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Psychology > Psychology (2) > Flashcards

Psychology (2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is cognitive neuroscience?

A

The relationship between cognitive functions and the brain.

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2
Q

What do studies in cognitive neuroscience investigate?

A

The mind, inferred from measures of behaviour in relation to brain activity.

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3
Q

What has led to the explanation of neural mechanisms in cognitive neuroscience?

A

The growth and use of technology.

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4
Q

What does cognitive neuroscience explore in relation to brain regions?

A

Connectivity between brain regions and their role in cognitive function.

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5
Q

What is Electroencephalography (EEG)?

A

Measurement of the brain’s electrical activity via electrodes placed on the scalp.

EEG is often used in clinical settings to diagnose conditions like epilepsy and sleep disorders.

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6
Q

What does Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) measure?

A

Measurement of brain activity by detecting small changes in the brain’s blood flow and oxygenation levels.

fMRI is commonly used in research to understand brain function and to map brain activity during various tasks.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of Positron Emission Tomography (PET)?

A

Visual imaging technique that allows the detection of brain activity via the use of radioactive tracers that are injected into the body.

PET scans are used to observe metabolic processes in the body and can help in the diagnosis of conditions like cancer and neurological disorders.

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8
Q

How does Magnetoencephalography (MEG) work?

A

Measurement of the brain’s activity by detecting changes in its magnetic fields.

MEG is particularly useful for localizing brain functions and understanding the timing of neural events.

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9
Q

What is the focus of evolutionary psychology?

A

Identify the selection pressures that have impacted on human psyche over time

Evolutionary psychology seeks to understand how evolution has shaped our mental processes.

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10
Q

What does evolutionary psychology test regarding psychological mechanisms?

A

Whether they show features expected if designed to solve particular adaptive problems

This involves examining if our mental processes are suited to the challenges faced by our ancestors.

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11
Q

Who is Steven Pinker?

A

A psychologist and author known for his work in evolutionary psychology.

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12
Q

What are two notable books published by Steven Pinker?

A
  • The Language Instinct (1994)
  • The Blank Slate: The Modern Denial of Human Nature (2002)
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13
Q

What psychological perspective does Steven Pinker advocate?

A

Evolutionary psychology.

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14
Q

According to Pinker and Bloom (1990), what is language?

A

A product of evolution and not a by-product.

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15
Q

What does Steven Pinker believe about language faculties?

A

They are innate.

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16
Q

What view is associated with Steven Pinker’s beliefs?

A

Nativist view.

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17
Q

True or False: Steven Pinker is considered a controversial figure in Psychology.

A

True.

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18
Q

What are Genome Wide Association Studies (GWAS)?

A

Studies that scan markers across complete sets of DNA to investigate genetic variations associated with a disease or trait.

GWAS are instrumental in understanding the genetic basis of various diseases and traits.

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19
Q

What major projects enabled the development of Genome Wide Association Studies?

A

The Human Genome Project and the HapMap Project.

The Human Genome Project was completed in 2003, and the HapMap Project was completed in 2005.

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20
Q

Approximately how many genes exist in human beings?

A

Approximately 20,500 genes.

This mapping of genes is crucial for understanding genetic variation.

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21
Q

What types of diseases are commonly investigated using Genome Wide Association Studies?

A

Diseases such as cancer, diabetes, and mental illness.

GWAS help identify genetic variations that may contribute to these diseases.

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22
Q

True or False: Genome Wide Association Studies only focus on physical diseases.

A

False.

GWAS also investigate psychological traits, such as personality traits.

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23
Q

Fill in the blank: The Human Genome Project was completed in _______.

A

2003

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24
Q

Fill in the blank: The HapMap Project was completed in _______.

A

2005

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25
Q

What is one application of Genome Wide Association Studies in psychology?

A

Investigation of psychological traits such as personality traits.

This shows the relevance of genetic studies in understanding human behavior.

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26
Q

What are the limitations of Genome Wide Association Studies (GWAS)?

A

Huge costs associated with running these studies, large sample sizes needed, GWAS does not establish causal genetic variation

GWAS studies are often expensive and require significant resources to analyze large datasets.

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27
Q

Fill in the blank: GWAS does not establish _______ genetic variation.

A

causal

Causal genetic variation refers to specific genetic changes that directly contribute to a trait or disease.

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28
Q

True or False: GWAS can be conducted with small sample sizes.

A

False

Large sample sizes are necessary to achieve statistically significant results in GWAS.

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29
Q

What is a major financial consideration when conducting GWAS?

A

Huge costs associated with running these studies

The financial burden can limit the number of studies that can be successfully conducted.

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30
Q

What is required in terms of sample size for GWAS?

A

Large sample sizes needed

Larger samples help improve the reliability and validity of the findings.

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31
Q

What are the two main types of cells in our nervous system?

A

Neurons and Glia Cells

Neurons communicate with each other, while Glia Cells support neuronal function.

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32
Q

What is the primary function of neurons?

A

To communicate with each other to perform information processing tasks.

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33
Q

What do Glia Cells provide to neurons?

A

Physical support, nutrients, and enhanced function.

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34
Q

Who developed a stain that allowed the visualization of neurons in the brain?

A

Golgi (1843-1926).

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35
Q

What did Cajal (1852-1934) contribute to the understanding of neurons?

A

He showed that neurons come in different shapes and sizes.

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36
Q

True or False: Neurons actually touch each other.

A

False.

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37
Q

Fill in the blank: Glia Cells are also known as _______.

A

[Glue].

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38
Q

What are neurons?

A

Electrically excitable cells which can communicate with other cells.

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39
Q

What are the three basic parts of a neuron?

A
  • Cell Body
  • Axon
  • Dendrites
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40
Q

What part of the neuron receives signals from other neurons?

A

Dendrites

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41
Q

What is the function of the axon in a neuron?

A

Transmits neural impulses away from the cell body.

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42
Q

What is the myelin sheath?

A

A protective covering that surrounds the axon and helps speed up neural impulses.

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43
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the part of the neuron that contains the nucleus.

A

Cell Body

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44
Q

True or False: Neurons can communicate with each other.

A

True

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45
Q

What structure at the end of the axon helps in communication with other neurons?

A

Terminal branches of axon

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46
Q

What is a neural impulse?

A

An electrical signal that travels along the axon.

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47
Q

What are the two stages of communication of information within and between neurons?

A

Conduction and Transmission

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48
Q

What does conduction refer to in the context of neuron function?

A

Conducting information along a neuron

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49
Q

What does transmission refer to in the context of neuron function?

A

Passing information between neurons

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50
Q

What is the natural electric charge of neurons called?

A

Resting Potential

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51
Q

What is the value of the resting potential in millivolts?

A

-70 millivolts

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52
Q

Who conducted research on resting potential in 1939?

A

Hodgkin & Huxley

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53
Q

What is the resting potential generated by?

A

A differing concentration of ions inside and outside the cell

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54
Q

Fill in the blank: The difference in charge between the inside and outside of the cell membrane is called _______.

A

Resting Potential

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55
Q

True or False: Resting potential is a stable state that occurs only when a neuron is actively firing.

A

False

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56
Q

What phenomenon is produced when a neuron is stimulated?

A

Action Potential

This phenomenon was noted by Hodgkin & Huxley in 1939.

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57
Q

What must be reached for an action potential to occur?

A

Threshold

If the threshold is not reached, no action potential is produced.

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58
Q

What is the range of voltage change during an action potential?

A

-70 to +40 millivolts

This indicates the depolarization of the neuron during the action potential.

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59
Q

True or False: An action potential occurs regardless of whether the threshold is reached.

A

False

Action potentials only occur when the stimulation reaches a specific threshold.

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60
Q

What happens to the neuron’s charge during an action potential?

A

It jumps from -70 to +40 millivolts

This change represents the rapid depolarization phase of the action potential.

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61
Q

What is an action potential?

A

An action potential occurs when there is a change in charge in the cell.

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62
Q

What happens to the Na+ channels during an action potential?

A

Na+ channels open, allowing Na+ to flood into the cell, increasing the charge.

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63
Q

What occurs when the peak of an action potential is reached?

A

The K+ channels open, letting K+ leave the cell until resting potential is restored.

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64
Q

What is the refractory period?

A

The refractory period is the time during which the cell cannot fire again as Na+ and K+ pumps reset the cell.

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65
Q

Fill in the blank: Axons cell membranes are _______.

