Psych/Soc: AAMC FL4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which experimental procedure would establish that Ps differ from controls only in avoidance learning but perform similarly to controls in other types of operant conditioning?

Comparing the Ps and the controls:

A.on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response

B.on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order

C.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation

D.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

A

A.on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response

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2
Q

This option describes an observational learning paradigm

A.on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response

B.on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order

C.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation

D.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

A

B.on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order

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3
Q

This option describes classical conditioning

A.on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response

B.on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order

C.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation

D.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

A

C.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation

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4
Q

This option describes a procedure that would be appropriate for a memory experiment

A.on a word-learning task in which they receive a monetary reward every time they provide the correct response

B.on a task that requires watching a model perform a series of physical actions and repeating them in the correct order

C.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a light followed by a drop of lemon juice in their mouths which elicits salivation

D.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

A

D.in a procedure in which the participants are presented with a word list and tested on their recall two days later

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5
Q

controls voluntary movements.

A.sympathetic nervous system arousal.

B.somatic nervous system arousal.

C.parietal cortex activation.

D.occipital cortex activation.

A

B.somatic nervous system arousal.

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6
Q

Increased skin conductivity, both when anticipating an aversive event and in the startle response when viewing fear-inducing images, is controlled by the

A.sympathetic nervous system arousal.

B.somatic nervous system arousal.

C.parietal cortex activation.

D.occipital cortex activation.

A

A.sympathetic nervous system arousal.

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7
Q

is involved in somatosensory and spatial processing

A.sympathetic nervous system arousal.

B.somatic nervous system arousal.

C.parietal cortex activation.

D.occipital cortex activation.

A

C.parietal cortex activation.

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8
Q

involuntary physiological responses.

A.sympathetic nervous system arousal.

B.somatic nervous system arousal.

C.parietal cortex activation.

D.occipital cortex activation.

A

A.sympathetic nervous system arousal.

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9
Q

Five of the numbers were associated with reward, such that pressing the button after the presentation of these five numbers resulted in the participant receiving a monetary incentive. The remaining five numbers were associated with electric shock,such that pressing the button after the presentation of these five numbers resulted in the participant receiving an electric shock.

The numbers presented to the participants in the avoidance study function as:

A.reinforcers.

B.punishers.

C.discriminating stimuli.

D.unconditioned stimuli.

A

C.discriminating stimuli.

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10
Q

SCT’s assumption that cognitions can act as motivators for behavior.

Are the assumptions of SCT regarding the role of participants’ beliefs consistent with a traditional behaviorist approach?

A.Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach also emphasizes changes in behavior due to desirable and undesirable outcomes

B.Yes, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that repeated exposure to certain outcomes shapes beliefs regarding these outcomes

C.No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that mental states are involved only in classical conditioning, not operant conditioning

D.No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that actual outcomes determine behavior, not cognitions regarding potential outcomes

A

D.No, because the traditional behaviorist approach holds that actual outcomes determine behavior, not cognitions regarding potential outcomes

Instead, it holds that only actual outcomes of a behavior determine whether that behavior will be repeated

They reject shaping beliefs

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11
Q

Compared to external motivation, extrinsic motivation:

A.is a broader term that includes external motivation.

B.is a narrower term that refers to external reinforcers.

C.excludes social punishers and reinforcers.

D.excludes internal states that direct behavior.

A

A.is a broader term that includes external motivation.

Extrinsic motivation refers to any motivation that results from incentives to perform a behavior that are not inherent to the behavior itself. it includes punishers and reinforcers

External motivation is described as social pressure, which is an example of extrinsic motivation.

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12
Q

Which statement best applies Carl Rogers’s concept of incongruence to suggestion for how healthcare professionals can promote autonomous motivation?

A.By encouraging their patients’ initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap in their need for self-actualization.

B.By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals make it possible for their patients to reduce the gap between their actual behavior and their expected behavior.

C.By encouraging the patients’ initiative, healthcare professionals motivate their patients to reduce the gap between their behaviors and their attitudes.

D.By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals offer their patients ways to reduce the gap between their ideal selves and their actual selves.

A

D.By giving their patients options, healthcare professionals offer their patients ways to reduce the gap between their ideal selves and their actual selves.

