Psychology Exam 2: Study Deck Flashcards

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1
Q

How do nature and nurture differ, and an example of each?

A

Nature refers to the genes we were born with that can impact how our personality is formed and influence the way we develop from childhood through adulthood; Nurture refers to the environmental factors that impact who we are.

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2
Q

What does variation (phenotypic) mean in natural selection?

A

The physical appearance of organism.

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3
Q

What is the human genome?

A

Complete instructions; all genetic material in chromosomes of organism.

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4
Q

What do studies of twins and fraternal reared apart and together show?

A

Identical twins who both reared together and apart are much more similar than fraternal twins reared together.

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5
Q

What does the graph “verbal ability over time’ show about the child-parent correlation in verbal ability scores?

A

The child is more similar to their biological mother either in the same household or with adoptive parents.

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6
Q

What do studies of twins show about identical twins than fraternal twins?

A

A human experiment studied identical twins and found that they were similar in personality and abilities.

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7
Q

What does differential reproduction mean in natural selection?

A

Individuals with favorable characteristics pass traits to the next generation.

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8
Q

What are the three ingredients of natural selection, and an example of it?

A

Variation, Differential Reproduction, and Heredity

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9
Q

What does heredity mean in terms of natural selection?

A

The genetic transfer of characteristics from parents to offspring.

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10
Q

What are the components of chromosomes?

A

Chromosomes: Threadlike structures made of DNA molecules that contain genes.

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid): A spiraling, complex molecule, containing the genes that code instructions for the synthesis of proteins.

Genes are segments of DNA capable of synthesizing proteins.

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11
Q

What is the correlation between the heritability of disorders and twin study heritability?

A

Since twins share the same genes, and if one is more prone to developing a psychological disorder, the other is as well.

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12
Q

Fraternal twins result in
A. A single egg is fertilized by a single sperm and then splits.
B. A single egg is fertilized by two sperm and then splits.
C. Two eggs are fertilized by two sperm.
D. Two eggs are fertilized by a single sperm.

A

C. Two eggs are fertilized by two sperm.

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13
Q

Identical twins result in
A. A single egg is fertilized by a single sperm and then splits into two
B. Two eggs are fertilized by two sperm
C. Two eggs are fertilized by a single sperm
D. A single egg is fertilized by two sperm and then splits

A

A. A single egg is fertilized by a single sperm and then splits into two

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14
Q

How does the interaction of genes and environment work, and what is an example?

A

Genetic interaction with your environment can affect behavior.

Example: Temperament [mood] and Parenting.

One can have an agitated temperament and that could influence your parenting style, which can then be part of the environment that influences the behavior of your children.

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15
Q

What does self-regulation mean in terms of how the interaction of genes and the environment work?

A

Rather than acting as blueprints that lead to the same result, they result in the environmental context.

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16
Q

What does epigenetics mean in terms of how the interaction of genes and the environment work?

A

The study of how environments can trigger or block genetic expression.

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17
Q

Why might natural selection have resulted in greater male promiscuity?

A

Men who had the trait of promiscuity were more likely to have their genes continue and even spread, in the next generation.

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18
Q

What does the sexual double standard (SDS) imply about male and female sexual behaviors?

A

Male and female sexual behaviors should be judged by different standards, such as the belief that casual sex is acceptable for men, but not for women.

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19
Q

What does a double standard mean?

A

A rule or principle which is unfairly applied in different ways to different people or groups.

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20
Q

In terms of culture and the self, what do individualist cultures value?

A

Giving priority to one’s goals over group goals and defining one identity in terms of personal attributes rather than group identifications.

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21
Q

In terms of culture and the self, what do collectivist cultures value?

A

Giving priority to the goals of one’s groups (often one’s extended family or work group) and defining one’s identity in terms of group identifications.

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22
Q

From the very first weeks of life, infants differ in their characteristic emotional reactions, with some infants being intense and anxious, while others are easygoing and relaxed. These differences are usually explained as differences in ______________.

A

Tempermant

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23
Q

What does intersex mean?

A

A condition present at birth due to unusual combination of male and female chromosomes, hormones, and anatomy; possessing biological sexual characteristics of both sexes.

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24
Q

What two sex chromosomes determine a female vs a male individual?

