Psychology/Sociology Flashcards

1
Q

A researcher interested in actor-observer bias asks a group of viewer participants to watch a target participant work on a series of puzzles. Which two variables is the researcher most likely to compare in this study?

A. The viewers’ memory for the puzzles and the target’s memory for the puzzles

B. The viewers’ estimate of the difficulty of the puzzles and the target’s estimate of the difficulty of the puzzles

C. The viewers’ likelihood of accurately remembering the target’s performance and the target’s likelihood of accurately remembering his or her own performance

D. The viewers’ likelihood of attributing the target’s performance to intellect and the target’s likelihood of attributing his or her own success to intellect

A

D. The viewers’ likelihood of attributing the target’s performance to intellect and the target’s likelihood of attributing his or her own success to intellect

Actor/Observer Bias:

Actor - explains behavior based off of the situation

Observer - explains the actors behavior by internal stable traits

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2
Q

A public health video designed to promote flu shots shows a physician from a prestigious institution delivering facts about how viruses spread. The video also features data on how viruses can expose the body to serious illnesses. The video uses all of the following variables to manipulate attitudes: Explain which is which

A) the peripheral route to persuasion

B) the central route to persuasion

C) source characteristics

A

A) the peripheral route to persuasion - The prestige of the physician

B) the central route to persuasion - Video

C) source characteristics - the mention of the physicians affiliation with a prestigious institution is a manipulation of source characteristics

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3
Q

A rat receives food for pressing a lever on a variable ratio schedule. Which pattern of responding is most likely to be observed?

A. Relatively high response rate with predictable pauses after reinforcement

B. Relatively high response rate with no predictable pauses

C. Relatively low response rate with a predictable increase in responding right before reinforcement

D. Fluctuating response rate with a predictable increase in responding right after reinforcement

A

B. Relatively high response rate with no predictable pauses

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4
Q

According to the psychodynamic theory, conflict between the superego and the id leads to unconscious conflict. The ego attempts to reduce this conflict through the use of defense mechanisms. Based on this description, the unconscious conflict functions as:

a need.

negative reinforcement.

a drive.

negative punishment.

A

a drive.

A drive is an internal state that the individual acts to reduce

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5
Q

A patient experiences a debilitating depressive episode after the loss of a job. A psychologist suggests that the patient had a genetic predisposition to depression and that unemployment acted as a trigger. The psychologist is using which approach to explain the patient’s depression?

Rogers’s humanistic theory

Beck’s cognitive theory

The opponent process model

The diathesis-stress model

A

The diathesis-stress model

The opponent process model - cone photoreceptors are linked to 3 opposing color pairs: blue/yellow, red/green, and black/white

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6
Q

The dependent variable in a study of polarization is most likely to be each participant’s:

attitude toward a topic.

affinity with the group.

performance on a complex task.

contribution to a group project.

A

attitude toward a topic.

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7
Q

Which experimental procedure is most likely to result in learned helplessness?

A. Giving a participant a very intense electric shock that the participant can escape by pressing a button

B. Placing a participant in a situation where reinforcement is delivered independently of the participant’s responses

C. Giving a participant a moderate electric shock that the participant cannot escape

D. Placing a participant in a situation where a response that previously resulted in positive reinforcement no longer does

A

C. Giving a participant a moderate electric shock that the participant cannot escape

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8
Q

A researcher compares the frequency of rats’ responses when the rats are presented with one food pellet after every 10 responses to when they are presented with one food pellet every 20 responses. The independent variable in this study is:

A. response frequency.

B. quantity of primary reinforcement.

C. different fixed ratio schedules.

D. different fixed interval schedules.

A

C. different fixed ratio schedules.

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9
Q

A rat in a shuttle box is presented with a tone followed by an electric shock. It can jump over the barrier to the other side of the shuttle box where no shock is delivered. This procedure is repeated over a number of trials. The rat will be conditioned through which type of reinforcement?

