Psychiatry A Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?

A

This requires excessive use of a substance which causes pleasure and causes a low when absent. There must be a cycle of high and low for a substance to be able to be abused.

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2
Q

How is dependency diagnosed?

A

Three of more of these:
- C: Compulsion to take the substance
- C: Impaired control of substance taking behaviour in terms of onset, termination, or levels of use
- P: Physiological withdrawal when stopped or reduced
- P: Pre-occupation with use to the exclusion of other pleasures (salience)
- T: Tolerance to effects causing increased use for same effect
- H: Persistent use despite clear harm

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3
Q

What is salience/primacy?

A

Obtaining and using the substances takes over so that other interests and pursuits are neglected.

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4
Q

What is tolerance?

A

Increased doses of the psychoactive substance are required to achieve the effects originally produced by lower doses which contributes to the escalation of use.

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5
Q

What does ‘narrowing of repertoire’ mean?

A

Loss of variation in the use of the substance. This is common in alcoholism where they get the same brand, shop and drinking bodies.

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6
Q

What is intoxication?

A

The overloading of the body with the substance causes disturbances in level of consciousness, cognition, perception, affect, and behaviour. The disturbance is directly related to the effect of the substance and resolves with time.

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7
Q

What is a withdrawal state?

A

There is clear evidence of recent cessation or reduction of use which correlates with symptoms and signs compatible with known features of withdrawal of the substance (depending on the substance). These symptoms must not be attributable to another disorder and in some will be abortable by re-instating the substance.

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8
Q

Define harmful use

A

The pattern of psychoactive substance use that is causing damage to health. There is clear evidence of physical or psychological harm and the nature of the harm should be identifiable. The pattern of use has persisted for at least one month, or has occurred repeatedly over a 12 month period.

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9
Q

Define abstinence

A

Period during which no substance is used

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10
Q

What does reinstatement mean in substance abuse?

A

Occurs after a period of abstinence, when a patient restarts the substance and rapidly increases use to previously harmful levels.

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11
Q

What does detoxification mean?

A

The process of reducing and stopping the use of an additive substance. Medical assistance may be required for some substances. Benzodiazepines are used in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.

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12
Q

What are the stages of change in substance addiction?

A

Outlined by Prochaska and DiChlemente

  1. Pre-contemplation: Person feels there is no problem though others recognise it
  2. Contemplation: Person weighs up pros & cons and considers if change is necessary
  3. Decision: Person decides whether to act or not
  4. Action: Person chooses strategy for change & pursues it
  5. Maintenance: Gains are maintained and consolidated
  6. Relapse: Return to previous pattern, but relapse may help learning
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13
Q

How should a substance misuse history be taken?

A

Remember age of starting drug, types, quantities, frequency, route of administration, overdoses, abstinence, relapse, triggers, withdrawal symptoms, medical complications, psychiatric and forensic history. The uncover the relationship of the substance of abuse to the presenting complaint such as acute intoxication, harmful use, dependence syndrome, withdrawal state, psychotic disorder, or amnesic syndrome.

Explore the physical health, psychological wellbeing, social and family relationships, and economic/employment status. Determine the level of patient motivation to change. Offer appropriate intervention.

Dual diagnosis of mental illness and comorbid substance misuse. Diagnosing mental illness becomes challenging in the face of substance misuse. Primary psychiatric illnesses often precipitate substance misuse, and the substance may worsen the psychiatric illness.

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14
Q

What are the normal and harmful levels of alcohol use?

A

Safe levels are defined as 2-3 units a day or 14 units a week.

Harmful levels for women are over 6 units a day or 35 units a week.

Harmful levels for men are more than 8 units a day and 50 units a week.

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15
Q

What are the risk factors for alcohol dependence?

A

This is more common in men and there is between 25-50% genetic predisposition. It is more common in publicans, doctors, journalists, salesmen, actors, entertainers, and seamen. Social factors which contribute to development include childhood difficulties, parental separation, and low educational achievement.