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13
Q

Autonomous motivation refers to self-initiating behaviors that are tied to one’s values and goals.

Which statement best explains autonomous motivation?

A.The desire to reach one’s goals creates a drive that individuals are motivated to fulfill.

B.Living a life consistent with one’s values is socially reinforced.

C.Individuals are motivated to perform behaviors that result in appetitive internal states.

D.Individuals are reinforced to perform behaviors that are associated with progress.

A

A.The desire to reach one’s goals creates a drive that individuals are motivated to fulfill.

C and D are END GOALS

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14
Q

A team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company tests a new cancer drug. The researchers have concluded that the drug is effective, but other scientists CANNOT replicate the findings. Which is the most likely explanation for the lack of replicability of the original results?

A.Base rate fallacy

B.Hindsight bias

C.Observer bias

D.Public verifiability

A

C.Observer bias

Any bias on the part of the observers recording the data could have contaminated the original results. In this case, it is possible that proper precautions (for example, ensuring that observers were “blind” with respect to which patients received the drug and which patients received the placebo) were not taken.

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15
Q

refers to the error people make when they ignore the base rates (i.e., prior probabilities) when evaluating the probabilities (or frequencies) of events.

A.Base rate fallacy

B.Hindsight bias

C.Observer bias

D.Public verifiability

A

A.Base rate fallacy

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16
Q

the “I knew it all along” effect refers to the tendency for a person to overestimate how well he or she could have successfully predicted a known outcome

A.Base rate fallacy

B.Hindsight bias

C.Observer bias

D.Public verifiability

A

B.Hindsight bias

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17
Q

The retina functions to:

A.accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens.

B.detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process.

C.provide oxygen and nutrients to the vitreous humor.

D.control the amount of light focused on the photoreceptor cells.

A

B.detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process.

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18
Q

The cornea and iris

A.accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens.

B.detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process.

C.provide oxygen and nutrients to the vitreous humor.

D.control the amount of light focused on the photoreceptor cells.

A

A.accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens.

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19
Q

The lens

A.accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens.

B.detect light rays and convert them into signals for the brain to process.

C.provide oxygen and nutrients to the vitreous humor.

D.control the amount of light focused on the photoreceptor cells.

A

A.accommodate and focus incoming light rays on the lens.

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20
Q

______________ is a gel-like substance that is in the posterior segment of the eye.

A

vitreous humor

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21
Q

The glass escalator concept predicts that a male employee’s progression in a female-dominated industry is most likely to follow which pattern?

A.He will be promoted to supervisory roles more quickly than his female counterparts.

B.He will lack needed experience for promotion because of gender segregation in tasks.

C.He will face more extensive role conflict with supervisors than his female counterparts.

D.He will challenge gender norms in the industry and thus be passed over for promotions.

A

A.He will be promoted to supervisory roles more quickly than his female counterparts.

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22
Q

Participants were given a candle, a box of matches, and thumb tacks and instructed to use the materials to mount the candle on a bulletin board. Only a few participants thought of using the inside of the matchbox as a candle holder and tacking this to the bulletin board. This result is an example of which barrier to problem solving?

A.Confirmation bias

B.Functional fixedness

C.Overconfidence effect

D.Availability heuristic

A

B.Functional fixedness

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23
Q

rerefers to the tendency to search for information that confirms one’s preconceptions.

A.Confirmation bias

B.Functional fixedness

C.Overconfidence effect

D.Availability heuristic

A

A.Confirmation bias

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24
Q

refers to the tendency to overestimate the accuracy of one’s beliefs and judgments.

A.Confirmation bias

B.Functional fixedness

C.Overconfidence effect

D.Availability heuristic

A

C.Overconfidence effect

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25
Q

refers to the tendency to estimate the likelihood of events based on how easily (i.e., how rapidly) examples of those events can be retrieved from memory

A.Confirmation bias

B.Functional fixedness

C.Overconfidence effect

D.Availability heuristic

A

D.Availability heuristic

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26
Q

Based on the findings in the study, what is the most likely prediction when people make attributions for their own behavior?

A.People attribute positive and negative outcomes to dispositional factors.