A

permeable.

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66
Q

What is myelination?

A

The process of covering the axon in a Myelin sheath

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67
Q

What is a Myelin sheath composed of?

A

A layer of fatty cells made up of glia cells

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68
Q

What is the primary function of the Myelin sheath?

A

Insulation and faster transmission of signals

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69
Q

How does myelination affect signal loss?

A

It reduces signal loss

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70
Q

What are demyelinating diseases?

A

Diseases that slow transmission along axons, such as Multiple Sclerosis

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71
Q

True or False: Myelination allows for slower transmission of signals along neurons.

A

False

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72
Q

What is the role of Nodes of Ranvier?

A

Facilitate quicker movement of signals between nodes

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73
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of covering the axon in a _______ is known as myelination.

A

Myelin sheath

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74
Q

What happens to transmission speed in demyelinating diseases?

A

It slows down

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75
Q

List two key benefits of myelination.

A
  • Faster transmission
  • Reduced signal loss
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76
Q

Who discovered that neurons do not actually touch each other?

A

Cajal

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77
Q

What is the small gap between the sending neuron and receiving neuron called?

A

Synapse

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78
Q

What must happen for neurons to communicate?

A

Information must travel across the synapse

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79
Q

Fill in the blank: Between the sending neuron and receiving neuron, there is a _______.

A

synapse

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80
Q

True or False: Neurons physically touch each other.

A

False

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81
Q

What is the first step in synaptic transmission?

A

Action potential arrives at terminal button

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82
Q

What happens after the action potential arrives at the terminal button?

A

Stimulate release of neurotransmitters into the synapse from the presynaptic neuron

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83
Q

What do neurotransmitters do after being released into the synapse?

A

Cross the synapse and bind to receptor sites on the postsynaptic dendrite

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84
Q

What is generated if neurotransmitters bind to receptor sites and reach the threshold?

A

An action potential is generated

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85
Q

Fill in the blank: Neurotransmitters are released from the _______ neuron.

A

presynaptic

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86
Q

Fill in the blank: The gap between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron is called the _______.

A

synaptic gap

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87
Q

What are the structures that contain neurotransmitters in the presynaptic neuron called?

A

Vesicles

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88
Q

What is the term for the process of neurotransmitters being taken back into the presynaptic neuron?

A

Reuptake

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89
Q

What receptors are located on the presynaptic neuron that help regulate neurotransmitter release?

A

Autoreceptors

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90
Q

True or False: Postsynaptic neurons are responsible for generating action potentials.

A

True

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91
Q

What can neurons form thousands of?

A

Synaptic connections

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92
Q

What characterizes the pathways formed by neurons?

A

Specific neurotransmitters

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93
Q

What hypothesis explains how neurotransmitters fit into receptor sites?

A

Lock and Key hypothesis

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94
Q

Fill in the blank: After transmission, excess neurotransmitter leaves the synapse by _______.

A

[Reuptake, Enzyme Deactivation, Binding to auto receptors]

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95
Q

What are the three ways excess neurotransmitter can leave the synapse?

A
  • Reuptake
  • Enzyme Deactivation
  • Binding to auto receptors
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96
Q

What do auto receptors do in the context of neurotransmitter transmission?

A

Moderate the amount of transmitter in the synapse

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97
Q

What are neurons often specialized based on?

A

Their location

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98
Q

What is a characteristic of Purkinje cells?

A

Dense network of dendrites

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99
Q

What is the shape of hippocampal pyramidal cells?

A

Triangular body and long dendrites

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100
Q

What distinguishes bipolar cells?

A

Few dendrites and a single axon

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101
Q

What functions are associated with Purkinje cells?

A

Coordination, control, and learning movements

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102
Q

What is the role of hippocampal pyramidal cells?

A

Generation of cognitive maps

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103
Q

What signals do bipolar cells convey?

A

Light driven signals from rods and cones to retinal ganglion cells

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104
Q

Fill in the blank: Purkinje cells are associated with _______.

A

coordination, control, and learning movements

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105
Q

True or False: All neurons have the same structure.

A

False

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106
Q

What type of neurons are characterized by a triangular body?

A

Hippocampal pyramidal cells

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107
Q

What are the two broad types of the nervous system?

A

Central Nervous System and Peripheral Nervous System

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108
Q

What does the Central Nervous System consist of?

A

The brain and spinal cord

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109
Q

What is the function of the Peripheral Nervous System?

A

Connects the CNS to the body’s organs and muscles

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110
Q

True or False: Neurons can communicate with each other.

A

True

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111
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ Nervous System consists of the brain and spinal cord.

A

Central

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112
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ Nervous System connects the CNS to the body’s organs and muscles.

A

Peripheral

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113
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?

A

Somatic Nervous System and Autonomic Nervous System

The PNS is responsible for transmitting information in and out of the Central Nervous System (CNS).

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114
Q

What is the function of the Somatic Nervous System?

A

Transmits information in and out of the CNS and allows conscious control over behaviors

It helps us perceive and coordinate behaviors.

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115
Q

What does the Autonomic Nervous System control?

A

Involuntary commands controlling bodily functions such as blood vessels, organs, and glands

It operates without conscious control.

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116
Q

What are the two branches of the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Sympathetic Nervous System and Parasympathetic Nervous System

These branches manage different involuntary functions.

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117
Q

True or False: The Somatic Nervous System is responsible for involuntary bodily functions.

A

False

The Somatic Nervous System is under conscious control.

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118
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ Nervous System makes your blood vessels dilate and controls digestion.

A

Sympathetic

This system is part of the Autonomic Nervous System.

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119
Q

What type of control do we have over the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

No conscious control

It operates automatically to manage bodily functions.

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120
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system prepare the body for?

A

Action

It activates the body’s fight or flight response.

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121
Q

What physiological changes occur when the sympathetic nervous system is activated?

A

• Dilates pupils
• Increases heart rate
• Diverts blood to brain and muscles

These changes enhance physical performance and alertness.

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122
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system inhibit?

A

• Digestion
• Responses to pain and injury

This inhibition allows the body to focus on immediate survival.

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123
Q

True or False: The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body to fight or run.

A

True

This is part of the fight or flight response.

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124
Q

Fill in the blank: The sympathetic nervous system ______ the pupils.

A

dilates

This allows more light to enter the eyes, enhancing vision.

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125
Q

What happens to heart rate when the sympathetic nervous system is activated?

A

Increases

This helps pump more blood and oxygen to muscles.

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126
Q

What is a common scenario that activates the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Hearing footsteps while walking in the dark

This triggers a fear response, activating the sympathetic nervous system.

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127
Q

What is the role of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

It returns the body to a normal resting state.

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128
Q

How does the Parasympathetic Nervous System typically respond to the actions of the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

It usually mirrors the Sympathetic Nervous System.

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129
Q

What happens to heart rate when the Parasympathetic Nervous System is activated?

A

It reduces the heart rate.

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130
Q

What effect does the Parasympathetic Nervous System have on pupil size?

A

It constricts the pupils.

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131
Q

Fill in the blank: The Parasympathetic Nervous System undoes what the _______ did.

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

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132
Q

True or False: The Parasympathetic Nervous System is responsible for the body’s fight-or-flight response.

A

False

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133
Q

What are the two main parts of the Central Nervous System?

A

Brain and Spinal Cord

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134
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the Central Nervous System?

A

Most of what we do

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135
Q

Before considering the CNS, what must we understand?

A

How anatomy is labelled

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136
Q

What is the anatomical direction that refers to the back of the body?

A

Dorsal

Dorsal is commonly used to describe the position of structures in relation to the back of the organism.

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137
Q

Which anatomical direction refers to the front of the body?

A

Anterior

Anterior is often used interchangeably with ventral in humans.

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138
Q

What term describes the direction towards the tail end of the body?

A

Posterior

Posterior is the opposite of anterior.

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139
Q

What is the term for the direction towards the belly or underside?

A

Ventral

Ventral is used primarily in animals, while in humans, it is synonymous with anterior.

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140
Q

Fill in the blank: The term for the direction towards the midline of the body is _______.

A

Medial

Medial is the opposite of lateral.

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141
Q

What anatomical direction refers to the sides of the body, away from the midline?

A

Lateral

Lateral indicates a position farther from the midline of the body.

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142
Q

What is the horizontal plane in relation to the brain?

A

A slice which is paralleled to the ground

This plane is useful for viewing the brain from a top-down perspective.