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16
Q

What are the features of alcohol intoxication?

A

Relaxation & euphoria followed by disinhibition, various emotional states (irritable, weepy, morose), impulsive, and irresponsible behaviour. There may be slurred speech, ataxia, sedation, confusion, flushed face, nystagmus, and conjunctival injection.

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17
Q

How does alcohol withdrawal present?

A

This can present with headache, nausea, retching, vomiting, sweating, insomnia, anxiety, agitation, tachycardia, hypotension, delirium tremens, and seizures.

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18
Q

What are the complications of alcohol dependence?

A

This can include hepatitis/cirrhosis, pancreatitis, oesophageal varices, gastritis, and peptic ulceration. Neurological complications can include peripheral neuropathy, seizures, or dementia. Alcohol misuse increases the risk of bowel, breast, oesophageal and liver cancer. Cardiovascular complications include HTN and cardiomyopathy.

Patients are also prone to head injuries from falls/accidents/fights and there is a risk of foetal alcohol syndrome.

Psychological complications can include worsening anxiety/depression, self-harm, increased suicide risk, amnesia/blackouts, cognitive impairment (alcohol dementia and Korsakoff’s), alcoholic hallucinations, and morbid jealousy.

Social complications include poor work performance, unemployment, domestic violence, marital & family breakdown, drink driving/assault/theft, childhood neglect and childhood abuse.

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19
Q

How is alcohol dependence managed?

A

Assess the motivation to change. Detoxification can be done with benzodiazepines and thiamine. Relapse prevention is with psychological support such as AA and medical options include acamprosate (reduces craving) or disulfiram (induces flushing if alcohol is taken).

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20
Q

What are alcohol-related emergencies?

A

Delirium Tremens occurs 48 hours after abstinence. It presents with confusion, hallucinations, illusions, agitation, sweating, tachycardia, tremor, and seizures. It should be treated with reducing benzodiazepine regime & parenteral B vitamins (Pabrinex) to avoid Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome.

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21
Q

How does Wernicke’s encephalopathy present and how is it managed?

A

This presents with the classic triad of confusion, ataxia and ophthalmoplegia. It is caused by an acute thiamine (B1) deficiency and should be treated with a course of Pabrinex (parenteral B vitamins) given as IV or IM. If untreated it will lead to Korsakoff’s psychosis which is irreversible anterograde amnesia with confabulation.

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22
Q

How are benzodiazepines abused?

A

Benzodiazepines are usually taken orally but can be injected. They produce sedation, euphoria, disinhibition, lability of mood, anterograde amnesia, unsteady gait, slurred speech, nystagmus, reduced consciousness, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal can cause delirium tremens. Treatment is to convert diazepam equivalent dose and gradually withdraw over 8+ weeks.

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23
Q

How is cocaine abused?

A

Cocaine is a stimulant which causes alertness, confidence, sense of strength, and disinhibition. It is very short acting. The ‘come down’ comes with fatigue, depression, dysphoria, paranoia, and depersonalisation. There are two forms of cocaine; powder (hydrochloride) and crack (alkaloid which is heated and inhaled through a pipe or injected with vitamin C and heroin to create a speedball).

Cocaine withdrawal presents with intense craving and there is no replacement therapy available. They can have acute psychotic episodes that may require antipsychotics & benzodiazepines for symptom control short term. There are groups available such as cocaine anonymous.

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24
Q

How is cannabis abused?

A

This produces a high, but this is generally an exaggeration of previous mood sate such as anxiety, paranoia, distortion of time, or mild hallucinogenic effect. Signs can include conjunctival injection, dry mouth, tachycardia, and respiratory tract symptoms. There is an associated with schizophrenia.

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25
Q

How is heroin abused?

A

This is an opiate derivative which is highly addictive. This is known as brown sugar, smack, or gear. If injected, it is combined with cocaine into a speedball. It can also be smoked or snorted. The high is a strong sense of relaxation and wellbeing. Withdrawal symptoms include vomiting, diarrhoea, cramps, sweats, and dysphoria. There is a big risk of overdose.