A

X + X = Female
X + Y + Male

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25
Q

Gender roles refers to our

A. Personal sense of being male or female
B. Culture’s expectations about the “right” way for males and females to behave
C. Assigned birth sex— our chromosomes and anatomy
D. Unisex characteristics

A

B. Culture’s expectations about the “right” way for males and females to behave

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26
Q

Prenatal sexual development begins about ________ weeks after conception. Adolescence is marked by the onset of _____________.

A

Seven; Puberty

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27
Q

What is the selection effect, and how might it affect a teen’s decision to join sports teams at school?

A

Adolescents tend to select similar others and to sort themselves into like-minded groups. For an athletic teen, this could lead to finding other athletic teens and joining` school teams together.

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28
Q

What are brain cells sculpted by in infants and childhood?

A

Heredity and experience

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29
Q

What two important processes occur in the brain at birth?

A

1.) Neuronal Growth Spurt: Sudden growth of neurons.
2.) Synaptic Pruning: Brain eliminates extra synapses.

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30
Q

What does heredity mean?

A

The genetic transfer of characteristics from parents to offspring.

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31
Q

When the mother’s egg and the father’s sperm unite, each contributes

A. One chromosome pair
B. 23 chromosome
C. 23 chromosome pairs
D. 25,000 chromosome

A

C. 23 chromosome pairs

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32
Q

An individual walks out of a building and holds the door for the person behind them. We can say they knew how to act, because of something that guides them on how to act in their environment. What is that something called?

A

Social Script

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33
Q

What does gender typing mean?

A

Acquisition of masculine or feminine role.

Example: Women are expected to be polite, accommodating, and nurturing. Men are expected to be strong, aggressive and bold.

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34
Q

What is it called when an individual displays both traditional masculine and feminine psychological characteristics?

A. Gender Typing
B. Gender Identity
C. Social Learning Theory
D. Androgyny

A

D. Androgyny

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35
Q

We can call one who describes their gender identity as different from that associated with their birth-designated sex, transgender.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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36
Q

For boys, puberty’s landmark is the first ejaculation, which often occurs first during sleep. This event is called.

A. Spermarche
B. Menarche

A

A. Spermarche

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37
Q

For girls, puberty’s landmark is the first menstrual period. This event is called the menarche.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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38
Q

Testosterone

A

Male sex hormone.

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39
Q

Primary sex characteristics relate to ____________; secondary sex characteristics refer to _____________.
A. Soermarche; Menarche
B. Breasts and facial hair; ovaries and testes
C. Emotional maturity; hormone surges
D. Reproductive organs; nonreproductive traits

A

D. Reproductive organs; nonreproductive traits

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40
Q

On average, girls begin puberty at about the age of _________ boys at about the age of ___________.

A

11/12

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41
Q

_____________ (Men/Women) are more likely to commit relational aggression, and ______________ (men/women) are more likely to commit physical aggression.

A

Women/Men

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42
Q

What is the X chromosome?

A

The sex chromosome is found in both males and females.

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43
Q

What is the Y chromosome?

A

The sex chromosome is found only in males.

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44
Q

Our sense of being male, female, or some combination of the two is known as our ________________ _____________.

A

Gender Identity

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45
Q

Behavior geneticists are most interested in exploring ________________(commonalities/differences) in our behaviors. Evolutionary psychologist are most interested in exploring _____________(commonalities/differences).

A

Commonalities/Differences

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46
Q

Evolutionary Psychologist are most likely to focus on

A. How individuals differ from one another
B. The social consequences of learned behaviors
C. The natural selection of traits that helped out ancestors survive, and reproduce
D. Social Scripts

A

C. The natural selection of traits that helped out ancestors survive, and reproduce.

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47
Q

What is a mutation?

A

Are changes in the DNA sequence of a cell’s genome.
Mutations can result from errors in DNA replication during cell division, exposure to mutagens, or a viral infection.

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48
Q

What is natural selection?

A

The principle that inherited traits that better enable an organism to survive and reproduce in a particular environment will (in competition with other trait variations) most likely be passed on to succeeding generations.

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49
Q

What is evolutionary psyschology?

A

The study of the evolution of behavior and the mind, using principles of natural selection.

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50
Q

Adoption studies seek to understand genetic influences on personality. They do this mainly be

A. Comparing adopted children with nonadopted children.
B. Evaluating whether adopted children’s personalities more closely resemble those of their adoptive parents or their biological parents.
C. Studying the effect of prior neglect on adopted children.
D. Studying the effect of children’s age at adoption.