B.People attribute positive and negative outcomes to situational factors.

C.People attribute positive outcomes to dispositional factors and negative outcomes to situational factors.

D.People attribute positive outcomes to situational factors and negative outcomes to dispositional factors.

A

C.People attribute positive outcomes to dispositional factors and negative outcomes to situational factors.

SELF-SERVING BIAS

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27
Q

proponents of social skills training most likely will suggest that program implementation will succeed if trainers act out of:

A.attraction.

B.aggression.

C.attachment.

D.altruism.

A

D.altruism.

Altruism is defined as doing something for others without the expectation of receiving anything in return.

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28
Q

A researcher applying the sociological perspective of labeling theory to the passage is likely to suggest thatsocial skills training will have the greatest impact on:

A.social stigma applied to some students.

B.social capital represented by the school.

C.cultural capital associated with the school.

D.cultural diversity reflected in the students.

A

A.social stigma applied to some students.

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29
Q

focuses on the value of social networks

A.social stigma

B.social capital

C.cultural capital

D.cultural diversity

A

B.social capital

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30
Q

derived from knowledge, preferences, or skills

A.social stigma

B.social capital

C.cultural capital

D.cultural diversity

A

C.cultural capital

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31
Q

to enhance socialization

A.show students how to reconcile conflicts across social roles.

B.promote the integration of students across diverse cultures.

C.encourage new students to assimilate to the school culture.

D.enhance students’ learning of school norms and peer values.

A

D.enhance students’ learning of school norms and peer values.

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32
Q

option describes multiculturalism

A.show students how to reconcile conflicts across social roles.

B.promote the integration of students across diverse cultures.

C.encourage new students to assimilate to the school culture.

D.enhance students’ learning of school norms and peer values.

A

B.promote the integration of students across diverse cultures.

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33
Q

Early studies have shown that the less attraction individuals feel toward a group to which they belong, the less their opinions are affected by the group

A.A positive correlation

B.A negative correlation

C.An inverse effect

D.A reverse effect

A

A.A positive correlation

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34
Q

Assume that the participants were given the opportunity to discuss their initial ranking of the attributes with members of their group and found that they were in agreement. Which psychological process would then be most likely to affect each participant’s opinion?

A.Reaction formation

B.Social loafing

C.Selective attention

D.Group polarization

A

D.Group polarization

each group member will express a more extreme opinion than they did initially.

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35
Q

is a phenomenon that affects the degree of effort an individual expends when he or she is performing as part of a group.

A.Reaction formation

B.Social loafing

C.Selective attention

D.Group polarization

A

B.Social loafing

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36
Q

A freudian defense mechanism that is converting of unwanted or dangerous thoughts, feelings, or impulses into their opposites. For example, boys tease and make fun of girls they like.

A.Reaction formation

B.Social loafing

C.Selective attention

D.Group polarization

A

A.Reaction formation

37
Q

participants will evaluate themselves based on thoughts about the group.​

A.a reference group

B.a primary group

C.an in-group

D.a status group

A

A.a reference group, so that participants will evaluate themselves against the group.

The group is assumed to be a reference group because participants will evaluate themselves based on thoughts about the group. The ranking of attributes and bogus group consensus are part of the design to make participants evaluate themselves against the group.

38
Q

refer to close, informal, sustained ties, like close friends and family.

A.a reference group

B.a primary group

C.an in-group

D.a status group

A

B.a primary group

39
Q

are defined based on noneconomic characteristics such as prestige.which tend to be defined through social institutions.

A.a reference group

B.a primary group

C.an in-group

D.a status group

A

D.a status group

40
Q

Attraction and commitment to a group is likely to be greatest when group members:

A.promote their social networks.

B.express diverse cultural values.

C.share equivalent cultural capital.

D.present their back-stage selves.

A

C.share equivalent cultural capital.

Group affiliation (attraction and commitment) is likely to be greatest when the members or participants in the group share similar outlooks, knowledge, preferences, skills, and other aspects of cultural capital.

41
Q

When asked whether a person who is afraid of spiders would be diagnosed as having a psychological disorder, a psychologist replies, “It depends on whether or not this fear interferes with the person’s life.” The psychologist appears to rely most heavily on which criterion of abnormality?