Physical effects include pin-point pupils, track marks, constipation, poor nutrition, poor dental state from reduced saliva flow, respiratory depressants, and comorbidity with blood borne viruses such as hepatitis C/B/HIV.

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26
Q

How is heroin abuse managed?

A

Management of heroin abuse is with harm reduction through needle exchanges, encourage smoking rather than injecting, and raise awareness of overdose and how to manage it, provide naloxone to those at risk. Narcotics anonymous is a useful group.

Opioid stimulation treatment (OST) can be with:
- Methadone: Full agonist which prolongs QT interval (monitor ECG 6 monthly). It is cheap and has a large evidence base.
- Buprenorphine (Subutex) is a partial agonist which is less sedating and less risk of OD
- Other options include dihydrocodeine (stop gap treatment only)

There should be a patient choice of OST and the aim is maintenance and detoxification.

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27
Q

How are amphetamines abused?

A

These are stimulants known as speed and whizz. They can be snorted, injected, or put on gums. Effects include cardiovascular strain, enlarged pupils, talkativeness, agitation, irritation, and psychosis (schizophreniform).

Ecstasy (MDMA) is sold in tablet or powder form. It causes increased energy, hyperaesthesia, increased feeling of wellbeing and love but also panic, dysphoria and depression. It has been associated with raised temperatures, dehydration, tachycardia, and DIC.

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28
Q

What is Khat?

A

Khat is a plant grown in east African regions which has to be taken fresh. It produces a simulant like effect and has been known to precipitate psychosis. It has been used to make “miaow-miaow.”

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29
Q

How is ketamine abused?

A

This is an anaesthetic agent and is commonly powder or tablet. It produces hallucinations, reduced pain sensation, drowsiness, sedation, and respiratory depression. Prolonged use can cause ketamine bladder which presents with haematuria, scarring and severe pain (removal of bladder required).

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30
Q

How is LSD abused?

A

LSD is taken as a tab on a square of paper. It produce hyperaesthesia, hallucinations, or other altered perceptions. Flashbacks can occur days/months later. It can precipitate mental illness in people with a predisposition.

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31
Q

How are novel psychoactive substances abused?

A

Known as legal highs they can come in many forms. They can be stimulants, sedatives, synthetic cannabinoids, or hallucinogens. Spice is a synthetic cannabinoid which is more potent than cannabis. It’s a class B drug which is usually smoked. Typical effects include euphoria, giggles, hunger pangs, drowsiness, and talkativeness. It is more likely to cause hallucinations that cannabis.

Some people have bad reactions such as paranoia, panic attacks, or forgetfulness and can even make users freeze.

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32
Q

What are the features and symptoms of puerperal psychosis?

A

Otherwise known as postpartum psychosis, this is a severe mental illness that begin in the days or weeks after having a baby. Symptoms can vary and change rapidly. They include mania, depression, confusion, hallucinations, and delusions. This is a psychiatric emergency as should be seen ASAP. If the family report a sudden change in personality this should be taken seriously.

For a diagnosis it must occur within the first 2 weeks after birth and symptoms will usually appears within the first few days. Very rarely it can occur after a few weeks. It occurs in 1/1000 women (0.1%). There is a genetic link for puerperal psychosis but is also associated with hormonal changes after birth and significant sleep deprivation. Women who have a past medical history of puerperal psychosis, bipolar affective disorder, or schizoaffective disorder are high risk.

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33
Q

How should puerperal psychosis be managed?

A

Puerperal psychosis responds well to prompt treatment and has a good prognosis. Preventative measures for high-risk mothers include preconception counselling, specialist support during pregnancy and a pre-birth planning care plan. Treatment is with urgent assessment and diagnosis, specialist support, transfer to a mother and baby unit, antipsychotics and mood stabilisers.