A. Positive reinforcement

B. Negative reinforcement

C. Positive punishment

D. Negative punishment

A

B. Negative reinforcement

The answer to this question is B because when a response results in escape from an aversive stimulus, it is an example of negative reinforcement.

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10
Q

The sociological concept of medicalization refers to the process in which:

health care costs consume a growing percentage of a nation’s overall economic output.

the medical profession reaches a consensus and establishes norms of professional conduct.

a problem becomes described in medical terminology and treated by medical professionals.

a society’s population increases after improved medical treatments become more common.

A

a problem becomes described in medical terminology and treated by medical professionals.

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11
Q

Which statement, if assumed to be true, is most likely to indicate a health disparity?

The risk of Type 2 diabetes is lower in younger adults than in older adults.

Rates of malaria infection decrease with greater distance from the equator.

Across the life course, men are less likely to get breast cancer than women.

Higher socioeconomic status is associated with a lower incidence of stroke.

A

Higher socioeconomic status is associated with a lower incidence of stroke.

Health disparity is when health outcomes are associated with socioeconomic factors

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12
Q

Role conflict is best illustrated in which of the following scenarios?

A child is teased by peers after playing with toys and games associated with the other gender.

After caring for a sick child at home, an employee falls behind with responsibilities at work.

Parents are unable to select a treatment for their child after doctors disagree on a diagnosis.

After being hospitalized with an illness, a doctor struggles to pay for all of the medical bills.

A

After caring for a sick child at home, an employee falls behind with responsibilities at work.

Role conflict is when someone experiences stress due to role expectations across different social statuses.

A common source of role conflict is associated with being an employee at work and a caregiver at home.

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13
Q

Which statement best distinguishes ethnocentrism from cultural relativism?

Ethnocentrism refers to in-group favoritism, whereas cultural relativism recognizes an out-group bias.

Ethnocentrism assumes universal norms, whereas cultural relativism describes awareness of diversity.

Ethnocentrism emphasizes social interaction, whereas cultural relativism focuses on social institutions.

Ethnocentrism addresses discriminatory actions, whereas cultural relativism targets prejudicial beliefs.

A

Ethnocentrism assumes universal norms, whereas cultural relativism describes awareness of diversity.

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14
Q

Social stigma is most commonly associated with:

an unrecognized prejudice.

a failure to cope with stress.

an attribute that is devalued.

a discriminatory reaction.

A

an attribute that is devalued.

Its derived from symbolic interactionist perspective. It describes how certain individuals/groups face social disapproval

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15
Q

Which concept refers to feelings of social disconnection that result from weak communal bonds and rapidly changing norms?

Anomie

Obedience

Out-group

Role exit

A

Anomie - Rapid social changes

Its associated with functionalism. It describes the alienation that a person feels when social norms/bonds are weak.

Without attachment or purpose in society, people will experience the feelings of worthlessness.

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16
Q

Which concept describes the self-concept as a product of social interaction, emerging out of the way an individual perceives others to view him or her?

The front stage self

The back stage self

The looking-glass self

The self-fulfilling prophecy

A

The looking-glass self

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17
Q

Which hypothesis is LEAST compatible with the life course approach to health?

Interventions that improve childhood health will have effects that last into adulthood.

Occupational status will be correlated with income and cultural capital in adulthood.

Children will imitate parents’ behavior, forming patterns that persist into adulthood.

Exposure to chronic stressors in adolescence will predict disease risk in adulthood.

A

Occupational status will be correlated with income and cultural capital in adulthood.

Life course approach - a research perspective of how early life choices affect outcomes later in life

The answer is this because there’s no clear indication of “over the life course” like the other options provide. This answer is only describing occupation, income, and cultural capital in ADULTHOOD ONLY.

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18
Q

Which potential finding best supports the hypothesis that greater social capital will be associated with better health?

Economic development is associated with increases in life expectancy.