A.Distress

B.Maladaptiveness

C.Statistical deviancy

D.Violation of social norms

A

B.Maladaptiveness

The maladaptiveness criterion takes into account whether the behavior negatively impacts the person’s life or poses a threat to others.

42
Q

A criterion of abnormality stating that a behavior is abnormal if it occurs infrequently among the members of a population

A.Distress

B.Maladaptiveness

C.Statistical deviancy

D.Violation of social norms

A

C.Statistical deviancy

43
Q

takes into account whether the behavior demonstrates unusual or prolonged levels of stress.

A.Distress

B.Maladaptiveness

C.Statistical deviancy

D.Violation of social norms

A

A.Distress

44
Q

A person is struggling to achieve generativity, rather than stagnation. In terms of Erikson’s theory, this person is a(n):

A.adolescent.

B.young adult.

C.middle-aged adult.

D.elderly adult.

A

C.middle-aged adult.

45
Q

struggle with identity versus role confusion.

A.adolescent.

B.young adult.

C.middle-aged adult.

D.elderly adult.

A

A.adolescent.

46
Q

struggle with intimacy versus isolation.

A.adolescent.

B.young adult.

C.middle-aged adult.

D.elderly adult.

A

B.young adult.

47
Q

struggles with integrity versus despair.

A.adolescent.

B.young adult.

C.middle-aged adult.

D.elderly adult.

A

D.elderly adult.

48
Q

A dopamine antagonist will most likely lead to:

A.increased hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia.

B.increased delusions in patients with schizophrenia.

C.decreased mobility and decreased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson’s disease.

D.decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson’s disease.

A

D.decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors in patients with Parkinson’s disease.

Patients with Parkinson’s disease already have insufficient dopamine levels. Therefore, a drug that blocks dopamine receptors will further reduce dopamine’s impact, and worsen the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, such as decreased mobility and increased frequency of tremors.

Patients with schizophrenia have high levels of dopamine activity and a dopamine antagonist will lead to decreased levels of dopamine resulting in decreased, not increased, positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, respectively.

49
Q
A
50
Q

In an evaluation study for a diabetes intervention program, the subjects in the sample had a median age of 45 and a mean age of 55. Which statement accounts for the difference between the median age and the mean age?

A.The sample had more subjects under the age of 45 than over the age of 45.

B.The sample had more subjects over the age of 45 than under the age of 45.

C.The sample included subject(s) who were much older than the age of 45.

D.The sample included subject(s) who were much younger than the age of 45.

A

C.The sample included subject(s) who were much older than the age of 45.

51
Q

Specifically, repeated exposure can lead to the observation and reinforcement of aggressive behaviors, the storage of aggressive knowledge structures (such as aggressive expectations or aggressive behavior scripts), and losing responsiveness to aggression.

According to the passage, one of the long-term effects of exposure to violence is providing individuals with aggressive:

A.behavioral disorders.

B.schemas.

C.motivations.

D.drives.

A

B.schemas.

The passage emphasizes the role of repeated exposure to violence in creating violent scripts (which are a subtype of schemas) and knowledge structures.

52
Q

For instance, a situational variable may be a classmate bumping into a child. If this incident primes aggressive thoughts (for example, “He bumped into me on purpose”), this may lead to aggressive affect (for example, frustration) and increased physiological arousal, which can lead to impulsive or aggressive behaviors.

Which theory of emotion is most compatible with the example provided in the passage (paragraph 2)?

A.The James–Lange theory, because it suggests that physiological arousal triggers affective states

B.The Cannon–Bard theory, because it suggests that physiological arousal influences affective states

C.The Schachter–Singer theory, because it focuses on the role of cognitive appraisal in influencing affective states

D.The evolutionary theory, because it focuses on the adaptive functions of affective states in response to threats from the environment

A

C.The Schachter–Singer theory, because it focuses on the role of cognitive appraisal in influencing affective states

53
Q

Gender role attitudes were measured by coding respondents’ level of agreement or disagreement with statements that assert beliefs about gender and family life

Based on the description in the passage, which component of attitudes does the gender role attitude scale measure?