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143
Q

What does the frontal (coronal) plane resemble?

A

Like slicing a loaf of bread

This plane allows for viewing the brain from the front to the back.

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144
Q

What does the sagittal plane do?

A

Runs along the length of the brain, separating the left and right sides

A midsagittal cut divides the brain into two equal halves.

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145
Q

What is a midsagittal section?

A

A section that separates the left and right sides of the brain

It provides a symmetrical view of the brain structures.

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146
Q

What is often considered the brains poor relation?

A

Spinal Cord

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147
Q

What functions does the spinal cord enable the brain to perform?

A

Breathing, movement, interaction with our world

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148
Q

What is the role of the spinal cord in behavior?

A

Can create some behaviours

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149
Q

What is a reflex arch?

A

Simply muscle movement to protect

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150
Q

What is required for more complex behaviours?

A

Interaction between the brain and spinal cord

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151
Q

What does the spinal cord serve as for the nervous system?

A

A highway for the nervous system signals

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152
Q

Fill in the blank: The spinal cord can create _______.

A

[some behaviours]

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153
Q

True or False: The spinal cord is not involved in reflex actions.

A

False

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154
Q

What is the approximate weight of the brain?

A

1.3 kg

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155
Q

How long is the brain?

A

15 cm

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156
Q

How many connections are there in the brain?

A

Over 170 billion

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157
Q

How many Facebook users are there on the planet for perspective?

A

3.1 billion

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158
Q

What are the three planes through which neuroscientists can consider the brain?

A
  • Ventral to dorsal
  • Left to right
  • Anterior to posterior
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159
Q

Which approach will be considered in this lecture regarding the brain?

A

Ventral to dorsal approach

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160
Q

True or False: Simpler functions occur at higher levels of the brain.

A

False

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161
Q

Fill in the blank: Generally, simpler functions occur at _______ levels and more complex at higher.

A

lower

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162
Q

What is the hindbrain also known as?

A

Brainstem

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163
Q

What is the primary function of the hindbrain?

A

Coordinates information coming in and out of the spinal cord

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164
Q

List the four main structures of the hindbrain.

A
  • Medulla
  • Pons
  • Reticular Formation
  • Cerebellum
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165
Q

True or False: The hindbrain consists of only one structure.

A

False

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166
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is one of the four main structures of the hindbrain.

A

[any of the following: Medulla, Pons, Reticular Formation, Cerebellum]

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167
Q

What are the main components of the hindbrain?

A

Pons, Medulla, Reticular formation, Cerebellum

The hindbrain is responsible for various vital functions and motor control.

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168
Q

What is the function of the reticular formation?

A

Regulates sleep, wakefulness, and levels of arousal

Severing the reticular formation in a cat caused an irreversible coma (Moruzzi & Magoun, 1949).

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169
Q

What does the medulla coordinate?

A

Heart rate, circulation, and respiration

The medulla is crucial for autonomic functions.

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170
Q

What role does the cerebellum play in motor control?

A

Controls fine motor skills and smooths actions

This is important for coordination and balance (Smetacek, 2002).

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171
Q

What does the term ‘pons’ mean in Latin?

A

‘Bridge’

The pons relays information from the cerebellum to the rest of the brain.

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172
Q

True or False: The reticular formation is involved in regulating sleep.

A

True

It also regulates wakefulness and arousal levels.

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173
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ coordinates heart rate, circulation, and respiration.

A

Medulla

The medulla is a vital part of the hindbrain.

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174
Q

What happens if the reticular formation is severed?

A

Causes an irreversible coma

This was demonstrated in a study by Moruzzi & Magoun in 1949.

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175
Q

What is the primary function of the pons?

A

Relays information from the cerebellum to the rest of the brain

This makes it essential for communication within the brain.

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176
Q

Name one key function of the cerebellum.

A

Controls fine motor skills

It is essential for coordination and balance, smoothing movements.

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177
Q

What is the function of the tectum?

A

Orientates us to the environment

The tectum is responsible for reflexive responses to sensory stimuli, such as turning towards a loud noise.

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178
Q

When you hear a loud noise and look towards it, which part of the brain is involved?

A

Tectum

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179
Q

What role does the tegmentum play in the brain?

A

Involved in movement and arousal

The tegmentum helps in orienting us to sensory information and is linked to pleasure-seeking behaviors.

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180
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is associated with pleasure seeking and motivation.

A

Tegmentum

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181
Q

True or False: The tectum is involved in movement.

A

False

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182
Q

What are the two main parts of the midbrain mentioned?

A
  • Tectum
  • Tegmentum
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183
Q

What is the highest level of the brain called?

A

Forebrain

The forebrain is linked to complex cognition, emotion, sensation, and motor functions.

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184
Q

What are the two main components of the forebrain?

A
  • Cerebral Cortex
  • Subcortical Structures

The cerebral cortex is visible and has two distinct hemispheres, while subcortical structures are located beneath the cerebral cortex.

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185
Q

True or False: The cerebral cortex is not visible with the eye.

A

False

The cerebral cortex is visible and has two distinct hemispheres.

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186
Q

Fill in the blank: The forebrain is linked to ________, emotion, sensation, and motor functions.

A

[complex cognition]

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187
Q

What does the term ‘subcortical structures’ refer to in the context of the forebrain?

A

Structures housed under the cerebral cortex near the centre of the brain

These structures play various roles in processing information and regulating emotions.

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188
Q

What is the longitudinal fissure?

A

A large trench that separates the two hemispheres of the brain

The longitudinal fissure divides the left and right hemispheres of the brain.

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189
Q

What are the two distinct hemispheres of the cerebellum?

A

Left and right hemispheres

The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and balance.

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190
Q

What is contralateral processing?

A

The phenomenon where the right side of the body is controlled by the left side of the brain and vice versa

This principle is fundamental in understanding brain function and motor control.

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191
Q

What connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain?

A

Corpus callosum

The corpus callosum is a thick band of nerve fibers that facilitates communication between the two hemispheres.

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192
Q

What are the folds and grooves on the surface of the brain called?

A

Folds are gyri (singular: gyrus) and grooves are sulci (singular: sulcus)

Gyri and sulci increase the surface area of the brain and are involved in various brain functions.

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193
Q

What are the four lobes of the brain?

A
  • Frontal Lobe
  • Parietal Lobe
  • Temporal Lobe
  • Occipital Lobe

Each lobe has distinct functions related to different aspects of cognition and sensory processing.

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194
Q

Fill in the blank: The cerebellum has a series of _______ and _______.

A

[folds], [grooves]

These structures help in increasing the surface area of the cerebellum.

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195
Q

True or False: The precentral gyrus is part of the frontal lobe.

A

True

The precentral gyrus is involved in motor control.

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196
Q

What is the role of the central sulcus?

A

It separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe

The central sulcus is a key landmark in the brain’s anatomy.

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197
Q

What are the main functions of the Frontal Lobe?

A

Complex thinking, planning, judgments, and movement

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198
Q

What are the main functions of the Parietal Lobe?

A

Processing sensations from the body, locating objects, and attentional processing

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199
Q

What are the main functions of the Temporal Lobe?

A

Hearing, language, identifying patterns, and memory

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200
Q

What is the main function of the Occipital Lobe?

A

Processing of visual input

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201
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ Lobe is responsible for complex thinking and planning.

A

Frontal

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202
Q

True or False: The Temporal Lobe is involved in processing visual input.

A

False

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203
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ Lobe processes sensations from the body.

A

Parietal

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204
Q

What is the ‘what/how pathway’ associated with?

A

Temporal Lobe

205
Q

Which lobe is primarily responsible for emotional processing?

A

Frontal Lobe

206
Q

Which lobe is associated with interacting with objects and touch?

A

Parietal Lobe

207
Q

Which lobe is responsible for processing vision?

A

Occipital Lobe

208
Q

What has advanced alongside technology in studying the brain?

A

Tools available to study the brain

209
Q

What does Electroencephalography (EEG) measure?

A

Electrically activity in neurons

210
Q

What is a limitation of EEG?

A

Limited spatial resolution

211
Q

What does Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) allow us to see?

A

The structure of the brain

212
Q

What was a significant limitation before MRI technology?

A

We couldn’t see damage until post mortem

213
Q

What does functional MRI (fMRI) allow us to observe?

A

Which parts of the brain are using oxygen

214
Q

What is a disadvantage of functional MRI?