Severe symptoms response in 2-12 weeks but full recovery may take 6-12 months. Most women make a full recovery.

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34
Q

What is postnatal depression?

A

This is a depressive illness affecting 10-15 women in every 100 who have a baby. The symptoms are similar to depression at other times.

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35
Q

What are the symptoms of postnatal depression?

A

Symptoms include persistent low mood, insomnia, loss of appetite, anhedonia, loss of energy, reduced motivation, neglect of self-care, and feelings of hopelessness. There may be suicidal ideation or thoughts to harm the baby. Psychotic symptoms may be seen in severe cases. Onset is anywhere in the first year of the babies life but some (1/3) experience depression while pregnant and should be treated on initial presentation.

Over 50% of new mothers will experience ‘baby blues’ within 3-4 days but these usually settle after 10 days. This settling means it is not PND. There is no known cause but there are associations with depression/anxiety during pregnancy, previous mental illness, poor support, a recent emotional or psychological trauma, domestic violence, previous abuse, and refugees. Always rule out anaemia and hypothyroidism as these can cause depression.

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36
Q

How is postnatal depression managed?

A

Management is with support, severe cases may need referral, self-help, talking therapies and medications (antidepressants or antipsychotics).

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37
Q

How are anxiety disorders classified?

A
  1. Anxiety disorders: Phobic disorders (agoraphobia – with or without panic disorder, specific phobia, or social phobia)
  2. Non-situational disorders: Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder
  3. Reaction to stress: Acute stress reaction, PTSD, and adjustment disorder
  4. OCD
  5. Secondary to other psychiatric disorders (depression, psychosis, neurodevelopmental disorder or personality disorders)
  6. Secondary to a general medical condition (organic anxiety disorder)
  7. Secondary to psychoactive substance use, especially alcohol use
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38
Q

What is pathological anxiety?

A

This is not always pathological as it avoids harm in fearful situations. When anxiety becomes excessive it can be pathological as it impacts the level of function. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law the relationship between performance and anxiety has an inverted U shape. Mild to moderate levels of anxiety results in improved performance but high anxiety impairs performance.

Clinical Features: There are two inter-related components:
1. Thought of being apprehensive
2. Awareness of a physical reaction to anxiety (autonomic or peripheral anxiety)

Physical signs of anxiety can include tachycardia, palpitations, high BP, SOB, chest discomfort, dry mouth, sweating, cold skin, muscle tension, dizziness, choking sensation, and nausea/vomiting.

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39
Q

How is pathological anxiety subcategorized?

A

Pathological anxiety can be defined by pattern as either generalised or paroxysmal.

Generalised: Does not occur in discrete episodes and tends to last for hours-days or even longer. It is not associated with any specific external threat or situation (free floating).

Paroxysmal: This has an abrupt onset and occurs in discrete short-lived episodes. It tends to be severe and in the most severe form will present as a panic attack.

Differential diagnosis for anxiety should consider the rate of onset, severity, duration (generalised or paroxysmal), acquired or life-long, spontaneous or threat related, and are there other psychiatric conditions or medical conditions (hyperthyroidism).

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40
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

This means fear of the marketplace and is used to refer to fear of entering crowded spaces. In extreme cases it will leave patients housebound or unable to leave the house without the company of someone they know. There is a close relationship between agoraphobia and panic disorder. If they feel they cannot escape the place they may experience a panic attack. Agoraphobia can be coded in ICD-10 as with or without panic disorder.

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41
Q

What is social phobia?

A

Also known as social anxiety disorder. The patient fears being in social situations where they may be exposed to scrutiny by others that would lead to humiliation or embarrassment. This may be limited to an isolated fear (public speaking or interaction with opposite sex) or may involve all social situations outside the patient’s own home. It often starts in adolescence and can dictate the choice of employment (night shifts and isolated jobs).

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42
Q

What are specific phobias?

