understood
  • more pronounces with heightened focus and among lifelong meditators
163
Q

theta waves

A
  • 4-7 Hz
  • correlated with drowsiness, hypnosis, some forms of meditation, light sleep
164
Q

delta waves

A
  • 0.1-3 Hz
  • correlated with deep sleep
165
Q

alpha waves

A
  • 8-15 Hz
  • correlated with resting and relaxation
166
Q

beta waves

A
  • 16-30 Hz
  • correlated with normal waking consciousness
167
Q

sleep cycles

A
  • each cycle lasts about 90-110 minutes in adults
  • adults usually go through 3 to 4 cycles per night
168
Q

N1 sleep stage

A
  • light sleep
  • includes hypnotic jerks (involuntary twitches) and hypnagogia (lifelike hallucinations that often involve floating or falling)
  • lasts 5-10 minutes
  • dominant brain wave: theta
169
Q

N2 sleep stage

A
  • includes sleep spindles (electrical activity from the thalamus filters sensory input and consolidated memories) and k-complexes (generated in the cortex and suppresses arousal and consolidates memories)
  • dominant brain wave: theta
  • usually occurs 2x per cycle… takes up most of our sleep time
170
Q

N3 sleep stage

A
  • slow wave sleep (SWS)
  • most important stage for rest and recuperation
  • dominant brain wave: delta wave
  • most of this stage occurs during the first half of the night
  • there is no SWS in infants but it increases by 12 months and then declines at puberty only to steady in the 20s
  • men have less SWS than women after the age of 30
171
Q

REM stage

A
  • rapid eye movement
  • most dreaming occurs at this stage
  • paradoxical sleep; brain waves function as if we are awake
  • most of this stage occurs during the second half of the night
  • infants spend about 50% time in REM; adults about 20%
172
Q

feature detectors

A

automatic process by which the nervous system attunes to some stimuli more thoroughly than others

173
Q

fusiform face area

A

located in the fusiform gyrus in the temporal lobe

174
Q

first sleep cycle

A

N1 -> N2 -> N3 -> N2 -> REM

(subsequent sleep cycles don’t always have N3)

175
Q

benefits of sleep

A
  • correlated with longevity
  • memory consolidation occurs during N2, N3, REM
  • glial cells shrink allowing waste to be removed more effectively
  • sleep assists in mood, energy, creativity, perception, and judgment
  • regulates the immune system, cortisol, and appetite
176
Q

circadian rhythm

A
  • located in the suprachiasmatic nucleus in the hypothalamus
  • mediated by melatonin (pineal gland), cortisol (adrenal gland), and neurotransmitter signaling
  • integrates sensory input from the retina via daylight; thus artificial light can disrupt this process
  • teenagers have a different circadian rhythm compared to adults
177
Q

theory of dreaming: Freud’s wish-fulfillment

A
  • dreams provide a psychic safety value that we can use to express things that are otherwise unacceptable and our wishes that are hidden in our unconscious
  • dreams have two meanings: the manifest content and the hidden meaning
  • weakness: lacks any scientific support and dreams may be interpreted in many ways
178
Q

theory of dreaming: information processing/memory consolidation

A
  • dreams help us sort out the day’s events and consolidate our memories
  • weakness: we sometimes dream about things that didn’t happen so…
179
Q

theory of dreaming: physiological function

A
  • regular brain stimulation from REM sleep may help develop and preserve neural pathways
  • weakness: this does not explain why we experience meaningful dreams
180
Q

theory of dreaming: neural activation/activation-synthesis

A
  • REM sleep triggers neural activity that evokes random visual memories, which our sleeping brain weaves into stories
  • weakness: the individual’s brain is weaving stories, which still tells us something about the dreamer
181
Q

theory of dreaming: cognitive development

A
  • dream content reflects the dreamer’s cognitive developments (their knowledge and understanding)
  • weakness: this does not address the neuroscience of dreams
182
Q