A

Slow

215
Q

What is an advantage of functional MRI?

A

Good spatial resolution

216
Q

What does positron emission tomography (PET) measure?

A

Blood flow in the body/brain using radioactive markers

PET is a functional imaging technique that helps visualize metabolic processes.

217
Q

What is the purpose of Transmagnetic Cranial Stimulation (TMS)?

A

To temporally ‘turn off’ parts of the brain using a magnet

TMS can create temporary lesions and is primarily used to explore surface structures of the brain.

218
Q

True or False: TMS can permanently damage brain structures.

A

False

TMS creates temporary effects rather than permanent damage.

219
Q

Fill in the blank: Positron emission tomography uses _______ to measure blood flow.

A

[radioactive markers]

220
Q

What types of structures can TMS primarily explore?

A

Surface structures of the brain

TMS is limited in its ability to investigate deeper brain structures.

221
Q

What does the term ‘nomothetic’ refer to?

A

An approach that focuses on general laws and generalizations about human behavior

Derived from the Greek ‘nomos’, meaning ‘law’.

222
Q

What is the subject matter of individual differences in the nomothetic approach?

A

The ways in which we are like some other human beings

223
Q

How many ways do people differ from each other according to the nomothetic approach?

A

Only a small number of ways, sometimes referred to as group norms

224
Q

What are measurement tools used for in the nomothetic approach?

A

To compare people with each other

225
Q

What type of tests are commonly used in the nomothetic approach?

A

Psychometric tests

226
Q

What are psychometric tests interested in measuring?

A

Constructs (latent variables) which cannot be directly observed

Examples include personality characteristics, intelligence, and mental health.

227
Q

What is a common output of psychometric tests?

A

A numeric value for the item that is measured.

228
Q

What are the two distinct backgrounds of psychometric tests?

A
  • Measurement of individual differences
  • Measurement of constructs/standardised testing
229
Q

How long does it typically take to develop psychometric tests?

A

A long time; you can’t just knock out a couple of questions and say you’re done.

230
Q

What are psychometric tests concerned with?

A
  • Validity
  • Reliability
231
Q

True or False: Psychometric tests can be created quickly with minimal effort.

A

False

232
Q

Fill in the blank: Psychometric tests measure constructs that are _______.

A

[latent variables]

233
Q

What is the statistical method used to analyze the results of psychometric tests?

A

Factor analysis

Factor analysis helps in identifying basic factors or dimensions underlying constructs such as personality and intelligence.

234
Q

What does factor analysis help researchers determine?

A

Which items are related

This allows researchers to refine their measures.

235
Q

Name a theory related to intelligence that used factor analysis.

A

Spearman’s two-factor theory of intelligence

Developed in 1904 and further elaborated in 1927.

236
Q

Which psychologist proposed theories of personality that involved factor analysis?

A

Eysenck

Eysenck’s theories were developed in 1953 and 1965.

237
Q

What is one of the contributions of Cattell to the field of personality?

A

Theories of personality

Cattell’s contributions were made in 1965.

238
Q

Fill in the blank: The results of psychometric tests are analyzed using _______.

A

factor analysis

239
Q

True or False: Factor analysis can be used to identify dimensions underlying constructs such as intelligence and personality.

A

True

240
Q

What does the term ‘idiographic’ refer to in psychology?

A

The study of individual norms and uniqueness in individuals

Derived from the Greek ‘idios’, meaning ‘own’ or ‘private’.

241
Q

Who is the main advocate for the idiographic approach?

A

Gordon Allport

Allport’s work in 1937 and 1961 is foundational for this approach.

242
Q

What type of theories represent the idiographic approach?

A

Humanistic personality theories

Examples include Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs and Kelly’s personal construct theory.

243
Q

Fill in the blank: The idiographic approach focuses on ways in which individuals are _______.

A

unique

244
Q

True or False: The idiographic approach studies general norms applicable to all individuals.

A

False

The idiographic approach emphasizes individual differences rather than general norms.

245
Q

What are the three types of personal traits distinguished by Allport?

A

Cardinal, Central, Secondary

Allport classified these traits to explain individual behavior and personality.

246
Q

What are Cardinal traits?

A

Traits that dictate and direct almost all of an individual’s behaviour

Cardinal traits are the dominant traits that shape a person’s actions and decisions.

247
Q

What are Central traits?

A

Basic building blocks that make up the core of a person’s personality

Central traits indicate how a person deals with the world and are fundamental to their character.

248
Q

What are Secondary traits?

A

Refers to tastes and preferences that may change and don’t define an individual

Secondary traits are less influential and can vary over time.

249
Q

True or False: Cardinal traits are the least influential on an individual’s behavior.

A

False

Cardinal traits are the most influential, shaping nearly all behavior.

250
Q

Fill in the blank: Secondary traits refer to _______ and preferences that may change.

A

[tastes]

Secondary traits are not stable and can fluctuate based on circumstances.

251
Q

What does it mean for traits to be idiosyncratic?

A

Traits are individual and unique to each person

Idiosyncratic traits highlight personal differences in behavior and personality.

252
Q

What determines whether a trait is considered secondary or central?

A

It is determined by how often and strongly it influences a person’s behaviour

For example, a person may be generally irritable but occasionally kind.

253
Q

Can some traits be possessed by only one person?

A

Yes, individuals can possess traits that are unique to them

This emphasizes the uniqueness of each individual.

254
Q

Does having the same label for a trait guarantee that it is demonstrated in the same way by different individuals?

A

No, the same trait can be demonstrated in different ways by different individuals

Subtle shadings can distinguish how the trait manifests in each person.

255
Q

Fill in the blank: What makes a trait _______ or central is not what it is but how often and strongly it influences a person’s behaviour.

A

[secondary]

256
Q

True or False: Two people with the same trait will always show that trait in the same manner.

A

False

Individuals may express the same trait differently.

257
Q

What does the idiographic approach contend about individuals?

A

People are not comparable

This approach emphasizes the uniqueness of each individual.

258
Q

According to the idiographic approach, how are differences between people characterized?

A

Qualitative differences (a difference in kind)

This suggests that individuals cannot simply be compared using the same metrics.

259
Q

What did Allport suggest regarding the comparison of individuals?

A

Individuals can be compared but only as a rough approximation

This indicates limitations in comparing unique traits across individuals.

260
Q

What does Holt suggest is necessary for describing an individual trait?

A

Creation of a new word

This highlights the complexity and uniqueness of individual traits.

261
Q

What is the focus of the nomothetic approach?

A

Comparing people in terms of a specified number of traits or dimensions

This approach seeks to establish general laws that apply to many individuals.

262
Q

How do traits function in the nomothetic approach?

A

Traits have the same psychological meaning for everyone

Individuals differ in the extent to which the trait is present.

263
Q

What type of difference does the nomothetic approach emphasize?

A

Quantitative difference (one of degree only)

This approach measures traits on a continuum rather than categorically.

264
Q

What do single case designs analyze?

A

The actual performance of an individual

Single case designs focus on the detailed examination of a single subject’s behavior or performance.

265
Q

What is a key characteristic of case studies?

A

They compare an individual’s performance across different conditions

This comparison helps to identify patterns and effects of varying conditions on performance.

266
Q

Why is individual variability important in case studies?

A

It allows for understanding unique responses to different conditions

Recognizing individual variability is crucial for tailoring interventions and understanding diverse outcomes.

267
Q

What is the clinical significance of single case designs?

A

They provide insights that can inform treatment decisions and interventions

The findings from single case designs can be directly applicable in clinical settings.

268
Q

What is a case study?

A

A detailed description and analysis of a single individual

Case studies focus on in-depth exploration of an individual or group.

269
Q

What types of data are obtained in a case study?

A
  • Naturalistic observation
  • Diaries
  • Interviews
  • Psychometric tests
  • Experimental measurements

These methods provide various perspectives and insights into the individual being studied.

270
Q

True or False: A case study may describe the application and results of a particular treatment.

A

True

Case studies often include treatment interventions and their outcomes.

271
Q

Fill in the blank: A case study obtains data through _______.

A

[multiple methods]

This includes naturalistic observation, diaries, interviews, psychometric tests, and experimental measurements.

272
Q

What is one strength of case studies?

A

Provide new ideas and hypotheses

Case studies often lead to innovative thinking and exploration of new concepts.

273
Q

How do case studies contribute to discoveries?