A

Also known as simple phobias, these are restricted to a clearly specific and discernible object or situation. Examples include situational (public transport, flying, driving, tunnels, bridges, or elevators), natural environment (heights, storms, water, or darkness), blood-injection-injury, animals or insects (spiders or dogs) and others (choking, vomiting, or contracting an illness (HIV)).

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43
Q

What are non-situational anxiety disorders?

A

Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder

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44
Q

What is generalised anxiety disorder?

A

This is a long-standing free-floating anxiety. The patient may describe excessive worry about minor things and should be apprehensive on most days for about six months. There is usually a mild to moderate severity and three key elements are:

  1. Apprehension
  2. Motor tension (restlessness, fidgeting, tension headaches, or inability to relax)
  3. Autonomic overactivity
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45
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

Characterised by the presence of panic attacks that occur spontaneously and unpredictably and that are not restricted to any particular situation or objective danger. The patient typically exhibits anticipatory anxiety (fear of further panic attacks) but between panic attacks the patient is relatively free of anxiety symptoms. There may be a fear of impending doom and can co-exist with agoraphobia.

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46
Q

What anxiety disorders are known as reactions to stress?

A

Acute stress reaction, PTSD, and adjustment disorder

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47
Q

What is acute stress reaction?

A

Symptoms develop immediately after, or within minutes of, a traumatic stressor. Typically, the patient experiences an initial ‘dazed’ state, followed by possible deterioration and a narrowing of attention, with inability to process external stimuli. The patient may have amnesia of the episode and symptoms usually diminish after 24-48 hours. This is no longer considered a mental disorder as it is part of normal existence.

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48
Q

What is post-traumatic stress disorder?

A

Symptoms usually develop after one month, and within 6 months, of a traumatic stressor. This leads to significant impairment or distress. Symptoms include repetitive re-experiencing of the traumatic event (flashbacks/hallucinations/illusions and external cues resembling the stressor), avoidance behaviours, increased arousal (insomnia, anger, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle reactions and poor concentration).

The biggest risk factor is experiencing past trauma, especially childhood trauma. Complex PTSD is a series of severe trauma (repeated childhood sexual abuse) and development of persistent difficulties in regulating affect, relationships, with others, guilt, shame, and worthlessness. It is closely related to symptoms seen in EUPD.

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49
Q

What is adjustment disorder?

A

Symptoms are considered to be significant enough as to be out of proportion to the psychosocial stressor (becoming a parent or breakdown of a relationship) or cause disturbance of social or occupational functioning. Emotional or behavioural symptoms occur within three months (DSM-V) or one month (ICD-10) of the stressor.

The patient’s personality and vulnerability play an important contributing role. Symptoms usually fully resolve within six months of onset and if not, it requires a reassessment of the initial diagnosis. Symptoms are usually mood-related or anxious. It can be associated with suicidal ideation.

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50
Q

Define the obsessions in OCD?

A

Obsessions are defined as involuntary thoughts, images, or impulses which have the following characteristics:
- Recurrent and intrusive (experienced as unpleasant or distressing)
- Enter the mind against the conscious resistance
- Patient recognises them as being of their own mind

These are not excessive concerns about everyday life problems. Patient usually retains insight into recognising that the thoughts are irrational. This is Ego-dystonic (as opposed to ego-syntonic)

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51
Q

What are the compulsions in OCD?

A

Compulsions are repetitive mental operations (counting, praying, repeating a mantra silently) or physical acts (checking, handwashing, or rituals). They have the following characteristics:

  • Patient feels compelled to perform them in response to their own obsessions or irrationally defined rules
  • Performed to reduce anxiety through the belief they will prevent a “dreaded event” occurring

They are experienced as unpleasant and serve no realistically useful purpose despite their tension-relieving properties. They patient will try to resist carrying out the compulsion which will cause increased anxiety.

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52
Q

How is OCD diagnosed?