A.Persuasive

B.Behavioral

C.Cognitive

D.Affective

A

C.Cognitive

The cognitive component of an attitude consists of an individual’s beliefs about the attitude object

54
Q

component of an attitude consists of the typical responses made when the individual is in the presence of the attitude object.

A.Persuasive

B.Behavioral

C.Cognitive

D.Affective

A

B.Behavioral

55
Q

component of an attitude consists of the emotional experience evoked by the attitude object.

A.Persuasive

B.Behavioral

C.Cognitive

D.Affective

A

D.Affective

56
Q

Which statement does NOT provide a potential hypothesis for the gender difference in alcohol consumption between young men and young women?

A.Co-morbid psychological disorders will be more likely to increase alcohol consumption for young men than young women.

B.The number of dependents living at home will be higher for young men than young women.

C.Gender identity will have a stronger effect on alcohol consumption for young men than young women.

D.Alcohol consumption will be more likely to function as a coping strategy for young men than young women.

A

B.The number of dependents living at home will be higher for young men than young women.

The correct answer provides a hypothesis about the relationship between gender and the number of dependents living at home. Since it offers no proposed relationship to alcohol consumption, this option does not provide a testable explanation for the gender difference in alcohol consumption.

57
Q

A researcher proposes that higher alcohol consumption in men, compared to women, may be related to higher testosterone levels in men. Which result would cast doubt on this hypothesis?

A.Employment increases alcohol consumption among men but decreases it among women.

B.Traditional gender attitudes are linked to a similar reduction in drinking for men and women.

C.Women consume less alcohol than men regardless of marital status and employment status.

D.Men and women with similar attitudes and adult roles consume the same amount of alcohol.

A

D.Men and women with similar attitudes and adult roles consume the same amount of alcohol.

58
Q

When participants respond to questions about their childhood health history, they are retrieving autobiographical information, which is an important type of ____ memory

A.Episodic

B.Semantic

C.Procedural

D.Implicit

A

A.Episodic

59
Q

memory refers to the processing of general world knowledge,

A.Episodic

B.Semantic

C.Procedural

D.Implicit

A

B.Semantic

60
Q

is tested by observing a participant’s performance on a task that does not involve any type of recall or recognition

A.Episodic

B.Semantic

C.Procedural

D.Implicit

A

D.Implicit

procedural is a type of implicit memory

61
Q

Which isnt part of the Big Five?

A.Conscientiousness

B.Agreeableness

C.Neuroticism

D.Impulsivity

A

D.Impulsivity

OCEAN

62
Q

Which is a symptom of depression?

A.Continuous need for reassurance

B.Unwanted cognitions

C.Delusions of grandeur

D.Feelings of worthlessness

A

D.Feelings of worthlessness

63
Q

Which is a symptom of OCD?

A.Continuous need for reassurance

B.Unwanted cognitions

C.Delusions of grandeur

D.Feelings of worthlessness

A

B.Unwanted cognitions

and repetitive behaviors

64
Q

Which is a symptom of Schizophrenia?

A.Continuous need for reassurance

B.Unwanted cognitions

C.Delusions of grandeur

D.Feelings of worthlessness

A

C.Delusions of grandeur

65
Q

Which is a symptom of Dependent personality disorder?

A.Continuous need for reassurance

B.Unwanted cognitions

C.Delusions of grandeur

D.Feelings of worthlessness

A

A.Continuous need for reassurance

66
Q

Whenever a two-year-old sees a moth, the butterfly-like pattern on her dress shoes, or hair bows that resemble the shape of a butterfly, she proudly exclaims, “Butterfly!” This process is referred to as:

A.the naming explosion.

B.overextension.

C.categorical perception.

D.bootstrapping.

A

B.overextension.

Overextension” is the term for applying a term for one class of objects to other objects that bear only a superficial resemblance (for example, “doggie” for a cow).

67
Q

refers to the initial stage(s) of grammatical (i.e., syntactic) development.

A.the naming explosion.

B.overextension.

C.categorical perception.

D.bootstrapping.