A

B. Evaluating whether adopted children’s personalities more closely resemble those of their adoptive parents or their biological parents.

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51
Q

The threadlike structures made largely of DNA molecules are called _____________.

A

Chromosomes

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52
Q

A small segment of DNA that codes for particular proteins is referred to as a _____________.

A

Gene

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53
Q

__________ is the proportion of variation among individuals in groups that we can attribute to genes.

A

Heredity

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54
Q

Epigenetics is the study of the molecular mechanisms by which _________ trigger or block genetic expression.

A

Environmental factors

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55
Q

What does environment mean?

A

Every nongenetic influence, from prenatal nutrition to the people and things around us.

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56
Q

What does behavior genetics mean?

A

The study of genetic and environmental influences on behaviors

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57
Q

What does molecular genetics mean?

A

The subfield of biology studies the molecular structure and functions of genes.

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58
Q

What does molecular behavior genetics mean?

A

The study of how the structure and functions of genes interact with our environment to influence behavior.

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59
Q

What does sex mean?

A

The biologically influenced characteristics by which people define male and female.

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60
Q

What does gender mean?

A

The socially influenced characteristics by which people define boy, girl, man, and woman.

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61
Q

What does the concept of role mean?

A

A set of expectations (norms) about a social position, defining how those in the position ought to behave.

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62
Q

What does the concept of role mean?

A

A set of expectations (norms) about a social position, defining how those in the position ought to behave.

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63
Q

What does social script mean?

A

A culturally modeled guide for how to act in various situations.

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64
Q

A person born with sexual anatomy that differs from typical male or female anatomy may be considered _____________.

A

Transgender

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65
Q

A fertilized egg will develop into a boy if it receives a/n __________ chromosome from its father.

A

Y

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66
Q

Females and males are very similar to each other. But one way they differ is that.

A. Females are more physically aggressive than males.
B. Males are more democratic than females in their leadership roles.
C. As children, females tend to play in small groups, while males tend to play in large groups.
D. Females are more likely to commit suicide.

A

C. As children, females tend to play in small groups, while males tend to play in large groups.

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67
Q

In psychology ______________ is the biologically influenced characteristics by which people define male and female. The socially influenced characteristics by which people define boy, girl, man, and woman is ________________.

A

Sex; Gender

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68
Q

Which American psychologist focused on cognitive development?

A

Jean Piaget

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69
Q

Which American psychologist focused on moral development?

A

Lawrence Kohlberg

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70
Q

Which American psychologist focused on psychosocial development?

A

Erik Erikson

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71
Q

What influences the development of brain cells?

A

Heredity and Experience

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72
Q

What happens at 3-6 months for infants?

A

Rapid Frontal Lobe Growth.

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73
Q

When do motor skills develop in infancy and childhood?

A

Nervous system and Muscle Mature.

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74
Q

What is the disorder that may affect the memory of infants?

A

Infantile Amnesia.

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75
Q

Assimilation vs Accommodation

A

Assimilation: The changing of new information to fit our pre-existing schemas.

Accommodation: The changing of what we already know, or our current schema, so the information fits better.

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76
Q

Schemas

A

A mental structure that allows organisms to perceive and understand the world around them.

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77
Q

Piaget Stages: Some People Can Fly

A

Sensorimotor; Pre-operational; Concrete Operational; Formal Operational

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78
Q

Piaget Stages (Ages): Some People Can Fly

A

[Birth to nearly 2 years] [2 to 6 or to 7 years] [7 to 11 years]; [12 through adulthood].

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79
Q

Sensorimotor: Key Milestone

A

Object Permanence; Stranger Anxiety

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80
Q

Pre-operational: Key Milestone

A

Pretend play; Egocentrism (stops at 7)

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81
Q

Concrete Operational: Key Milestone

A

Conservation; Mathematical Transformations

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82
Q

Formal Operational: Key Milestone

A

Abstract Knowledge; Potential for mature moral reasoning.

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83
Q

Which American psychologist said that children’s minds grow through interaction with the social environment?

A

Vygotsky.

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84
Q

What is infant attachment, and what does it provide for a child?

A

Primary caregivers who are responsive to an infant’s needs allow the child to develop a sense of security.

Provides:
A secure base for the child to then explore the world.

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85
Q

At what age does stranger anxiety occur?

A

About 8 months.

86
Q

What does Harlow suggest that helps children survive when they come into the world?