theory of dreaming: evolutionary biology

A
  • dreams are threat simulations that prepare us for the real world
  • weakness: some dreams serve no purpose
183
Q

polysomnography

A
  • multifaceted exam to measure sleep activity
  • contains multiple tests: EEG, EKG, EOG, EMG
  • performed in a sleep lab
184
Q

multiple sleep latency test

A
  • test for observing napping behavior
  • used to diagnose disorders related to excessive daytime sleeping
  • patient instructed to take a 20 minute nap every 2 hours to determine how long it takes them to fall asleep (aka sleep latency)
185
Q

sleep apnea

A
  • aka. sleep breathing disorder
  • men are 2x more likely to have it and 8x more likely to be diagnosed
  • prevalence is around 7-10%. 25% among elders
186
Q

obstructive sleep apnea

A
  • most common subtype of sleep apnea
  • related to snoring
  • individual’s airway closes but breathing continues causing them to sputter and wake up again
  • contributors: kidney disease, alcohol use, obesity, allergies, smoking, enlarged tonsils, genetic predisposition

treatment: lifestyle changes, pressurized air, tonsil retainers, surgery, and sometimes medications decrease H+ secretion (Diamox) or NT adenosine (Theocron)

187
Q

central sleep apnea

A
  • person’s airway remains open but they stop breathing
  • often coincides with brain tumor, stroke, Parkinson’s, opioid use, respiratory disease
  • treatment: pressurized air, medications that decrease H+ secretion (Diamox) or NT adenosine (Theocron)
188
Q

mixed sleep apnea

A
  • among patients with obstructive sleep apnea, once they begin treatment with pressurized air, they can also start experiencing central sleep apnea
  • treatment: medication, pressurized air, etc
189
Q

insomnia

A
  • caused by stress, hyperthyroidism, pain, night shifts, jet lag, menopause, etc
190
Q

hypersomnolence (CDH)

A
  • characterized by prolonged excessive daytime sleeping (EDS)
  • can be caused by sleep apnea or insomnia
  • specific diagnoses include: idiopathic hypersomnia, narcolepsy, cataplexy
191
Q

idiopathic hypersomnia

A
  • can be related to genetic predisposition
  • can coincide with tumors, head trauma, depression, ADHD, MS, or epilepsy
  • characterized by excessive daytime sleeping and strong urges to nap at unusual times
  • most common among teenagers and young adults
192
Q

narcolepsy

A
  • patient gets the regular amount of sleep in a 24-hour period but their sleep cycles are distributed throughout the day and night
  • the is often excessive daytime sleeping
  • diagnostic feature: patient can go directly from awake to REM sleep
  • causes: genetic predisposition, infections, brain injury
  • affects 1 in 2000 people; only 1 in 8000 people are diagnosed
193
Q

cataplexy

A
  • sudden muscle weakening, collapse, or paralysis while fully conscious
  • episodes are triggered by strong emotions
  • most people with narcolepsy have cataplexy
  • treatment: psychostimulants (modafinil, amphetamines) or anti-depressants
194
Q

somnambulism

A
  • aka sleepwalking
  • patient walks around, eyes wide open, pupils dilated, and sometimes the patient speaks (incoherently)
  • episodes are usually under 20 minutes
  • often coincides with other sleep or neurological disorders
  • no preferred course of treatment
195
Q

night terrors

A
  • extreme panic or fear during deep sleep usually early at night during N3 stage
  • patient wakes up not knowing why they were scared
  • most common in children 2-6%; adults have less than 1% prevalence and it becomes rarer with age
  • typically not treated
  • strong correlation with genetic predisposition
196
Q

restless leg syndrome

A
  • not the same as hypnic jerks
  • patients feel the need, discomfort, and urgency to get up and walk around while resting
  • affects 10% of the population; affects women more than men
197
Q

idiopathic RBD

A
  • occurs in the absence of another neurological disorder
  • neurodegenerative
  • typically diagnosed after the age of 45
  • ofter predictive of other neurological disorders
  • 50% of patients with develop Parkinson’s or dementia
198
Q

parasomnia

A

sleep disorders that involve unusual perceptions or behaviors while the patient is asleep or on the border of sleep