A

D.bootstrapping.

semantic bootsrap - the use of knowledge of a work meaning to infer grammatical categories

syntactic bootstrap - using grammar knowledge to learn the meaning of new words

Morphological bootstrap - knowledge about morphemes to deduce syntax or meaning

Prosody bootstrap - pitch to make inferences about syntax

syntax - the arrangement of words and phrases to create a sentence

68
Q

phenomona of distinct categories when there is a gradual change in a variable along a continuum.

A.the naming explosion.

B.overextension.

C.categorical perception.

D.bootstrapping.

A

C.categorical perception.

69
Q

Which procedure is most effective for teaching a dog to shake hands?

A.Systematic desensitization

B.Elaborative encoding

C.Shaping

D.Spontaneous recovery

A

C.Shaping

70
Q

is a classical conditioning technique in which the intensity of an unconditioned stimulus is gradually increased until it no longer elicits the conditioned response.

A.Systematic desensitization

B.Elaborative encoding

C.Shaping

D.Spontaneous recovery

A

A.Systematic desensitization

71
Q

refers to combining new (to-be-remembered) information with existing memory representations, which enhances the probability of retrieving that new information.

A.Systematic desensitization

B.Elaborative encoding

C.Shaping

D.Spontaneous recovery

A

B.Elaborative encoding

72
Q

Which statement does NOT describe a monocular depth cue?

A.Objects that are higher up in the visual field are perceived as being farther away than the objects that are lower in the visual field.

B.Objects that are occluded by other objects are perceived as being farther away than the objects that occlude them.

C.Objects that have more detailed textures are perceived as being closer than objects that have less detailed textures.

D.Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus.

A

D.Objects that are to the front of the point of focus are perceived as being closer than objects that are behind the point of focus. RETINAL DISPARITY - FOCUS

A is retinal height - monocular

B is occlusion - monocular

c is texture gradient - monocular

73
Q

Underuse of available healthcare services for the disorders in the passage is most likely due to:

A.anomie.

B.globalization.

C.culture lag.

D.social stigma.

A

D.social stigma. depression, dementia, and alcohol abuse—each have been particularly noteworthy for social stigma. Healthcare utilization and health-seeking behaviors are likely to be affected whenever a disease or disorder is stigmatized.

Anomie refers to a feeling of detachment from society due to a lack of stable social norms. Compared to stigma, the concept is not as likely to explain underuse of health care.

74
Q

From the depression section, studies suggest that structural factors, such as poverty or racial/ethnic minority status, are important determinants of depression.

The studies in the passage that suggest the determinants of depression are most likely to take an approach consistent with:

A.the life course perspective.

B.social epidemiology.

C.the biomedical model.

D.microsociology.

A

B.social epidemiology.

75
Q

The concept of medicalization is most directly relevant to which passage statement?

A.Research conducted with populations in LMICs is generally less extensive than research with populations of HICs.

B.Although commonly prescribed in HICs, antidepressant medications may not be supported by sufficient evidence to justify the cost in LMICs.

C.The prevalence of dementia is higher in HICs than in LMICs, which is likely because of underreporting in LMICs.

D.When interventions from HICs are applied to LMICs, emphasis should be placed on framing excessive alcohol use as a treatable disorder.

A

D.When interventions from HICs are applied to LMICs, emphasis should be placed on framing excessive alcohol use as a treatable disorder.

the process in which a social problem comes to be defined as a disease or disorder. The focus on alcohol use as a treatable disorder raises the concept of medicalization more directly than the other options.

76
Q

The distinction between binge drinking and alcohol dependence is best described as attributing preventable injuries to which effect of alcohol use?

A.Tolerance

B.Disinhibition

C.Negative reinforcement

D.Positive reinforcement

A

B.Disinhibition

Disinhibition is associated with binge drinking and often leads to risk taking, which can lead to preventable injuries.

77
Q

support for family caregivers of dementia patients is also essential to help caregivers balance the demands of caregiving with their other social responsibilities.

The passage suggests that family caregivers of patients with dementia are likely to experience:

A.role strain.

B.relative deprivation.

C.role conflict.

D.relative poverty.

A

C.role conflict.

Role strain involves tensions in the demands from a single social role

78
Q

Which statement best distinguishes self-efficacy from collective efficacy?

A.Self-efficacy increases the risk of group polarization, whereas collective efficacy increases the risk of groupthink.