A

Children who form attachments with others are more likely to survive.

87
Q

What does imprinting mean, and when does it occur?

A

A process by which certain animals form strong attachments.

Occur:
Early life.

88
Q

What does it mean if a parent takes the approach of an authoritarian parenting style?

A

Impose rules and expect obedience.

89
Q

What does it mean if a parent takes the approach of a permissive parenting style?

A

Few demands set few limits, and use little punishment.

90
Q

What does it mean if a parent takes the approach of a Negligent parenting style

A

Neither demanding nor responsive towards their children.

91
Q

What does it mean if a parent takes the approach of an authoritative parenting style?

A

Exert control by setting rules but especially with older children, encourage open discussion, and allow exceptions.

92
Q

Until what point in adolescence do brain cells increase their connections?

A

Until Puberty.

93
Q

What does the process selective pruning mean in adolescence?

A

Removal of unused neurons and connections.

94
Q

What is the result of myelin sheath growth in adolescence?

A

Enables better communication w/ other brain regions; judgment, impulse control, and long-term planning.

95
Q

What transition is correlated with adolescence?

A

Puberty to social independence.

96
Q

What is the difference between early-maturing boys and girls?

A

Boys: More likely to be delinquent and engage in early sexual activity.
Girls: More likely to be teased or sexually harassed.

97
Q

Match the American psychologist to which theory they are best known for.

A.) Piaget
B.) Kohlberg

1.) Developing moral reasoning
2.) Developing reasoning power

A

A.) = 2 & B.) = 1

98
Q

Match each Kohlberg’s level of moral thinking to its proper focus

A.) Pre-conventional Morality
B.) Conventional Morality
C.) Post-Conventional Morality

1.) Follow rules gain social approval or maintain social order.

2.) Actions reflect belief in basic rights and self-defined ethical principles.

3.) Self-Interest, obeying rules, avoiding punishment, gaining reward.

A

a.) = 3.)
b.) = 1.)
c.) = 2.)

99
Q

Kohlberg’s Level of moral thinking: Ages

A

pre-conventional/before age 9; conventional/early adolescence; post-conventional/adolescence and beyond.

100
Q

What is the key ingredient for the formation of a healthy identity?

A

Ability to build close relationships.

101
Q

Match the psychosocial development stage below with the issue that Erikson believed we wrestle with at that stage

1.) Infancy
2.) Toddlerhood
3.) Preschool
4.) Elementary School
5.) Adolescence
6.) Young Adulthood
7.) Middle Adulthood
8.) Late Adulthood

A. Generativity vs. stagnation
B. Integrity vs. despair
C. Initiative vs. guilt
D. Intimacy vs. isolation
E. Identity vs. role confusion
F. Competence vs. inferiority
G. Trust vs. Mistrust
H. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt

A

1.g
2.h
3.c
4.f
5.e
6.d
7.a
8.b

102
Q

How do parents and peers influence adolescents?

A

Adolescence is typically a time of diminishing parental influence and growing peer influence.

103
Q

What is emerging adulthood?

A

Period of time from 18 to the mid-twenties.

104
Q

What do you think? Which age range would you put in each blank?

A.) Early adulthood __________
B.) Middle Adulthood __________
C.) Late Adulthood ____________

A

A.) = 20s to early 40s
B.) = 40s to 60s
C.) = 60s and up

105
Q

What physical changes occur during early adulthood?

A

Early Adulthood: Muscular strength, reaction time, sensory keenness, and cardiac output

106
Q

What physical changes occur during middle adulthood?

A

Middle Adulthood: Change in fertility:

(Men): decline in sperm count, testosterone level, and speed of erection and ejaculation

(Women): Experience menopause, as menstrual cycles end, usually within a few years of age 50

107
Q

What is the average life expectancy worldwide?

A

71 years of age.

108
Q

What leads to aging in late adulthood?

A

The wearing down of the tips (telomere) of chromosomes.

109
Q

What physical changes occur during late adulthood?

A

Visual sharpness, distance perception, and stamina diminish

Immune system weakens: more susceptibility to life-threatening disease increases

Neural processing lag occurs; brain regions related to memory begin to atrophy; speech slows.

110
Q

What slows aging and stimulates brain cell development and neural connections?

A

Exercise

111
Q

What is the key milestone in early adulthood?

A

Peak time for learning and memory.