A

Open the way for discoveries based on other methodologies

They can lead to insights that inform or enhance other research methods.

274
Q

What opportunity do case studies provide researchers?

A

Opportunity to develop new techniques

Case studies can inspire novel approaches to research and problem-solving.

275
Q

Give an example of a case study that illustrates a unique phenomenon.

A

The wild boy of Aveyrone

This case involved a boy who lived in the woods, walked on all fours, and had very little language.

276
Q

What is a key strength of case studies?

A

Provide the chance to study very rare phenomena

Case studies allow for in-depth exploration of unique or infrequent occurrences that may not be observable in larger studies.

277
Q

What type of occurrences can only be examined through intensive study?

A

Infrequent occurrences

Intensive study methods, such as case studies, are essential for understanding events that happen rarely.

278
Q

What is a strength of case studies compared to group design?

A

An individual is more than can be represented by the collection of average values on various dimensions.

279
Q

What do case studies reveal that group approaches may miss?

A

Various nuances and subtleties of behavior.

280
Q

Case studies are often naturally occurring and provide insight into situations that we could not ethically explore. True or False?

A

True

281
Q

Fill in the blank: Case studies have the ability to reveal various _______ and subtleties of behavior.

A
282
Q

What is a weakness of case studies regarding cause-effect conclusions?

A

Can be difficult to draw cause-effect conclusions

Case studies often lack the ability to establish definitive causal relationships.

283
Q

How do treatment case studies differ from typical case studies?

A

Treatment case studies allow for cause and effect to be measured

This measurement is possible due to the structured nature of treatment interventions.

284
Q

What is a potential issue with illness progression in case studies?

A

Illnesses can subside spontaneously

This can complicate the interpretation of treatment effectiveness.

285
Q

What challenge does the patient-researcher relationship pose in case studies?

A

May be difficult to maintain distant relationship

A close relationship can introduce bias and affect the study’s objectivity.

286
Q

What is a concern regarding external validity in case studies?

A

Can findings from one individual be generalised?

This raises questions about the applicability of the results to broader populations.

287
Q

What are some weaknesses of case studies?

A

Biases, Interpretation, Data collection, Researcher may cherry pick from observations/measurements, Lack of generalisation, Time consuming and costly

Each of these weaknesses can impact the validity and reliability of case study research.

288
Q

Fill in the blank: One weakness of case studies is _______.

A

Biases

289
Q

True or False: Case studies can provide results that generalize to a wider population.

A

False

Case studies often lack generalizability due to their focus on specific instances.

290
Q

What is a potential issue with data collection in case studies?

A

Researcher may cherry pick from observations/measurements

This can lead to selective reporting and bias in findings.

291
Q

Fill in the blank: Case studies may be _______ and _______ depending on the case.

A

Time consuming, costly

292
Q

Why might results from case studies not generalize to the wider population?

A

Results may be found in similar case studies but may not generalise to wider population

The specific context of a case study limits the applicability of its findings.

293
Q

What does ‘Group Designs’ refer to in research?

A

Average performance of a group/groups

Group Designs often involve comparing different populations or conditions to understand their performance metrics.

294
Q

Give an example of a study that would use Group Designs.

A

Memory performance across different age groups

This example illustrates how researchers might assess cognitive abilities in various age demographics.

295
Q

What is the purpose of comparing average performance between groups?

A

To identify differences in performance metrics

This comparison helps in understanding how different groups may respond to certain stimuli or interventions.

296
Q

What does considering group variability entail?

A

How much people differ between each other

Variability is crucial for understanding the range of responses within a group.

297
Q

What is the importance of seeking statistical significance in Group Designs?

A

To determine if observed differences are meaningful

Statistical significance helps in validating the findings and ensuring they are not due to chance.

298
Q

What is the primary characteristic of group design?

A

Analysis using evidence from several sources of evidence or individuals.

299
Q

True or False: Group design is precise about every characteristic of participants.

A

False

300
Q

What is required for the homogeneity of participants in group design?

A

Objective measurements.

301
Q

How can group design be conducted?

A

In an unambiguous fashion without subjectivity.

302
Q

What are the methods through which data can be obtained in group design?

A
  • Naturalistic observation
  • Psychometric tests
  • Experimental measurements
303
Q

What are objective inclusion criteria?

A

Criteria that can be decided based on the research focus/aims

Objective inclusion criteria help in defining the specific participants that will be included in a study.

304
Q

What is a strength of group designs?

A

They provide information about a common group quality

This allows researchers to generalize findings across a population.

305
Q

How do group designs aid in understanding participant characteristics?

A

They are useful for studying interactions between conditions and participant characteristics

This helps in identifying how different factors influence outcomes.

306
Q

What is the benefit of studying cases where a characteristic moderates an effect?

A

It allows researchers to explore specific interactions in depth

This can lead to more tailored interventions or understandings.

307
Q

What advantage do group designs have regarding results?

A

Results can be replicated and generalized

This is crucial for validating research findings.

308
Q

What is meant by higher statistical power in group designs?

A

It refers to the increased ability to detect true effects

Higher statistical power reduces the likelihood of Type II errors.

309
Q

Fill in the blank: Group designs can provide information about a _______ group quality.

A

common

This highlights the focus on shared characteristics within the study group.

310
Q

True or False: Group designs are not useful for studying interactions between conditions and participant characteristics.

A

False

Group designs are specifically useful for this purpose.

311
Q

What are the specific aims of group designs?

A

They can be specific to research focus/aims

This specificity enhances the relevance and applicability of the research.

312
Q

What is one detailed aspect that group designs help to understand?

A

A particular aspect in detail

This allows for in-depth analysis of specific variables.

313
Q

What is a weakness of group designs?

A

Surface level investigation of phenomena

Group designs may not delve deeply into the complexities of the phenomena being studied.

314
Q

What individual aspect is often overlooked in group designs?

A

Individual differences

Group designs typically focus on averages and may ignore variations among individuals.

315
Q

What method do group designs primarily use to analyze data?

A

Compares means across groups

This approach summarizes data by calculating the average for each group, potentially obscuring important individual data.

316
Q

What limitation does group design have regarding individual variability?

A

Does not consider individual variability

Individual responses can vary widely, and group designs may not capture this important aspect.

317
Q

What is a logistical drawback of group designs for large projects?

A

Time-consuming and costly

Implementing group designs can require significant resources in terms of time and money, especially for large studies.

318
Q

What is evidence?

A

Evidence is any information that helps us answer our question.

319
Q

List some sources of evidence.

A
  • Published Research
  • Books
  • Research Data
  • Experimental Data
  • Observations
  • Interview transcripts
320
Q

True or False: Evidence can only come from published research.

A

False

321
Q

What must we determine when multiple sources of evidence contradict each other?

A

Which evidence we should rely on.

322
Q

What are journals used for in the context of research?

A

Journals are where people publish current research findings

Journals serve as platforms for disseminating new knowledge and findings in various fields.

323
Q

What types of topics can journals target?

A

Journals can target a broad range of topics

This includes multi-disciplinary approaches, specific methodologies, and subject-specific areas.

324
Q

What is an example of a multi-disciplinary journal?

A

‘Nature’

‘Nature’ is renowned for covering a wide array of scientific disciplines.

325
Q

Give an example of a journal that targets a specific methodology.

A

‘The British Journal of Mathematical and Statistical Psychology’

This journal focuses on methodologies related to mathematical and statistical approaches in psychology.

326
Q

Name a journal that focuses specifically on neuroscience.

A

‘Neuroscience’

This journal publishes research specifically related to the field of neuroscience.

327
Q

What are examples of subject-specific journals?

A
  • ‘Memory’
  • ‘Personality and Individual Differences’

These journals focus on specialized topics within psychology.

328
Q

What type of articles are considered high-quality evidence?

A

Peer reviewed journal articles

Peer reviewed articles are evaluated by experts in the field before publication, ensuring a level of quality and reliability.

329
Q

True or False: No experiment is ever perfect.

A

True

All experiments have limitations and potential flaws, which can affect the interpretation of results.

330
Q

What should we maintain when reviewing published evidence?

A

A critical eye

Critical evaluation involves questioning the validity and reliability of the evidence presented.

331
Q

As you progress through your studies, what becomes easier regarding evidence evaluation?

A

Gaining knowledge about research methods and the discipline

Increased familiarity with research methodologies helps in critically assessing the quality of evidence.

332
Q

Fill in the blank: Published evidence can contain _______.