A

ICD-10 stipulated that OCD is diagnosed if obsessions or compulsions are present for at least two successive weeks and are a source of distress or interfere with the patient’s functioning. They are acknowledged to come from the patient’s own mind. Obsessions are unpleasantly repetitive and at least one thought or act is resisted unsuccessfully. Compulsive act is not in itself pleasurable excluding the relief of anxiety. OCD can be categorised as predominantly obsessive thoughts, predominantly compulsive acts or mixed.

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53
Q

What differentials should be considered for OCD?

A

Differentials for obsessional: Depressive disorder, hypochondriasis, and schizophrenia

Differentials for compulsive: Habit or impulse control disorders (pathological gambling/ trichotillomania/kleptomania)

Differentials for mixed: Eating disorder, ASD, or obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) personality disorder

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54
Q

What physical conditions can cause anxiety?

A

This should always be actively sought and ruled out. A medical condition should predate the development of the anxiety and symptoms should resolve with treatment of the medical condition. Examples include congestive cardiac failure, PE, COPD, asthma, hypoglycaemia, pheochromocytoma, Cushing’s disease, hyperthyroidism, cerebral trauma, vitamin deficiencies, and temporal lobe epilepsy. Often symptoms can arise from a combination of a general medical condition and anxiety as each predispose to the other.

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55
Q

How can anxiety be related to psychoactive drug use?

A

This should always be actively sought and ruled out. Intoxication with alcohol, amphetamines, cannabis, cocaine, hallucinogens, ketamine, caffeine, novel psychoactive substances, phencyclidine, or inhalants can cause anxiety.

Withdrawal from substances such as alcohol, nicotine, benzodiazepines, cocaine, opiates, sedatives, and hypnotics can cause anxiety.

Anxiety can occur as a side effect from drugs such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, anticholinergics, thyroid hormones, corticosteroids, and sympathomimetics.

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56
Q

What is the epidemiology of anxiety?

A

Anxiety is the most prevalent type of mental disorder with a 1-year prevalence of 12-17%. It is typically under-diagnosed in primary care settings where 90% of cases are managed. It is often only recognised after years and only 1/3 of those with significant clinical anxiety disorders receive any kind of treatment.

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57
Q

What is the aetiology of anxiety disorders?

A

Heritability in anxiety disorders is approximately 30-50% but especially panic disorder and OCD in which 1/3 have a first degree relative with the same diagnosis. There is likely a genetic overlap with depression. OCD shares a genetic link with Tourette syndrome. The three main neurotransmitter systems implicated are GABA, serotonin, and noradrenaline.

There is a genome-wide association with calcium-dependent neural signalling in causing anxiety. Damage to the caudate nucleus can cause obsessive-compulsive symptoms. Hyper-activation of the amygdala in response to anxiety-provoking stimuli is found in PTSD, social phobias, and others. It is hypothesised that anxiety disorders likely represent abnormalities of brain regions, rather than of individual regions alone.

Social and psychological factors can include stressful life events, traumatic events (PTSD), and over-estimation of dangers which will respond to exposure response prevention (ERP).

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58
Q

What psychological treatment can be used in anxiety disorders?

A

Psychological treatment is recommended as first line treatment (especially in milder forms). CBT is the most effective for anxiety disorders. CBT is first line for specific phobias which may involve systemic desensitisation, flooding, or modelling. In panic disorder, CBT may help the patient understand how to recognise normal stimuli and thus prevent panic attacks. In PTSD, effective treatments are trauma focussed CBT and EMDR. Debriefing immediately after the trauma is not recommended.

Applied relaxation is used in generalised anxiety disorder. This focusses on being able to relax the muscles during situations in which the patient is or may be anxious. Supportive psychotherapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy and family therapy may also be helpful in the treatment of anxiety but there is less evidence. Counselling may be helpful for patients experiencing stressful life events, illness, or bereavement. Psychoeducation can also be helpful.

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59
Q

What pharmacological treatments are available for anxiety disorder?