112
Q

What is the key milestone in middle adulthood?

A

Greater decline in ability to recall rather than recognize.

113
Q

What is the key milestone in late adulthood?

A

Better retention of important information than meaningless information; longer word production time.

114
Q

What occurs at the end stage of life?

A

Terminal decline; typically occurs during last four years of life.

115
Q

What do scans of the brain show in older adults?

A

Brain-wave reactions to negative images diminish with age

Amygdala: A neural processing center for emotions, responds less actively to negative events (but not to positive events).

116
Q

Perceptual Set

A

A tendency to view things only in a certain way.

117
Q

Bottom-Up vs. Top-Down Processing

A

Bottom-Up: Build up from raw sensory input to concept.
Top-Down: The use of background knowledge to influence perception.

118
Q

Identify Bottom-Up vs. Top-Down Processing in the following example:

When you walk to a friend’s bathroom in the middle of the night. You have to turn the light on to see where you are going, instead of using your memory of where things are in the bathroom.

A

Bottom-Up Processing: Turning on the lights to see where you are going.

Top-Down Processing: The use of your memory to figure out where things are in your friend’s bathroom.

119
Q

Sensation refers to _______ - ________ processing; Perception refers to _________ - ____________ processing

A

Bottom-Up Processing: Sensory receptors and the nervous system receive and represent stimuli; Top-Down Processing: The brain creates meaning by organizing and interpreting what your senses detect.

120
Q

What is the process of converting one form of energy into another that our brain can use, called?

A

Transduction.

121
Q

How do absolute thresholds and difference thresholds differ?

A

Absolute Threshold: Minimum stimulation necessary to detect a particular light, sound, pressure, taste, or odor 50 percent of the time;

122
Q

What does signal detection theory mean?

A

A theory predicting how and when we detect the presence of a faint stimulus (signal) amid background stimulation (noise). Assumes there is no single absolute threshold and that detecting depends partly on a person’s experience, expectations, motivation, and alertness.

123
Q

What does subliminal mean?

A

A type of stimulation that occurs when, without your awareness, your sensory system processes a sound that is below your absolute threshold.

124
Q

What does the difference threshold mean, and provide an example?

A

The minimum difference needed to distinguish between two stimuli.

Example 1;

The smallest difference in sound for us to perceive a change in the radio’s volume.

Example 2;

The sound of a bike and the sound of a runner coming up behind you.

125
Q

What does Weber’s law mean, and provide an example?

A

The principle is that to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount).

Example:

Two lights must differ in intensity by 8 percent; two objects must differ in weight by 2 percent, two tones must differ in frequency by only 0.3.

126
Q

What does sensory adaptation mean?

A

When constantly exposed to an unchanging stimulus we become less aware of it because our nerve cells fire less frequently.

127
Q

Why is it that after wearing shoes for a while, you cease to notice them (until questions like this draw your attention back to them)?

A

The shoes provide constant stimulation. Thanks to sensory adaptation, we tend to focus primarily on changing stimuli.

128
Q

What determines our perceptual set?

A

Our pre-existing concepts of the world around us influence how we apply top-down processing to interpret various sensations.

Example:

Without the obvious cues of pink or blue, people will struggle over whether to call the baby he or her.

129
Q

Does the perceptual set involve bottom-up or top-down processing? Why?

A

Top-Down Processing; because it draws on your experiences, assumptions, and expectations when interpreting stimuli.

130
Q

Sensation is to __________ as perception is to ____________.
A.) Absolute threshold; difference threshold
B.) Bottom-Up Processing; Top-Down Processing.
C.) Interpretation; Detection
D.) Grouping; Priming

A

B. Bottom-Up Processing; Top-Down Processing.

131
Q

The process by which we organize and interpret sensory information is called ___________.

A
132
Q

Subliminal Stimuli are
A.) Too weak to be processed by the brain
B.) Consciously perceived more than 50 percent of the time
C.) Strong enough to affect our behavior at least 75 percent of the time
D.) Below our absolute threshold for conscious awareness.

A

D.) Below our absolute threshold for conscious awareness.

133
Q

Another term for difference threshold is the __________ ___________ ___________.

A
134
Q

Weber’s law states that for a difference to be perceived, two stimuli must differ by
A.) A fixed or constant energy amount.
B.) A constant minimum percentage.
C.) A constantly changing amount.
D.) More than 7 percent.