A

flaws

Flaws may arise from methodological issues, biases, or misinterpretations.

333
Q

Why should we view peer-reviewed articles with caution?

A

They can be flawed or interpreted in other ways

Different researchers may have varying interpretations of the same data, leading to different conclusions.

334
Q

What are the advantages of using books as a source of literature?

A

Books can undergo peer review and provide in-depth coverage of topics

However, books can quickly become outdated.

335
Q

What are the limitations of relying solely on books?

A

Books can quickly be out of date

This emphasizes the need for current information.

336
Q

Why are webpages considered less reputable sources of evidence?

A

Webpages are not peer reviewed and can be contributed to by anyone

Especially sites like Wikipedia.

337
Q

What type of literature should be better avoided as sources of evidence?

A

Webpages, particularly non-e-journals

They lack peer review and reliability.

338
Q

What are conference proceedings and their referencing challenges?

A

Conference proceedings are harder to reference and may contain published abstracts

They can provide valuable insights but lack comprehensive citation.

339
Q

What was the dominant psychological theory around the early to mid 20th Century?

A

Behaviourism

Behaviourism focused on observable behaviors and the ways they can be conditioned.

340
Q

What evidence supports the idea that behavior can be manipulated?

A

Conditioning

Conditioning refers to the processes of classical and operant conditioning that modify behavior.

341
Q

Who proposed the concept of Preparedness in relation to behaviorism?

A

Seligman (1970)

Seligman’s concept of Preparedness suggests that evolution influences how easily animals can learn certain behaviors.

342
Q

What does Preparedness imply about learning in animals?

A

Animals are predisposed to learn some things more easily than others

This means that certain types of learning are more natural or instinctive for different species.

343
Q

What significant aspect did behaviourism ignore?

A

Mental processes

This oversight led to the development of new theories that included cognitive processes.

344
Q

Despite falling from favor, what continued to be relevant in society?

A

Evidence from behaviourism

Examples of behaviorism’s relevance include its applications in areas like education and therapy.

345
Q

Name two areas where behaviorism is still prevalent today.

A
  • Potty Training
  • Gambling

These areas utilize principles of conditioning to influence behavior.

346
Q

True or False: Behaviourism is no longer relevant in modern psychology.

A

False

Although its prominence has diminished, its principles still influence various fields.

347
Q

What is the perception of how science advances?

A

Science jumps forward in significant leaps

This perception is illustrated by historical figures like Copernicus and Einstein.

348
Q

Which model of science is aligned with the idea of paradigm shifts?

A

Kuhn’s model of Science

Kuhn’s model emphasizes that scientific advancement often involves major shifts in understanding.

349
Q

Is the leap forward perception of science commonly accurate?

A

No, it is a popular perception but not commonly the case

The advancement of science is often gradual rather than through sudden leaps.

350
Q

What role do experiments play in scientific conclusions?

A

Experiments rarely completely decide an issue

They often leave other explanations open for consideration.

351
Q

How do scientists typically support conclusions?

A

By considering evidence from multiple studies

Each study may have its own flaws, but collectively they can support a conclusion.

352
Q

Fill in the blank: Scientific advancement is often perceived as __________.

A

[leaps forward]

This perception contrasts with the reality of gradual synthesis in scientific understanding.

353
Q

What is a key characteristic of scientific experiments?

A

They have flaws but contribute to collective evidence

This characteristic emphasizes the importance of evaluating multiple studies.

354
Q

What does gradual synthesis refer to in research?

A

Exploring a phenomenon in multiple different ways to see the bigger picture

This approach is emphasized over direct replications.

355
Q

According to Anderson and Anderson (1996), what indicates a robust effect?

A

A conceptual hypothesis surviving many potential falsifications based on different sets of assumptions

This highlights the importance of diverse methodological approaches.

356
Q

True or False: Direct replications are considered very informative.

A

False

The text suggests that direct replications do not provide significant insights.

357
Q

Fill in the blank: When a conceptual hypothesis survives many potential falsifications, we have a _______.

A

robust effect

This is a key conclusion drawn from the research approach discussed.

358
Q

What is the implication of using different methods in research?

A

Different methods are likely to involve different assumptions

This variation can lead to a more comprehensive understanding of the phenomenon.

359
Q

What is the importance of converging evidence?

A

It supports the notion of falsification, encourages psychology to be more scientific, and means we wait for further evidence before making sensational/misleading claims.

Converging evidence refers to multiple lines of evidence that lead to the same conclusion, strengthening the validity of the findings.

360
Q

How does converging evidence relate to the scientific method?

A

It encourages psychology to be more scientific.

This relates to the need for rigorous testing and verification of theories through empirical evidence.

361
Q

True or False: Converging evidence allows for immediate claims without further evidence.

A

False.

The principle emphasizes waiting for further evidence before making claims.

362
Q

Fill in the blank: The use of converging evidence supports the notion of _______.

A

[falsification].

Falsification is the process of proving a hypothesis false, which is a cornerstone of the scientific method.

363
Q

What is a core principle of scientific progress?

A

Reproducibility

Open Science Collaboration (2015, p. аac4716-1)

364
Q

On what basis should claims in science be considered strong?

A

On their merit

Claims should not be judged solely by their pedigree.

365
Q

What should science be to allow for debate among scientists?

A

Transparent

Transparency is essential for evaluating theories.

366
Q

What are the three types of issues that can be debated in scientific discussions?

A
  • Methodological issues
  • Theoretical issues
  • New data

These discussions hinge on the reproducibility of findings.

367
Q

True or False: If findings are not reproducible, discussions based on them are questionable.

A

True

The validity of scientific discussions relies on reproducibility.

368
Q

What is direct replication?

A

The attempt to recreate the conditions in which a previous finding was observed.

369
Q

How do we achieve direct replication in psychology?

A

Through our methods sections.

370
Q

What is provided in the methods section to allow replication?

A

Everything we feel is necessary to allow replication.

371
Q

What does allowing replication enable a researcher to do?

A

Consider if the methodology is suitable to answer the research question.

372
Q

What is the primary aim of direct replication?

A

To allow replication.

373
Q

What does replication in research indicate?

A

It means there is support for these studies

Replication enhances the reliability of findings.

374
Q

True or False: Replication guarantees that the theoretical interpretation is correct.

A

False

Replication does not confirm the correctness of theoretical interpretations.

375
Q

What does a successful replication imply about the findings?

A

The finding has greater reliability

Reliability is crucial for validating research conclusions.

376
Q

Fill in the blank: Replication does not mean that the replicated effects are _______.

A

true

This highlights the distinction between replication and absolute truth in findings.

377
Q

Would we expect all findings in Psychology to replicate?

A

It is difficult to say

The variability in psychological research makes replication uncertain.

378
Q

What does replication in research indicate?

A

It means there is support for these studies

Replication enhances the reliability of findings.

379
Q

True or False: Replication guarantees that the theoretical interpretation is correct.

A

False

Replication does not confirm the correctness of theoretical interpretations.

380
Q

What does a successful replication imply about the findings?

A

The finding has greater reliability

Reliability is crucial for validating research conclusions.

381
Q

Fill in the blank: Replication does not mean that the replicated effects are _______.

A

true

This highlights the distinction between replication and absolute truth in findings.

382
Q

Would we expect all findings in Psychology to replicate?

A

It is difficult to say

The variability in psychological research makes replication uncertain.

383
Q

What is a common misconception regarding failure to replicate studies?

A

It is too easy to say that failure to replicate is a result of a false positive

This highlights the complexity of replication issues.

384
Q

What are some reasons that can lead to failed replications?

A

Methodological differences

Variations in how studies are conducted can impact replication outcomes.

385
Q

What specific criterion did OSC (2015) use for replication studies?

A

Only replicated studies where they could get the original materials

This emphasizes the importance of access to original research materials.

386
Q

What small factors could affect replication outcomes?

A
  • Sample
  • Setting
  • Small changes in procedure

These factors may seem minor but can significantly influence study results.

387
Q

True or False: Differences in replication rates between Social and Cognitive fields can be explained by methodological factors.

A

True

Methodological differences may contribute to varying replication rates.

388
Q

What type of research is primarily explored in the discussed replications?

A

Experiments

The replications mainly focus on experimental data collection.

389
Q

Do psychologists only collect data via experiments?

A

No

Psychologists also collect data using qualitative measures.

390
Q

Would we expect qualitative work to replicate?