Intergenerational social mobility is associated with higher social status.

Cultural diversity in an organization is associated with fewer employee sick days.

Large social network size is associated with a lower risk of chronic inflammation.

A

Large social network size is associated with a lower risk of chronic inflammation.

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19
Q

Which prediction related to adolescent behavior is most consistent with labeling theory?

Adolescents will frequently conform to the attitudes of their peers.

Adolescents will be stigmatized regardless of their individual behaviors.

Adolescents’ risky behaviors will be due to immature cognitive abilities.

Adolescents’ attitudes will generally be inconsistent with their behaviors.

A

Adolescents will be stigmatized regardless of their individual behaviors.

It suggests that labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of their individual behaviors. It calls attention to the power of stereotypes.

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20
Q

Which sociological theory best explains the existence of cross-cultural differences in how mental health disorders are classified?

Functionalism

Exchange theory

Social constructionism

Conflict theory

A

Social constructionism

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21
Q

A researcher taking the perspective of social epidemiology is most likely to focus on:

impression management during social interactions.

the most common pathologies of social institutions.

medicalization as a feature of modern societies.

the social determinants of health and disease.

A

the social determinants of health and disease.

Social epidemiology emphasizes how social factors (class, race, ethnicity) affect the distribution of health and disease

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22
Q

A study uses the receipt of government assistance to indicate socioeconomic status. Which of the following reflects the main methodological issue that is raised by using this measure?

Validity

Reliability

Generalizability

Reproducibility

A

Validity

This is an indicator if the study is measuring what its supposed to. Government assistance doesnt provide a direct measure of income.

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23
Q

A study is conducted in which researchers observe how physicians deal with role strain when treating patients with terminal illnesses. This study is best described as following which type of research design?

Ethnographic

Comparative

Experimental

Cross-sectional

A

Ethnographic

This involves observing social interactions in real social settings

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24
Q

A survey finds that immigrants report fewer symptoms of depression and anxiety than individuals from the same racial/ethnic group who were born in the United States. Which correlation best describes this finding?

A positive correlation between socioeconomic status and assimilation

A negative correlation between assimilation and health status

A positive correlation between culture shock and socioeconomic status

A negative correlation between health status and culture shock

A

A negative correlation between assimilation and health status

Assimilation was found to result in worse health outcomes.

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25
Q

The socioeconomic gradient in health is best demonstrated by a negative correlation between which variables?

Age at arrival as an immigrant and exposure to chronic stressors

The level of economic development and life expectancy at birth

The percentage of people living in urban areas and the obesity rate

Educational attainment and risk factors for cardiovascular disease

A

Educational attainment and risk factors for cardiovascular disease

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26
Q

A researcher compares the brain sizes of two groups of rats. Group 1 has been raised in impoverished cages with minimal access to socialization and exercise. Group 2 has been raised in enriched cages with regular access to socialization and exercise. This is best described as a study of:

long-term potentiation.

neural plasticity.

hemispheric lateralization.

synaptic reuptake.

A

neural plasticity.

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27
Q

Which experimental scenario is most likely to result in social facilitation?

A group of participants, who initially agree on a social issue, are asked to discuss their views with each other

A group of participants, who initially disagree on a social issue, are asked to discuss their views with each other

A participant is asked to solve a complex puzzle in front of other participants

A participant is asked solve an easy puzzle in front of other participants

A

A participant is asked solve an easy puzzle in front of other participants

Social facilitation occurs when an easy task can be performed in front of other individuals. When they perform a more difficult task, arousal may interfere with performance

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28
Q

The independent variable of a memory study that tests the encoding specificity effect is most likely to be:

the depth of processing.

the amount of time allowed for encoding.

the location of encoding and retrieval.

the time interval between encoding and retrieval.

A

the location of encoding and retrieval.