A

B.) A constant minimum percentage.

135
Q

Sensory adaption helps us focus on
A.) Visual Stimuli
B.) Auditory Stimuli
C.) Constant features of the environment
D. Important changes in the environment

A

C.) Constant features of the environment

136
Q

Our perceptual set influences what we perceive. This mental tendency reflects our
A.) Experiences, assumptions, and expectations.
B.) Sensory Adapation.
C.) Priming Ability.
D.) Difference thresholds.

A

A.) Experiences, assumptions, and expectations.

137
Q

What happens after the light first enters the eye?

A

Enters: Cornea
Passes (Through): Pupil

138
Q

A muscle that widens and restricts to control the amount of light entering the pupil?

A

Iris

139
Q

Behind the pupil, what is the name of the structure that changes the curvature of the light and focuses the ray of the light into an image on the retina?

A

lens

140
Q

Once an image is focused onto the retina, what does the image activate?

A

Rods and Cones

141
Q

There are [blank #] number of rods on [blank #] bipolar cells; there are [blank #] of cones on [blank #] bipolar cells.

A

Three and One; One and One

142
Q

Rods and cones set up chemical reactions and form a [blank] with [blank], where light energy turns into [blank].

A

Synapse; Bipolar Cells; Neural Impulses [Transduction: the process by which one form of energy is converted into another – light energy into neural impulse].

143
Q

6.) Action potential travels along [blank] cells that make up the [blank] nerve (bundle of nerve, carries info from retina to brain; creates blind spot)

A

Ganglion Cells; Optic Nerve

144
Q

[Blank] nerve carries [blank] info to the [blank] to be processed.

A

Optic Nerve; Neural; Thalamus

145
Q

[blank] sends info to the [blank] in the [blank] lobe

A

Thalamus; Visual Cortex; Occipital Lobe

146
Q

[blank] constrains what is seen and turns it [blank] side up.

A

Brain; Right

147
Q

Match the function of each photoreceptor to the proper definition.

1.) Rods
2.) Cones

A. High Acuity, Color Vision
B. Low levels of light, Low Acuity

A

1.): B
2.) A

148
Q

What form is light measured in?

A

Wavelengths

149
Q

What does the additive method and how does it relate to our eyes?

A

The receptors are maximally sensitive to a peak wavelength and ones that are above or below the peak.

150
Q

What does the brightness determine?

A

Intensity

151
Q

What does the hue determine?

A

Color

152
Q

What does psychophysics mean?

A

The relationship between perception and the properties of a stimulus.

153
Q

What point are we able to detect the stimulus?

A

Absolute Threshold.

154
Q

What does the absolute threshold say about detecting a stimulus?

A

Smallest stimulus energy is needed for the nervous system to detect the stimulus.

155
Q

What is the intensity of the stimulus that is required for you to identify its presence?

A

50% of the time.

156
Q

What does the just noticeable difference mean?

A
157
Q

What does Weber’s Law state? Provide an example.

A

The relationship between the change in the intensity of the stimulus is proportional to the overall amount of stimulus.

Example: An individual is holding (10) pounds and you add (1) pounds = detectable – 1:10 ratio. An individual is holding (100) pounds and you add (1) pounds = detectable.

If there is a constant relationship between how much has to be added to be able to detect it, then you should be able to detect a 1-pound change for 10 pounds and 1 pound change for 100 pounds.

158
Q

What does the signal detection theory state?

A

Provides a way to detect and account for the subject’s biases.

159
Q

What does the signal-to-noise ratio?

A

Method: (One axis); some guess about reality/it happened this way or that way; (One axis); reality/it happened this way or that way.

Guess (right) –> Reality (right) = Hit
Reality (Wrong) –> Guess (Wrong) = Correct Rejection

Both Right

Guess (Right) –> Reality (Wrong) = False Alarm
Guess (Wrong) –> Reality (Right) = Miss

Both Wrong

160
Q

What is an example of the Fourfold Table of Life?

A

Coronavirus treatments and vaccines

Test Positive (Guess) –> They have Coronavirus (reality) = Hit
Test Negative (Guess) –> They do not have the virus (reality) = Correct Rejection

Both Correct

Test Positive (Guess) –> They do not have the virus (Reality) = False Alarm
Test Negative (Guess) –> They have coronavirus (reality) = Miss

Both Incorrect

161
Q

What part of the Fourfold Table of Life do we avoid because it can cause direct harm to the individual?