199
Q

restless leg syndrome: late onset

A
  • after age 45
  • due to underlying medical problems (eg, Parkinson’s, anemia, arthritis, diabetes)
  • treatment geared at treating the underlying medical problem
200
Q

restless leg syndrome: early onset

A
  • before age 45
  • strong genetic link; related to basal ganglia dysfunction
  • worsens over time
  • treated with physical therapy, massages, dopamine agonists, and gabapentin
201
Q

REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD)

A
  • unusual REM sleep where the patient is not paralyzed
  • patient “acts out” their dreams while lying down (thrashing, gesturing, etc)
  • RBD caused by neurological irregularities
  • way more common in men (85% males)
202
Q

secondary/symptomatic RBD

A
  • disorder occurs alongside other neurological disorders (eg, narcolepsy, brain injury, MS, etc)
  • typically diagnosed after the age of 45 but can also occur in children and adults
203
Q

sleep hygiene

A
  • limit naps to 30 minutes
  • avoid stimulants in the afternoon and evening
  • get exposure to sunlight
  • don’t work in bed
  • establish a regular bedtime routine
  • keep a comfortable sleep environment (slightly cooler/ under 70 degrees)
  • if you can fall asleep, don’t fight it
204
Q

hypnosis

A
  • can only occur if the person wants to be hypnotized
  • involves getting people to relax and focus on a particular spot or bodily function
  • in that state people become more open to suggestions
  • brain function: alpha brain waves occur indicating an awake but relaxed state
  • used to retrieve memories, refocus attention, pain treatment, etc
205
Q

meditation

A
  • self-regulating attention and awareness
  • guided or focused on something particular or unfocused
  • brain function: increase in alpha waves; experienced meditators also have theta waves
  • can lead to increased activity in the prefrontal cortex, right hippocampus, and right anterior insula of people even when they are not meditating
206
Q

stimulants

A
  • tend to activate neurons
  • increase CNS activity, increase HR and BP, increase processing speed
  • withdrawals lead to tiredness, lethargy, lack of motivation, mental slowness
207
Q

depressants

A
  • tend to deactivate neurons
  • decrease CNS activity, decrease HR and BP, decrease processing speed
208
Q

hallucinogens

A
  • tend to distort perceptions and can cause hallucinations and increased sensations
  • they can increase or decrease mood and energy
209
Q

opiates

A
  • decrease CNS activity, decrease HR and BP, and also inhibit GI motility
  • analgesic; reduce perceptions of pain
  • mimics natural endorphins; binds to mu-opioid receptors
  • prescribed as painkillers and have strong sedation effects
210
Q

caffiene

A
  • aka coffee
  • effects: increases energy and alertness and can increase irritability and activates SNS
  • mechanism: antagonist to adenosine receptors
211
Q

cocaine

A
  • refined form of coca leaf, snorted as a powder or smoked as ionic salt
  • effects: strong versions of a typical stimulant but with an additional sense of euphoria, grandiosity, and invincibility
  • sympathetic effects can cause a fatal overdose via a heart attack
  • mechanism: blocks reuptake of dopamine leading to increased dopamine levels; also blocks reuptake of norepinephrine and epinephrine leading to sympathetic stimulation
212
Q

tobacco/nicotine

A
  • aka. cigarettes
  • the active substance is called nicotine
  • effects: sympathetic stimulant leading to increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, hypertension, increased alertness, focus, decreased appetite
  • unlike other stimulants, it can also increase calmness and relaxation
  • mild, moderately long-lasting effects
  • notoriously hard to quit
  • mechanism: agonist to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors; also triggers glutaminergic neurons activating dopaminergic neurons
213
Q

amphetamines

A
  • weaker ones, such as Adderall, can be prescribed for medical conditions such as ADHD
  • typically has effects similar to cocaine but long-lasting while also increasing body temperature, teeth grinding, and dry mouth
  • abuse can lead to amphetamine psychosis which includes extreme paranoia, delusions/hallucinations, mania
  • mechanism: reverses the direction of dopamine reuptake transported leading to increased dopamine plus the blocage of dopamine reuptake; also reverser norepinephrine transporter leading to sympathetic stimulation
214
Q