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29
Q

Based on Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, an 8-year-old child’s cognition is likely to be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

symbolic thinking.

hypothetical reasoning.

egocentrism.

conservation of mass.

A

hypothetical reasoning.

An 8-year old is in the concrete operational stage and cannot engage in hypothetical reasoning (this is measured in the formal operational stage)

All other options can be measured in the concrete operational stage

30
Q

An individual experiences shortness of breath and panic in confined spaces. To overcome this reaction, the individual decides to spend time in a confined space until the shortness of breath and panic response are eliminated. The patient is using which method to eliminate the symptoms?

Extinction of an operantly conditioned response

Extinction of a classically conditioned response

Counter conditioning

Aversive conditioning

A

Extinction of a classically conditioned response

Phobic responses are usually acquired through classical conditioning.

31
Q

A patient diagnosed with depression blames all professional failure on personal incompetence. The therapist tries to change the patient’s thinking by suggesting that the perceived failures may be due to a lack of effort. The therapist is most likely attempting to change the patient’s:

self-serving bias.

belief perseverance.

hindsight bias.

locus of control.

A

locus of control.

The therapist is trying to change the perspective so that the patient can realize the issues are controllable

32
Q

A researcher is interested in assessing the size of a patient’s brain ventricles. Which method(s) is(are) appropriate for this purpose?

I. An EEG
II. A CAT scan
III. A PET scan

I only

II only

I and III only

II and III only

A

II only

33
Q

A patient with Korsakoff syndrome is very guarded toward the therapist and is reluctant to answer the therapist’s questions. At subsequent appointments, the patient indicates not recognizing the therapist but is less guarded and more willing to answer questions. This suggests that the patient:

has no explicit memory of meeting the therapist but does have an implicit memory of the meeting.

has no episodic memory of meeting the therapist but does have a semantic memory of the meeting.

has no short-term memory of meeting the therapist but does have a long-term memory of the meeting.

has no sensory memory of meeting the therapist but does have a procedural memory of the meeting.

A

has no explicit memory of meeting the therapist but does have an implicit memory of the meeting.

The patient does not remember the therapist explicitly, but the change in his behavior indicates that he has an implicit memory of the therapist

34
Q

Which of the following is a binocular depth cue?

Motion parallax

Retinal disparity

Relative height

Relative size

A

Retinal disparity

This requires input from both retinas

35
Q

What is the difference between foot-in-the-door vs door-in-the-face technique?

AND

How could researchers use the foot-in-the-door technique to increase the participants’ likelihood of adopting a diet diary?

A. Encourage the participants to sign a petition in support of diet diaries.

B. Have the participants personally interact with the health buddy who adopted the diet diary.

C. Tell the participants that the health buddy who adopts the diet diary is a trustworthy health expert.

D. Tell the participants that by agreeing to be in the study, they have agreed to cooperate with the researchers.

A

Foot in the door technique: convinces individuals to make a small comitment so that it increases the chances of the individuals to comit to something larger in the future

A. Encourage the participants to sign a petition in support of diet diaries.

Door in the face technique: ask for something large (like $100) and this will usually be denied. Then ask for something smaller ($10) and its almost always given.

The larger request comes first and its followed by something smaller and more reasonable. This technique often relies on the norm of reciprocity –> if someone does soemthing for a person, the person should do something in return

36
Q

Which of the following is an endorphin-agonist?

A. Alcohol

B. Cocaine

C. Marijuana

D. Morphine

A

D. Morphine

Morphine is an opioid - painkiller

Heroin is an opioid drug made from morophine

37
Q

In Study 1, a group of rats were trained to press a lever for the self-administration of heroin.

What type of learning is taking place in Study 1?

A. Operant conditioning

B. Classical conditioning

C. Social learning

D. Observational learning

A

A. Operant conditioning

Positive reinforcement

38
Q

Seeking help is viewed as incompatible with the male identity. One of the reasons Black men have medical mistrust is because seeking help violates their:

A. gender schema.

B. gender script.

C. gender conditioning.

D. gender adaptation.

A

A. gender schema.

The cognitions regarding what constitutes the male identity are an example of schemas.