A

We would hope for similar themes

Repeating interviews in similar circumstances could yield similar themes.

391
Q

Is an exact replication of qualitative research likely?

A

Unlikely

Exact replications in qualitative work are not typically achievable.

392
Q

What implication does the replication of qualitative work have for psychology?

A

It suggests variability in qualitative results

The variability highlights challenges in achieving consistent findings in qualitative research.

393
Q

What are the replication rates in psychology?

A

Lower than we would like.

394
Q

What is encouraged for future research in psychology?

A

Researchers are encouraged to extend, not simply replicate.

395
Q

What does a low replication rate indicate about future studies?

A

We have a potentially rocky foundation when planning future studies.

396
Q

What should researchers consider if an extension of a study doesn’t work?

A

It may indicate that the original finding is inaccurate.

397
Q

What limits the planning of studies in psychology?

A

We can only plan studies based on the literature that is available to us (published).

398
Q

Fill in the blank: Researchers are encouraged to ______, not simply replicate.

A

[extend]

399
Q

True or False: Publication bias can affect the studies planned by researchers.

A

True

400
Q

What are the implications of only publishing statistically significant effects?

A

Researchers may unknowingly attempt to replicate studies that have been shown to have no effect.

This leads to a gap in the scientific literature where strong studies are omitted.

401
Q

What is the nature of science according to the content?

A

Science is a process, not just finding something significant.

This emphasizes the ongoing exploration and validation in scientific research.

402
Q

What ethical questions arise from publication bias?

A

We are potentially asking participants to devote time to studies which have already failed to produce significant effects.

This raises concerns about the informed consent and resource allocation in research.

403
Q

What issue arises from relying on prior significant work for future studies?

A

All future work is supported using prior work that was significant (even if we cannot replicate half of them).

This can perpetuate flawed research directions and mislead future studies.

404
Q

True or False: A series of strong scientific studies are often included in the scientific literature.

A

False.

Strong studies may be omitted if they do not produce statistically significant results.

405
Q

What is the purpose of pre-registration in research?

A

To register hypotheses and methodologies prior to data collection

This separates the hypothesis-generation and hypothesis-testing processes.

406
Q

How does pre-registration help prevent data mining?

A

By separating the hypothesis-generation and hypothesis-testing processes

This ensures that researchers do not manipulate data to find supportive results.

407
Q

What is the Open Science Framework?

A

A platform that supports transparency in research practices

It facilitates pre-registration and sharing of research findings.

408
Q

What type of publication focuses on negative or null results?

A

The Journal of Negative and Null Results

This journal aims to publish findings that may not typically be reported.

409
Q

What is one of the statistical techniques mentioned for supporting null findings?

A

Other statistical techniques that allow support for null findings

These techniques help validate studies with non-significant results.

410
Q

True or False: Pre-registration occurs after data collection.

A

False

Pre-registration happens before collecting data.

411
Q

Fill in the blank: The move towards publishing some findings includes a memory special issue that is in _______.

A

prep

This indicates ongoing efforts to document and publish various research results.

412
Q

What are important issues in research that impact future works?

A

Replication and publication bias

These biases affect the reliability of published research, which is heavily relied upon for guiding future studies.

413
Q

What is suggested for the discipline regarding the availability of research?

A

Move towards a model where good work is made available irrespective of statistical significance

This suggests that valuable research should be shared regardless of whether it meets conventional standards of statistical significance.

414
Q

Does statistical significance make work theoretically interesting?

A

No

Statistical significance alone does not determine the theoretical interest or contribution of research.

415
Q

What movement is occurring in the scientific community to improve research practices?

A

‘Open science’

Open science involves researchers sharing a priori predictions, methods, and data to enhance transparency and dissemination.

416
Q

Fill in the blank: The reliance on published works to guide future works highlights the importance of _______.

A

replication and publication bias

417
Q

True or False: All published research is considered theoretically interesting.

A

False

Theoretical interest is not guaranteed by statistical significance.

418
Q

What is a key practice in the ‘open science’ movement?

A

Making predictions, methods, and data available

This practice aims to improve the accuracy and dissemination of research findings.

419
Q

What is Social Psychology?

A

The scientific study of how individuals’ thoughts, feelings, and behaviour are shaped by the presence of others.

420
Q

What does the Milgram (1963) study illustrate?

A

The power of obedience to encourage dangerous behaviours.

421
Q

What is the Bystander Effect?

A

The presence of bystanders affects the likelihood of helping someone.

422
Q

What types of experiments are utilized in Social Psychology methodology?

A

Experiments can involve both lab and field experiments.

423
Q

Fill in the blank: Social Psychology is the scientific study of how individuals’ thoughts, feelings, and behaviour are shaped by the presence of _______.

A

others

424
Q

True or False: The Bystander Effect suggests that people are more likely to help others in the presence of bystanders.

A

False

425
Q

What is the definition of personality and individual differences?

A

The scientific study of the enduring or relatively stable aspects of an individual and their impact on a person’s thoughts, feelings and behaviour.

426
Q

List the Big 5 personality traits.

A
  • Conscientiousness
  • Neuroticism
  • Agreeableness
  • Extraversion
  • Openness
427
Q

What is cognitive psychology?

A

The scientific study of mental processes e.g. memory, language, perception etc.

428
Q

What was the focus of the cognitive experiment conducted by Lofus and Palmer in 1974?

A

The effect of different wording on remembering a car crash.

429
Q

What methodology is often used in cognitive psychology to collect data?

A

Experiments and computational models.

430
Q

True or False: Cognitive psychology only studies memory.

A

False

431
Q

Fill in the blank: Cognitive psychology investigates mental processes such as _______.

A

memory, language, perception

432
Q

What is Developmental Psychology?

A

The scientific study of how individuals change and grow across the lifespan.

This includes investigating social, emotional, and cognitive development.

433
Q

What methodologies are commonly employed in Developmental Psychology?

A

Similar to other psychological approaches, with particular use of observational methods when working with children.

Observational methods are crucial for studying behaviors in natural settings.

434
Q

What is the Language 0-5 study?

A

A study that has followed the language development of 80 English-learning children from 6 months to 4.6 years.

This longitudinal study provides insights into early language acquisition.

435
Q

Fill in the blank: Developmental Psychology investigates _______ development.

A

social, emotional, and cognitive

436
Q

True or False: Developmental Psychology only focuses on cognitive development.

A

False

It also includes social and emotional development.

437
Q

What age range does the Language 0-5 study cover?

A

6 months to 4.6 years.

438
Q

What type of methods are particularly used in Developmental Psychology when studying children?

A

Observational methods.

439
Q

What type of data has been collected in the study of language development?

A

Detailed longitudinal corpus of naturalistic, experimental, questionnaire, and standardised measures of cognitive, socio-cognitive, and linguistic development

This includes various methods to assess children’s language development over time.

440
Q

Which factors predict how quickly children are likely to learn words?

A
  • Gender
  • Speed of language processing at 19 months
  • Verbal working memory at 25 and 31 months
  • Executive function ability at age 3 years

These factors have been identified as significant predictors in the study of language acquisition.

441
Q

At what age do individual differences in vocabulary comprehension emerge?

A

8 months of age

This indicates that variations in language comprehension can be observed very early in development.

442
Q

What is a strong predictor of later vocabulary growth in children?

A

Vocabulary size at 8 months

The number of words a child knows at this age is closely linked to their vocabulary growth between 9 and 18 months.

443
Q

Fill in the blank: Individual differences in language processing can be observed from _______.

A

8 months of age

444
Q

True or False: Gender is not a predictor of how quickly children learn words.

A

False

Gender has been identified as one of the factors influencing word learning speed.

445
Q

What age is associated with assessing verbal working memory in the context of word learning?

A

25 and 31 months

Verbal working memory assessments are critical in understanding language acquisition.

446
Q

What cognitive ability is linked to language learning at age 3 years?

A

Executive function ability

This ability is important for managing cognitive processes that facilitate language acquisition.

447
Q

What is the relationship between vocabulary size at 8 months and vocabulary growth?

A

Vocabulary size at 8 months is a strong predictor of vocabulary growth between 9 and 18 months

This highlights the importance of early vocabulary knowledge.

448
Q

What is Biological Psychology?

A

The scientific study of biological, physiological or genetic mechanisms of psychological processes and behaviour.

Biological psychology examines how physical aspects within the body and brain affect thoughts and behaviours.