MDMA

A
  • aka ecstasy
  • mechanism: reverses dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake transporters but also strongly reverses serotonin transporter

-has weaker amphetamine-type effects while also having stronger feelings of empathy, unity, and affection toward other people

also increases tactile sensation

  • it is neurotoxic and cardiotoxic and can cause depression-like hangovers
215
Q

phonological loop

A

part of the working memory that processes word and number input

216
Q

sensory memory

A

temporary register of all the stimuli you are taking in and only lasts seconds

217
Q

short-term memory

A

aka working memory; you can only hold 5-9 pieces of information at a time in this memory

218
Q

long-term memory

A

memories that are saved in the brain and can be retrieved later on as needed

219
Q

visuospatial sketch pad

A

part of working memory that processes visual and spatial information

220
Q

iconic memory

A

sensory memory related to what we see that only lasts less than .5 seconds

221
Q

echoic memory

A

sensory memory related to what we hear which only lasts around 3 to 4 seconds

222
Q

marijuana

A
  • active ingredients: TCH and CBD
  • mechanism: mimics endocannabinoid neurotransmitters; Cb1 receptor agonist; inhibitor of the inhibitor of dopamine release
  • effects: euphoria, relaxation, enhanced auditory/visual sensation, rapid heart rate, increased appetite, decreased nausea, dry mouth, impaired learning/memory, increased anxiety/paranoia,
  • can increase the risk of schizophrenia and can prevent epileptic seizures in some patients
223
Q

barbituates

A
  • mechanism: enhances GABA response duration; inhibits the inhibitor of dopamine release leading to pleasure and addiction
  • used to treat anxiety and amnesia
  • decreases anxiety, relaxation, impaired coordination, slurred speech, impaired memory
224
Q

benzodiazepine

A
  • mechanism: enhances GABA receptor sensitivity; inhibits the inhibitor of dopamine release leading to pleasure and addiction
  • used to treat anxiety and amnesia
  • decreases anxiety, relaxation, impaired coordination, slurred speech, impaired memory (same as barbituates)
  • most commonly prescribed drugs
225
Q

alcohol

A
  • mechanism: mimics GABA and acts as GABA agonist leading to inhibition; also acts as a glutamate antagonist leading to less excitation; also inhibits GABA-releasing neurons in the nucleus accumbens that typically inhibit dopamine release
  • effects: euphoria, impaired judgments and reaction time, lowered social inhibitions, impaired memory, impaired coordination, slurred speech
  • withdrawals: insomnia, GI upset, tremors, delirium tremens (halluciantions+seizures)
  • can also lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome
226
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

damage to the hippocampus from vitamin B1 (thiamine) depletion resulting in anterograde amnesia

227
Q

central executive

A

coordinates information from both the visuospatial sketchpad and the phonological loop

228
Q

episodic buffer

A

acts as a connector between working memory and long-term memory

229
Q

explicit memory

A

aka declarative long-term memory; facts or events you can clearly express

230
Q

implicit memory

A

aka non-declarative long-term memory; memories related to things you know how to do but can’t explain how you know

231
Q

semantic memory

A

explicit long-term memories related to words and information

232
Q

episodic memory

A

explicit long-term memories related to events that happened in the past

233
Q

procedural memory

A

implicit memories related to knowing how to do something

234
Q

priming memory

A

implicit memories related to how previous experiences influence how you know to do something new