A script is organized information regarding the order of actions that are appropriate to a familiar situation

39
Q

The tendency of doctors to use a physician-centered communication style more often with Black patients is an example of:

A. prejudice.

B. stereotyping.

C. discrimination.

D. ethnocentrism.

A

C. discrimination. - Behavioral differences

Prejudice - attitudes

Stereotype - cognitions towards social groups (not behaviors)

40
Q

Negative healthcare experiences reduce the frequency of seeking health care.

Based on this, unpleasant healthcare experiences act as:

A. positive reinforcement.

B. negative reinforcement.

C. positive punishment.

D. negative punishment.

A

C. positive punishment.

It involves introducing an unpleasant experience rather than removing a pleasant stimulus.

41
Q

A drug improves Person A’s ability to remember events before her brain injury.

After taking the experimental drug, Person A showed an improvement in:

A. anterograde memory.

B. retrograde memory.

C. semantic memory.

D. short-term memory.

A

B. retrograde memory.

Anterograde memory - ability to form long-term memories after brain injury

42
Q

A team of researchers wanted to test whether the James–Lange theory of emotional arousal could explain subjects’ physical and emotional experiences while they viewed clips from a horror film. Which of the following scenarios is most consistent with the James–Lange theory?

A. The participants felt general excitement and simultaneously experienced physical symptoms of autonomic arousal, such as a racing heart.

B. The participants experienced physical symptoms of autonomic arousal, such as a racing heart, and then they reported that they felt afraid.

C. The participants felt fear, and then began to experience physical symptoms of autonomic arousal, such as a racing heart.

D. The participants showed physical symptoms of autonomic arousal, such as a racing heart, and then they reported that they felt general excitement.

A

B. The participants experienced physical symptoms of autonomic arousal, such as a racing heart, and then they reported that they felt afraid.

43
Q

Anxious about a nagging illness, a patient feels ignored by a doctor who is struggling to catch up with patient examinations on a very busy day. The doctor misinterprets the discomfort and agitation of the patient as hostility. Which sociological paradigm can best explain this scenario?

A. Functionalism

B. Conflict Theory

C. Symbolic Interactionism

D. Social Constructionism

A

C. Symbolic Interactionism

44
Q

Which term refers to earlier information interfering with memory for later information?

A. the recency effect.

B. proactive interference.

C. the primacy effect.

D. retroactive interference.

A

B. proactive interference.

Retroactive interference- refers to later info interfering with memory for early information

45
Q

Researchers conducted an experiment to study Weber’s Law. Going from 10- to 12-pound weights created the just noticeable difference for one participant. For this participant, how many pounds need to be added to a 20-pound weight to create the just noticeable difference?

A. 1 pound

B. 2 pounds

C. 4 pounds

D. 8 pounds

A

C. 4 pounds

Difference from 10 to 12 is 2

2/10 = 1/5

(1/5)*20 = 4

46
Q

Which aspect of equality is considered a requirement in a meritocracy?

A. Equality of opportunity

B. Equality of talent

C. Equality of skill

D. Equality of outcome

A

A. Equality of opportunity

47
Q

Researchers hypothesized that cocaine is pharmacologically active in the primate fetal brain when pregnant primates are administered cocaine at doses typically used by human drug users. Which experimental observation best supports their hypothesis?

Glucose metabolism in the fetal brain increased.

Imaging studies showed that cocaine entered the fetal circulation.

The fetus had an increase in tolerance to pain.

Imaging studies showed increased internalization of dopamine receptors.

A

Glucose metabolism in the fetal brain increased.

Cocaine is a stimulant so it will have similar effects like stress has –> hence glucose metabolism is expected to increase

48
Q

Which statement best explains why continuous reinforcement is best for the beginning of the acquisition phase of operant conditioning?