A

SSRIs are the first-line treatment for most anxiety disorders due to proven efficacy and tolerable side-effect profile. Venlafaxine has proven efficacy in generalised anxiety disorder. In general, higher doses and longer duration is required for depression and up to 12 weeks SSRI use is required for improvement in OCD. Restlessness, jitteriness, and an initial increase in anxiety symptoms can occur in the first few days following the initiation of an SSRI. They can use a benzodiazepine for the first few days or titrate the SSRI slowly.

Benzodiazepines are highly effective in reducing anxiety and can be used short-term n PTSD or for PRN use is a social phobia or specific phobia. They are not recommended for generalised anxiety disorder, panic disorder, or OCD.

Pregabalin is licensed for use in generalised anxiety disorder (often after a trial of an SSRI).

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are generally considered only after other treatments have been tried owing to their increased frequency of adverse events. Clomipramine (the most serotonergic of the TCAs) has proven efficacy in OCD.

Propranolol can be used (regular or PRN) to reduce autonomic arousal to anxiety-provoking stimuli.

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60
Q

What are the basic activities of daily living?

A

These include walking, feeding, dressing/grooming, toileting, bathing, and transferring.

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61
Q

What should the risk assessment for a patient with dementia consider?

A

This should include behavioural concerns, wandering, getting lost, fire, financial exploitation by others, abuse from caregivers, aggression, or accidentally hurting themselves.

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62
Q

What is pseudodementia?

A

Depression causing memory problems.

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63
Q

What is dementia and how is it diagnosed?

A

Dementia is an umbrella term describing a clinical syndrome. It is an acquired global impairment of intellect, memory, and personality, but without impairment of consciousness. The impairment in intellectual function affecting more than one cognitive domain. This interferes with social or occupational function and is a decline from a previous level. This deterioration cannot be explained by delirium or major psychiatric disease.

The DSM-5 and ICD-10 definitions require impairment in two or more cognitive domains, sufficient to interfere with social or occupational functioning. Deficits which are too mild or circumscribed to fulfil this definition are called Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI).

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64
Q

What are the four cognitive domains?

A
  • Executive function (frontal, hemispheric white matter)
  • Memory (medial temporal lobes/hippocampus)
  • Language (left hemisphere)
  • Visuospatial (occipital and parietal)
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65
Q

What is mild cognitive impairment?

A

Cognitive decline abnormal for age and education but does not interfere with function and activities. They are at risk to develop degenerative dementia. When memory loss predominates it is termed amnestic MCI. There is a 10-15% per year conversion to Alzheimer’s dementia.

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66
Q

What are the causes of cortical dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s disease and frontotemporal dementias

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67
Q

What are the causes of subcortical dementia?

A

Huntington’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, Focal Thalamic & Basal Ganglia Lesions, and MS

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68
Q

What are the mixed causes of dementia?

A

Vascular dementia, Dementia with Lewy bodies, corticobasal degeneration, and neurosyphilis

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69
Q

What are the epidemiology and risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease?

A

This is the most common neurodegenerative and dementing disease. Prevalence doubles every 5 years after the age of 65 and over 50% of those older than 85.

Risk factors include age, mild cognitive impairment, ApoE4 positivity, family history in first degree relative (especially early onset), vascular risk (dementia and heart disease), low education, low physical and social activity, and being female.

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70
Q

What are the features and symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Clinical features of AD: Early symptoms include poor short-term memory and loss of orientation, there will be a smooth slow decline without dramatic short term fluctuations and other domains become involved with time.

Behavioural and psychological symptoms include depression, anxiety, irritability, hostility, apathy, delusions, hallucinations, sleep-wake changes, “sundowning”, and agitation.

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71
Q

What are the aetiology and features of Lewy body dementia?

A

This has relatively early occipital and basal ganglia degeneration and presents similarly to Parkinson’s disease. Alpha-synuclein aggregates into Lewy Bodies. Concurrent AD is common.