449
Q

What aspects does Biological Psychology concern itself with?

A

Physical aspects within the body and brain, including:
* neurotransmitters
* hormones
* genetics

These elements are critical in understanding their effects on thoughts and behaviours.

450
Q

What is cyberpsychology?

A

The study of the impact of computers, technology, and virtual environments on the psychology of individuals and groups.

451
Q

What aspects does the study of cyberpsychology involve?

A

All aspects of human behavior and thought.

452
Q

What perspectives are taken in cyberpsychology?

A

Similar to real life, including biological impact, social influences, and effects on cognition.

453
Q

How does cyberpsychology investigate psychological processes?

A

In the context of technology and computers.

454
Q

True or False: Cyberpsychology only focuses on negative impacts of technology.

A

False

455
Q

What is social computing?

A

Social computing looks at how your beliefs can be altered by others.

456
Q

How can social pressure influence behavior?

A

Social pressure can lead individuals to conform to the opinions or actions of others.

457
Q

What role do similar interests play in social influence?

A

Similar interests can create connections, as seen in recommendations like ‘people who bought this also bought…’

458
Q

Define conformity in the context of social psychology.

A

Conformity is the act of matching attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors to group norms.

459
Q

What is attribution in social psychology?

A

Attribution is the process of explaining the causes of behavior and events.

460
Q

What factors contribute to attitude and belief formation?

A

Factors include personal experiences, social influences, and cultural contexts.

461
Q

What is interpersonal communication?

A

Interpersonal communication is the exchange of information between individuals.

462
Q

What is altruistic behavior?

A

Altruistic behavior refers to selfless concern for the well-being of others.

463
Q

What is aggression in the context of social psychology?

A

Aggression is behavior intended to harm another individual.

464
Q

What is bullying?

A

Bullying is repeated aggressive behavior intended to intimidate or harm another person.

465
Q

What are group processes?

A

Group processes refer to the ways in which individuals interact and function within a group.

466
Q

What is synchronicity in cyberspace?

A

A factor due to synchronous versus asynchronous forms of communication.

Synchronous communication occurs in real-time, while asynchronous communication does not require participants to be engaged simultaneously.

467
Q

What are boundaries in the context of cyberspace?

A

Factors due to distance across geographic, ethnic, and social boundaries.

These boundaries can affect communication and interaction in digital environments.

468
Q

What are the changes in information in cyberspace?

A

Changes in the amount, type, and control of information due to:
* Partial information
* Selective exposure to information
* Biased information

These factors can influence how information is perceived and disseminated in digital communication.

469
Q

What did Gabrielle, Sonne, and Indolo (2024) investigate?

A

The link between social media use and mental health

This study reviewed 45 different studies on the topic.

470
Q

What associations were found between increased social media use and mental health?

A

Increased depressive symptoms, anxiety, and loneliness

The associations were small but significant.

471
Q

What was the relationship between social media use and self-esteem?

A

A significant negative association was found

Increased social media use correlated with lower self-esteem.

472
Q

True or False: The relationship between social media and mental health is straightforward.

A

False

The relationship is nuanced and complex.

473
Q

What are some factors that complicate the relationship between social media and mental health?

A

Response bias, methodological weakness, and protective factors

These factors can influence the outcomes and interpretations of studies.

474
Q

Which brain region is important for cognitive processes including decision-making, attention, and impulse control?

A

Prefrontal cortex

The prefrontal cortex is crucial in regulating behaviors related to moral and social development.

475
Q

What do lesion studies suggest about prefrontal lesions?

A

They can disrupt moral and social development

This finding is supported by research conducted by Taber-Thomas et al. (2014).

476
Q

Which brain region is implicated in emotional processes?

A

Amygdala

The amygdala plays a significant role in processing emotions.

477
Q

How are psychopathy scores related to amygdala reactivity?

A

Negative relationship

This indicates that higher psychopathy scores are associated with lower amygdala reactivity, as found by Hyde et al. (2014).

478
Q

How are antisocial personality disorder scores related to amygdala reactivity?

A

Positively associated

This suggests that higher scores in antisocial personality disorder correlate with greater amygdala reactivity.

479
Q

Which brain region is implicated in reward and emotional processing?

A

Striatum

The striatum is involved in how we process rewards and emotions.

480
Q

What differences have been found in striatal volume and reactivity between violent offenders and non-offenders?

A

Increased striatal volume and reactivity to provocations in violent offenders

This finding is supported by studies conducted by Schiffer et al. (2011) and da Cunha-Bang et al. (2017).

481
Q

What was the primary focus of the study comparing violent offenders with healthy controls?

A

The study focused on enhanced connectivity between amygdala-PFC and striatum-PFC in violent criminals after provocation compared to healthy controls.

482
Q

What specific brain regions showed enhanced connectivity in violent criminals?

A

The amygdala and prefrontal cortex (PFC), and the striatum and prefrontal cortex (PFC).

483
Q

True or False: The study found reduced connectivity between amygdala-PFC in violent offenders.

A

False

484
Q

Fill in the blank: The study found enhanced connectivity between _______ in violent criminals after provocation.

A

amygdala-PFC and striatum-PFC

485
Q

What type of offenders were compared to healthy controls in the study?

A

Violent offenders

486
Q

What was the outcome of the connectivity analysis in violent criminals?

A

Enhanced connectivity after provocation.

487
Q

What is the natural world described as?

A

Very complex place

488
Q

What varies among different people and environments?

A

A wide range of factors

489
Q

What are some problems with waiting for a behaviour/event to occur naturally?

A

We never know when an event will occur, Some events are really low frequency, Uncertainty about the variable causing the event

490
Q

Why do we seek to isolate a variable?

A

To manipulate it and advance our understanding

491
Q

Fill in the blank: We never know when an event will occur, and some events are really _______.

A

low frequency

492
Q

True or False: Waiting for events to occur naturally is always reliable.

A

False

493
Q

What are the basic foundations of scientific thinking according to Schacter (2014)?

A

Comparison and Control

These are essential for gaining understanding and testing theories.

494
Q

Why is comparison important in scientific thinking?

A

To gain further understanding of conditions in the world

It helps avoid isolated instances that lack broader context.

495
Q

What is the purpose of control in scientific environments?

A

To limit the effects of differences in environments

This allows for the rejection of inaccurate theories and supports valid ones.

496
Q

True or False: Isolated instances in scientific research can provide comprehensive understanding.

A

False

Comparison is necessary to draw meaningful conclusions.

497
Q

Fill in the blank: The two foundations of scientific thinking are _______ and _______.

A

Comparison and Control

498
Q

Why is control important in psychology experiments?

A

It allows us to explore single variables in our world

Control is essential for isolating the effects of specific variables.

499
Q

What is a consequence of lacking relevant control in experiments?

A

We would never be able to determine what is driving an effect

Without control, the relationship between variables cannot be accurately assessed.

500
Q

What does control help us determine in experiments?

A

Causation

Establishing causation is crucial for understanding the cause-and-effect relationships.

501
Q

What type of questions can control help us address?

A

Questions that we cannot access in the real world

Experimental control allows for the investigation of scenarios that may not be ethically or practically feasible in real life.

502
Q

What example is given to illustrate the necessity of control in experiments?

A

Harlow’s experiment

Harlow’s work with rhesus monkeys could not be replicated in real-world situations due to ethical considerations.

503
Q

Can we be too controlling in scientific research?

A

True

While control is necessary, excessive control may limit the applicability of findings to real-world scenarios.

504
Q

Why is control important in psychology experiments?

A

It allows us to explore single variables in our world

Control is essential for isolating the effects of specific variables.

505
Q

What is a consequence of lacking relevant control in experiments?

A

We would never be able to determine what is driving an effect

Without control, the relationship between variables cannot be accurately assessed.

506
Q

What does control help us determine in experiments?

A

Causation

Establishing causation is crucial for understanding the cause-and-effect relationships.

507
Q

What type of questions can control help us address?

A

Questions that we cannot access in the real world

Experimental control allows for the investigation of scenarios that may not be ethically or practically feasible in real life.

508
Q

What example is given to illustrate the necessity of control in experiments?

A

Harlow’s experiment

Harlow’s work with rhesus monkeys could not be replicated in real-world situations due to ethical considerations.

509
Q

Can we be too controlling in scientific research?

A

True

While control is necessary, excessive control may limit the applicability of findings to real-world scenarios.

Psychology (5 decks)

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