235
Q

role rehearsal

A

saying the same thing over and over again

236
Q

chunking

A

grouping information into meaningful categories

237
Q

mnemonic devices

A

memory aids that help you link what you are learning to what you already know; includes imagery, acronyms, pegword, and methods of loci

238
Q

self-referencing

A

taking new information and connecting it to how it relates to you

239
Q

spacing

A

spreading out what you are studying over time rather than cramming it all at once

240
Q

retrieval cues

A

stimuli that assist in memory retrieval; includes being out in the same context as when you were studying, priming, being in the same state as you were in while studying, etc

241
Q

cued recall

A

producing memories with some help of retrieval cues

242
Q

free recall

A

producing the memories and information you know without any help

243
Q

recognition

A

producing information you know by recognizing it in a list that is given to you

244
Q

primacy effect

A

remembering the first few items on the list better than the rest

245
Q

recency effect

A

remembering the last few items on the list better than the rest

246
Q

seriel position effect

A

the phenomenon that people are able to recall the first and last items on the list better than the items in the middle of the list

247
Q

memory reconstruction

A

memories are modified every time we retrieve it based on our mood, goals, envirnment, etc

248
Q

source monitoring

A

keeping track of where various information came from

249
Q

flashbulb memories

A

highly emotional memories that seem very vivid

250
Q

decaying

A

memories decay the more you dont retrieve and use them

251
Q

dementia

A

excessive damage to brain damage that leads to cognitive decline

252
Q

Alzhimer’s disease

A

in this disease, people’s neurons die off over time leading to the shrinking of their cerebral cortex, the build-up of amyloid plaques, and loss of memories, attention, planning, language, abstract thinking, and control of bodily functions

253
Q

interference

A

when something is blocking our ability to get to the memory we want

254
Q

retroactive interference

A

interference that goes backward; new information blocks out old information that you are trying to recall

255
Q

proactive interference

A

interference that goes forward; old information keeps replacing the new information you are trying to recall

256
Q

neural plasticity

A

the capacity of the nervous system to modify itself, functionally and structurally, in response to experience and injury

257
Q

long-term potentiation

A

a process involving persistent strengthening of synapses that leads to a long-lasting increase in signal transmission between neurons

258
Q

semantic networks

A

information is stored in the brain in terms of connected ideas

259
Q

nativist theory of language acquisition

A

we are born with something in our genes that allows us to learn language; there is a “language acquisition device” (LAD) somewhere in our brains that is responsible for learning a language and there is a “universal grammar” that is shared across differing languages, because this grammar is part of our genetic make-up

260
Q

learning theory of language acquisition

A

children learn a language through repetition and reinforcement

261
Q

interactionist approach of language acquisition

A

children learn language out of a desire to communicate with the world around them and language is dependent upon social interaction; our language ability develops out of a desire to communicate, and language is dependent upon whom we want to communicate with

262
Q

Broca’s area

A

region of the brain where we form speech

263
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

region of the brain where we understand speech

264
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

aka non-fluent aphasia; broken speech due to damage in the Broca’s area of the brain

265
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

people with this aphasia can produce words but they are incoherent and don’t make sense

266
Q

global aphasia

A

damage to both Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area causing both types of aphasia at the same time

267
Q

arcuate fascialius

A

a bundle of fibers connecting the Broca’s area and the Wernicke’s area

268
Q

conduction aphasia

A

results from damage to the arcuate fasciculus leading to the patients not being able to repeat things even though the understand what is being said

269
Q

agraphia

A

inability to write

270
Q

anomia

A

inability to name things

271
Q

split-brain patient

A

a patient whose corpus coliseum has been cut down the middle causing the two sides of the brain to not interact with each other; as language is located in the left side of the brain, patients will not be able to name things from the one side of the visual field until it is moved to the other side, etc

272
Q

universalism theory

A

the theory that thought comes before language; your thought dictates/determines what language we come up with completely