A

Misses + False Alarm

162
Q

What does selective attention mean?

A

Process of focusing on one sensory channel and ignoring others.

163
Q

What does the filter theory of attention (Broadbent) mean?

A

You have a lot of incoming sensory input, and you can not attend to all of them. Only some of that information goes through the bottleneck and gets attended to.

164
Q

What is the method and result of studying selective attention?

A

Dichotic Listening Task: Play information in one ear (attended ear) – play information in the other ear (unattended ear) – participant would be instructed to pay attention to one ear (attended ear) – researcher would tell the participant to repeat what they hear in (attended ear).

Result: Some information may be processed in the unattended ear, even without our selective attention.

165
Q

What does the cocktail party effect mean?

A

You’re at a party and you hear your name being called from across the room.

Your (selective attention) is on the conversation you are having, but you are still able to hear your name being called across from the room.

166
Q

What two areas of the brain activate the cortex in selective attention tasks?

A

Reticular Activating System; Basal Forebrain; Attention

167
Q

What is the sensory field?

A

The combination of more than one sense.

168
Q

What is the McGurk Effect?

A

An illusion whereby speech sounds are often miscategorized when the auditory cues in the stimulus conflict with the visual cues from the speaker’s face.

169
Q

What does damage to the medial temporal lobe cause?

A

Inability to form long-term memories; Distracted causes on to start over.

170
Q

What do we use from our past to interpret current sensory information? Provide an example.

A

Experiences

Example;
If after a soccer game instead of high-fiving you, your teammate punched you in the stomach. The next time you give that person a high five, you may interpret this interaction differently based on based experience.

171
Q

What may cause two people to interpret the same visual stimulus differently?

A

Current emotion and motivation state.

172
Q

What does embodied cognition mean? Provide an example.

A

The parts of your body that process sensory information, and connect to the parts of that process cognition.

Example;

Smell + Taste = Connected

If you hold your nose and eat a steak it may taste like cardboard.

173
Q

What may happen when you block one of your senses?

A

If you block one of your senses, whatever you are doing loses richness.

174
Q

What are the different ways one can determine depth perception?

Match the various ways to the proper definition.

1.) Relative Size
2.) Texture Gradient
3.) Interposition
4.) Linear Perspective
5.) Height in Plane

A. How much object appears textured - how close the object is
B. Objects - close to us - appear bigger
C. Lines go away from you - lines converge - tells you the distance
D. Object b/w you and other objects - most likely closer
E. Objects higher - visual field - further away

A

1.) B
2.) A
3.) D
4.) C
5.) E

175
Q

What is the difference between the foreground and the background?

A

Foreground: Object - Bottom = Closer
Background: Object - Top = Further Away

176
Q

What do binocular depth cues require?

A

Both eyes.

177
Q

What does binocular disparity mean?

A

Objects further away = less disparity b/w right/left eye-brain calculate difference - determine distance from it

178
Q

What does binocular convergence mean?

A

The closer you bring your finger to your eyes - the eyes turn inward = convergence - eyes can calculate that convergence and calculate depth

179
Q

When does depth perception begin?

A

Infants between 6 and 14 months hesitate to crawl over the visual cliff.

180
Q

What is the cultural influence on depth cues? Provide an example?

A

People in various cultures don’t have the opportunity to learn through magazines, books, computers and etc. The objects [(magazines, books, and computers are (3D)] but what’s on the object are (2D). They only learn through (3D) experiences.

Example:

A person in a different culture wants to learn how to open a fridge. They learn through 3D experience: putting their hands on the fridge and opening it. They are not able to learn how to open a fridge by reading (what’s on 2D), (3D magazines, books, and computers).

181
Q

What parts of your brain store memory?

A

The parts of the brain that are changed due to experience.

182
Q

What is the part of the brain called that stores experiences?

A

Hippocampus; Temporal Lobe.

183
Q

What is memory?

A

The storing of information about experiences.

184
Q

What does the “Law of Mass Action” say about the effects of the destruction of the brain?

A

More damage to brain = Worse Memory

185
Q

Where is a memory most likely to be stored in the brain?

A

Parts that process incoming information.

186
Q

What did “Hebb” propose about memory?

A

Memory is stored across a network of neurons.

187
Q

How accurate is our memory?