The schedule unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct.

The schedule is best matched for the motivational state of the subject.

This leads to the greatest accumulation of reinforcements, hence the greatest pleasure.

It gives subjects little time for incorrect responses.

A

The schedule unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct.

first the correct response must be unambiguously made known to the subject, generally through a shaping procedure. Thereafter, if every correct response is reinforced, other (incorrect) responses are infrequent and the behavior gains strength and learning results.

49
Q

Research on cognitive aging has demonstrated that, in general, aging does NOT diminish a person’s:

capacity for acquiring new declarative information.

capacity for controlling his or her memory processes.

ability to cope with Alzheimer’s Disease.

ability to retrieve general information.

A

ability to retrieve general information.

the capacity for retrieving general information (i.e., semantic memory, crystallized intelligence) is unaffected by aging.

50
Q

Participants who reported personal memories about particular songs were retrieving which type of information?

Episodic

Semantic

Implicit

Sensory

A

Episodic

The answer to this question is A because episodic information consists of the declarative information people have of specific experiences.

51
Q

Music is an important part of popular culture. This can be identified as:

a subset of counterculture.

an agent of socialization.

a subset of material culture.

an agent of social reproduction.

A

an agent of socialization.

Besides popular culture, other agents of socialization include schools, family, and religion. Sociologists use the term agents of socialization to refer to parts of society that are important for socialization (the process of learning the norms and values in a society).

52
Q

Participants’ memories shifted from listening to music chosen by their parents to music chosen by themselves and peers. The shift in participants’ musical preferences over time is best explained by changes in their:

social status.

front stage self.

social network.

back stage self.

A

social network.

53
Q

Which term addresses how culture is learned?

culture lag.

cultural assimilation.

culture shock.

cultural transmission.

A

cultural transmission.

54
Q

The stimulus registered by sensory receptors (pattern of light falling on the retina) is what type of stimulus?

incentive stimulus.

sensory stimulus.

distal stimulus.

proximal stimulus.

A

proximal stimulus.

55
Q

The light stimulating photoreceptors in the human eye is what type of stimulus?

incentive stimulus.

sensory stimulus.

distal stimulus.

proximal stimulus.

A

distal stimulus.

This type of stimulus refers to the object that is stimulating the receptors

56
Q

The experience that the items in a panel are arranged in columns is best attributed to which principle of perceptual organization?

Similarity

Proximity

Closure

Continuity

A

Similarity

57
Q

The types of perceptual experiences that are not relevant to a person’s judgment and decision making processes, but can still have a biasing impact on those processes, are best described as:

recall cues.

context effects.

feature detectors.

practice effects.

A

context effects.

58
Q

According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, a person giving which reason for moral behavior is at the highest level?

To gain acceptance

To follow rules

To promote social welfare

To avoid disapproval

A

To promote social welfare

The answer to this question is C because promoting social welfare indicates moral reasoning at the postconventional level, according to Kohlberg’s theory.

59
Q

In operant conditioning studies, the subject’s motivational state is most typically operationally defined by:

observing the subject’s behavior over a long period of time.

using a type of reinforcement that the experimenter knows the subject usually likes.

depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time.

using a novel stimulus that the subject is sure to like.

A

depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time.

60
Q

Remembering past personal events, such as state of residence in childhood (asked of participants in Study 1) and residential history since birth (asked of participants in Study 2).

Which memory process is most likely to affect the validity of participants’ responses to the survey questions described in studies 1 and 2?

Proactive interference

Source amnesia

Decay in episodic memory

Decay in semantic memory

A

Decay in episodic memory

61
Q

The conclusion in Study 1, which suggests a link between early development (prenatal, infancy, or childhood) and physiological or behavioral changes that increase stroke risk decades later.

The researchers’ conclusion in Study 1 draws most directly on which developmental concept?