B.Self-efficacy is limited by the availability heuristic, whereas collective efficacy is limited by the bystander effect.

C.Self-efficacy predicts an individual’s coping ability, whereas collective efficacy predicts a group’s prosocial behavior.

D.Self-efficacy prevents deindividuation in a group, whereas collective efficacy prevents peer pressure among individuals.

A

C.Self-efficacy predicts an individual’s coping ability, whereas collective efficacy predicts a group’s prosocial behavior.

79
Q

A researcher proposes an alternative to the hypothesis in the passage that mammography rates are partly due to social capital. An alternative hypothesis that draws on the concept of institutional discrimination is most likely to make which prediction?

A.Patients whose healthcare provider is from the same racial/ethnic group will have above average rates of mammography.

B.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare providers who interact with patients differently according to racial/ethnic group.

C.Metropolitan areas that are highly segregated across different racial/ethnic groups will have below average rates of mammography.

D.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

A

D.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

80
Q

This option suggests racial concordance in healthcare interactions.

A.Patients whose healthcare provider is from the same racial/ethnic group will have above average rates of mammography.

B.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare providers who interact with patients differently according to racial/ethnic group.

C.Metropolitan areas that are highly segregated across different racial/ethnic groups will have below average rates of mammography.

D.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

A

A.Patients whose healthcare provider is from the same racial/ethnic group will have above average rates of mammography.

81
Q

This option suggests individual discrimination during interactions.

A.Patients whose healthcare provider is from the same racial/ethnic group will have above average rates of mammography.

B.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare providers who interact with patients differently according to racial/ethnic group.

C.Metropolitan areas that are highly segregated across different racial/ethnic groups will have below average rates of mammography.

D.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

A

B.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare providers who interact with patients differently according to racial/ethnic group.

82
Q

This option is more directly related to residential segregation by race/ethnicity

A.Patients whose healthcare provider is from the same racial/ethnic group will have above average rates of mammography.

B.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare providers who interact with patients differently according to racial/ethnic group.

C.Metropolitan areas that are highly segregated across different racial/ethnic groups will have below average rates of mammography.

D.Mammography rates will be affected by healthcare policies that have a disproportionate impact on racial/ethnic minority groups.

A

C.Metropolitan areas that are highly segregated across different racial/ethnic groups will have below average rates of mammography.

83
Q

A researcher applying the concept of assimilation to immigrant health would propose which hypothesis?

An immigrant group’s life expectancy will:

A.surpass the majority group’s life expectancy over time.

B.approximate the majority group’s life expectancy over time.

C.fall behind the majority group’s life expectancy over time.

D.maintain the same disparity with the majority group’s life expectancy over time.

A

B.approximate the majority group’s life expectancy over time.

The concept of assimilation proposes that an immigrant group will eventually adopt the customs (norms, values, etc.) of the majority group in a society. Because of taking on such norms over time, the immigrant group’s health outcomes (including life expectancy) would be likely to approximate the majority group’s health outcomes (including life expectancy).

84
Q

According to the paradigm of symbolic interactionism, individuals develop a sense of identity primarily through:

A.social relationships.

B.reflective contemplation.

C.cultural assimilation.

D.group therapy.

A

A.social relationships.

85
Q

Auditory hair cells are what type of receptors?

A.Mechanoreceptors

B.Proprioceptors

C.Chemoreceptors

D.Osmoreceptors

A

A.Mechanoreceptors

86
Q

are a type of sensor that helps an individual to determine the location of a body part and/or its position. These receptors are found within the vestibular system, muscles, and/or tendons.

A.Mechanoreceptors

B.Proprioceptors

C.Chemoreceptors

D.Osmoreceptors

A

B.Proprioceptors

87
Q

are specialized receptors that transduce chemical signals and generate an output.They are found in the carotid bodies and the aortic arch.

A.Mechanoreceptors

B.Proprioceptors

C.Chemoreceptors

D.Osmoreceptors

A

C.Chemoreceptors

88
Q

are usually located in the hypothalamus and arent in the auditory system. they usually detect the change in osmotic pressures​

A.Mechanoreceptors

B.Proprioceptors

C.Chemoreceptors

D.Osmoreceptors

A

D.Osmoreceptors