A

Mostly Accurate
Test: Show three photos of three faces.
Testing (3 days after): 2500 images; 90% recognition rate;
Testing (2 days after): 10,000 images; 66% recognition rate

188
Q

What causes memory to be subjected to error?

A

Reconstructive nature; Process of piecing together information from stored knowledge when there is no clear memory of an event.

189
Q

What are two predictors in determining how accurate memory is?

A

Time; Confidence

190
Q

What are the three main processes of memory? (ESR)

A

Encoding, Storage, and Retrieval

191
Q

What are the three levels of memory?

A

1.) Sensory Memory: Large Capacity and Short Duration
2.) Short-Term Memory: Medium Capacity and duration
3.) Long-Term Memory: Large capacity and long duration

192
Q

Do we encode any memories automatically? (STF)

A

Space, Time, Frequency

193
Q

What is sensory memory? Provide an example.

A

Brief storage of perceptual information.

Example
You are in class. The professor says something interesting. You try and write down everything they are saying. The professor moves too quickly to the next topic. You hear the professor’s voice for a few seconds, what he said in your head, and then it just goes away.

194
Q

What is the difference between iconic and echoic sensory memory? How long does each last?

A

1.) Iconic (Visual) – about a second
2.) Echoic (Auditory) – memories 5-10 seconds

195
Q

What is short-term memory (working memory)?

A

The information is stored for a short period of time.

196
Q

Why is it not effective to repeat something in your head during the phase of short-term memory?

A

Prevents information from going into short-term memory; Allows a person to keep information active.

197
Q

What did Peterson & Peterson’s (1959) STM Task show?

A

The longer the interval the less accurate the recall.

Example: At 3 seconds, around 80% of the trigrams were correctly recalled, whereas at 18 seconds only 10% were correctly recalled.

The working memory tends to be 10-15 seconds.

198
Q

What are two factors that interfere with memory performance?

A

1.) Time Duration: Memory fades due to the mere passage of time.
2.) Interference: Some memories interfere with the retrieval of other memories

199
Q

How can we improve short-term memory?

A

Chunking: Group together meaningful pieces of information.

200
Q

What are the two things we have to to do improve short-term memory?

A

1.) Maintenance Rehearsal: Repeat information in its current form.
2.) Elaborative Rehearsal: Think deeper about the information to make it meaningful or connected to an experience you had.

201
Q

What does the 7 (plus or minus two) mean in terms of short-term memory?

A

Most adults can store between 5 and 9 items in their short-term memory. This idea was put forward by Miller (1956) and he called it the magic number 7.

202
Q

What are the factors that determine whether the information will get into long-term memory?

A

Repetition

203
Q

What is the difference between a semantic and phonetic error in Long Term Memory?

A

1.) Semantic; The error in meaning; A lack of understanding of the meaning of an object.
2.) Phonetic; The error of sound; Type a word that sounds the same.

204
Q

What are the different types of memories?

A

Automatic

Implicit Memories: (Nondeclartive) Without conscious recall.
Classical conditioning (reaction to dentist’s office)
Motor and cognitive skills (riding a bike)
Priming: Behavior is affected by recently experienced events, and yet you are unaware of how the information is affecting your behavior.

Effortful

Explicit Memories: (Declarative) With conscious recall.
Semantic Memory: Facts and general knowledge (this chapter’s concepts).
Episodic Memory: Personally experienced events (family holidays).

205
Q

Does repetition facilitate embedded information into long-term declarative memory?

A

Repetition provides little advantage for forming long-term declarative memory.

206
Q

What does the “Testing Effect” mean?

A

Students may perform significantly better if they test themselves on the information they are learning within their classes; Reduces overconfidence

207
Q

What is the benefit of spacing out your studying schedule?

A

Less interference; Memories may not interfere with the retrieval of other memories

208
Q

Is the recalling or repetition of something more beneficial for a student’s ability to perform well in their class?

A

Recalling; Forces you to test yourself; which Leads to better performance on tests.

209
Q

What are the three different ways we can study material?

A

Looks (Visual); Sounds (Phonological); Means (Semantic).

210
Q

Describe the levels of processing and memory for general material.

A

Structural: Is the word in capital letters? [Yes/No]
Phonemic: Does the word rhyme with another word? [Yes/No]
Sentence: Does the word fit within the context of the sentence? [Yes/No]

211
Q

What are the results of twin and development studies?

A

Heredity affects temperament and temperament affects attachment styles.