Insecure attachment

Sensitive period

Assimilation

Modeling

A

Sensitive period

This conclusion in the passage is most directly relevant to the concept of sensitive period (also referred to as a critical period), which identifies a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life.

62
Q

As described in the passage, the preliminary studies suggest that smoking cessation can be successful when individuals are motivated by culturally consistent values that support quitting.

Which psychological theory best explains the role of community values in the preliminary studies of tobacco cessation?

Drive theory

Humanistic theory

Incentive theory

Psychoanalytic theory

A

Incentive theory

The incentive theory of motivation calls attention to how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior.

The other options would be more likely to look for motivational factors within the individual.

63
Q

Which sociological concept is suggested by the passage’s discussion of the knowledge, skills, and education required for practicing medicine?

The social capital of physicians

The hidden curriculum of medicine

The cultural capital of physicians

The ascribed status of medicine

A

The cultural capital of physicians

Cultural capital refers to knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status.

64
Q

A hypothetical scenario in which family members ask a provider to withhold aspects of a cancer diagnosis from a patient. A provider may feel tension after fulfilling a family’s request (to withhold aspects of a diagnosis) that conflicts with professional norms favoring disclosure.

Which psychological process is best represented in the hypothetical example at the end of the passage?

Cognitive dissonance

A self-fulfilling prophecy

Confirmation bias

The fundamental attribution error

A

Cognitive dissonance

The resulting experience of psychological discomfort identifies cognitive dissonance

65
Q

Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which reaction is most likely for a person who acquires a stigmatized illness?

The person will seek out other people with the same stigmatized illness.

The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her.

The person will redirect feelings of stigmatization toward out-group members.

The person will become stigmatized by his or her secondary group members.

A

The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her.

66
Q

Which technique was most likely used to measure increased neural activation of specific brain regions when viewing the images of food?

MRI

fMRI

CT

PET

A

fMRI

fMRI is an imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting associated changes in blood flow.

67
Q

Which concept CANNOT explain the ability of the participants in both studies to visually process the faces they were shown?

Parallel processing

Interposition

Accommodation

Place theory

A

Place theory

The answer to this question is D because place theory posits that one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea’s basilar membrane.

68
Q

A PET scan..

measures increased levels of glucose.

records increases in electrical activity.

reveals areas of increased blood flow.

measures increases in neurotransmitter levels.

A

measures increased levels of glucose.

fMRI = reveals areas of increased blood flow.

69
Q

In which situation is neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic cell most likely to stimulate an action potential in a postsynaptic cell?

In any excitable cell, if neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels at the synapse

In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold

In a postsynaptic neuron that expresses a high density of neurotransmitter receptors

In any excitable cell, if the neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is acetylcholine

A

In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds threshold

70
Q

A person looking at the night sky notices she no longer sees a dim star when her gaze remains fixated on it, but the dim star reappears when she shifts her gaze to one side of the star. What is the most likely cause of the reappearance of the dim star in her vision? Shifting her gaze moved the image of the dim star:

away from the blind spot where no photoreceptors are present.

to a region of the retina where photoreceptors have a higher threshold for light detection.

away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina.

to a region of the eye where photoreceptors contain more than one type of retinal pigment.

A

away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina.

71
Q

A group of students takes the same test of visual perception at the same time on two consecutive days. The students’ scores are very different each time. This suggests that the test is not:

valid.

standardized.

reliable.

generalizable.

A

reliable.

Its the degree to which an assessment produces stable and consistent results

72
Q

The researchers determined that two participants in the Schizophrenia group were taking medication that may have exacerbated their negative symptoms. Which classification of medication were these participants most likely taking?

Atypical antipsychotics

Neuroleptics

Hallucinogens

Stimulants

A

Neuroleptics. They are the first antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia and they are used to treat positive symptoms. However, side effects include cognitive dulling - this can exacerbate negative symptoms