273
Q

Piaget’s theory of language and cognition

A

the theory that thought has some influence on language; children’s cognitive development influences their language development

274
Q

Vygotsky’s theory of language and cognition

A

the theory that language and thought are independent but converge through development; children develop language through social interaction with adults and through those interactions they learn to connect those thoughts and language

275
Q

weak linguistic determinism

A

language influences thought and makes it easier for us to think in certain ways based on how the language is structured

276
Q

strong linguistic determinism

A

aka. Worfian hypothesis; language determines thought completely

277
Q

the three components of emotion

A
  • cognitive: mental assessment of what’s happening
  • physiological: every emotion produces a different physiological response in the body (eg. fear can make you sweat, increase heart rate, etc)
  • behavioral: every emotion causes a different behavior from us
278
Q

six universal emotions

A

happy; sad; fear; disgust; anger; surprise

279
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

the physiological response and the emotion occur at the same time

280
Q

James-Lange theory of emotion

A

the experience of emotion is due to the perception of our physiological response/changes

281
Q

Schacter-Singer theory of emotion

A

after a physiological response, we think about and label to reason for the physiological response and then we feel the emotion

282
Q

Lazarus’ theory of emotion

A

the experience of emotion depends on how the event is appraised and after the appraisal of the situation, we produce a physiological response as well as feel the emotion

283
Q

limbic system and emotion

A
  • hypothalamus = regulates the ANS; fight/flight and rest/digest
  • amygdala = produces emotions of fear, anger, anxiety, and violence; destruction of this region can lead to patients feeling mellow
  • thalamus = relay system of the brain so sensory inputs related to emotions all go through there
  • hippocampus = converts short-term memory to long-term memory
284
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A

a syndrome where both sides of the amygdala is destroyed causing patients to feel very mellow, hyperorality, hypersexuality, and disinhibited behavior

285
Q

left hemisphere and emotions

A

more activated with positive emotions and when kids are sociable

286
Q

right hemisphere and emotions

A

more activated with negative emotions and when kids are more isolative

287
Q

prefrontal cortex and emotions

A

helps manage how you behave on your emotions

288
Q

ANS and emotions

A
  • sympathetic nervous system: fight/flight
  • parasympathetic nervous system: rest/digest
289
Q

stressor

A

environmental threats and challenges

290
Q

stress reaction

A

how we cope with the stressors

291
Q

primary appraisal

A

the appraisal of stress in the moment; irrelevant, benign, and threatening

292
Q

secondary appraisal

A

the appraisal of how we will be able to deal with the stressor; the appraisal of harm, threat, challenge

293
Q

significant life change

A

one of the major stressors that everyone will go through at some point

294
Q

catastrophic events

A

a major stressor where you have unpredictable life events that everyone thinks are stressful

295
Q

daily hassles

A

a major stressor that consists of seemingly minor events of daily life that cause stress

296
Q

ambient stressors

A

a major stressor that consists of global stressors that everyone deals with and are a part of everyday life that you put in the back of your mind (eg. pollution)

297
Q

general adaptation syndrome

A

three phases we go through when dealing with stress:

  1. alarm
  2. resistance
  3. exhaustion
298
Q

physical effects of stress

A
  • increases blood pressure, vascular disease, CAD
  • increase blood sugar
  • inflammation, more susceptibility to illness
  • bad reproductive health
299
Q

behavioral effects of stress

A
  • depression, anhedonia
  • learned helplessness
  • anger
  • anxiety
  • addiction to drugs as a coping mechanism
300
Q

stress management

A
  • having perceived control
  • having good social support
  • having optimism
  • exercising daily
  • meditation
  • religion and spirituality
  • cognitive flexibility
301
Q

top-down processing

A

perceiving things based on your prior experiences and knowledge; experiences influence perception

302
Q

bottom-up processing

A

the stimuli being processed in the part of the brain responsible for that sense, and then deriving meaning from analysis based only on data; stimulus influences perception

MCAT (5 decks)

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