Clinical features include dementia (visuospatial and executive), parkinsonism, recurrent early visual hallucinations, fluctuation (recurrent delirium evaluations). Suggestive features include REM sleep disorder (dream enactment) and neuroleptic sensitivity.

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72
Q

What are the aetiology and features of Frontotemporal dementia?

A

Average age of onset is 58 and it is often familial (30-50%). There is an overlap with progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP), ALS and corticobasal degeneration. There are pathological aggregates of Tau or TDP-43.

Clinical features include behaviour and personality change (may be misdiagnosed as a psychiatric disorder), executive function, progressive non-fluent aphasia, parkinsonism, or muscle weakness.

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73
Q

What are the aetiology and features of Vascular dementia?

A

This should be suspected when there is an abrupt onset or stepwise deterioration, fluctuating course, history of stroke, focal neurological symptoms or signs, bilateral infarcts, and executive dysfunction/gait disorder/apathy/incontinence.

On imaging there may be evidence of chronic small vessel ischaemic disease involving subcortical white matter. This is non-diagnostic as it is very common with age and changes may or may not be symptomatic.

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74
Q

What are the differentials for dementia?

A

Structural brain lesion (subdural bleed), thyroid disease, vitamin B12 deficiency, untreated OSA, depression, anxiety, alcoholism, and medications (benzodiazepines, opioids, anticholinergics, neuroleptics, dopaminergic, and other sedatives).

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75
Q

How should suspected dementia be investigated?

A

Examination should include a general neurological exam, gait assessment, cognitive screen bloods, mini-mental state examination (MMSE), ACE-R (Addenbrooke’s), Mini-cog, and Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA).

Diagnostic testing:
For slowly progressive dementia in >65s: Vitamin B12, TFTs, and neuroimaging with a CT. Neuropsychology testing can help but is not mandatory. FDG-PET is approved to differentiate AD from FTD. PET has little value. Younger patients or rapid/atypical course of dementia should be assessed with a tiered approach to target a range of diagnoses emphasising treatable causes.

The head turning test: Patient turns to loved one to help answer a question is highly sensitive for dementia. Turning up to memory clinic alone usually means no dementia but not always.

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76
Q

What are the treatment options for dementia?

A

No current pharmacological treatment slows down neuronal loss in the brain. Modest symptom improvement in AD and sometimes PDD/LBD can be achieved by cholinesterase inhibitors like donepezil/rivastigmine/galantamine. Memantine has modest benefit in AD.

Non-pharmacological management is with assessment of care needs, carer support, EMI residential or nursing homes, OT assessment, and psychological interventions such as CBT/behaviour management therapy/support groups/ cognitive stimulation groups/light/massage/aromatherapy may be beneficial.

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77
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

These are used for cell-to-cell communication. Examples include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, glutamate, noradrenaline, and serotonin.

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78
Q

Describe the types of neuro-receptors

A

These excite through the opening of Na/K+ channels in response to binding to a neurotransmitter. This leads to depolarisation of the post-synaptic membrane. The binding of a neurotransmitter to an inhibitory receptor causes K+/Cl channels to open which leads to the hyperpolarisation of the post-synaptic membrane which inhibits the generation of an action potential. The same neurotransmitter can produce an excitatory response in some postsynaptic cells and an inhibitory response in others.

There are two types of receptors:
1. Ionotropic/ligand-gated: Contain two functional domains – an extracellular site that binds neurotransmitters, and a membrane-spanning domain that forms an ion channel and causes membrane potential change in <2ms.

  1. Metabotropic/G-protein coupled: These affect channels by the activation of intermediate molecules (G proteins). The response is slower but longer lasting such as seconds to minutes.
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79
Q

What is the relationship between dopamine and Parkinson’s disease?

A

D1 receptors are excitatory (D1 +D5) whereas D2 receptors are inhibitory (D2, D3 +D4). PD is characterised by bradykinesia which is due to degeneration of dopamine-secreting neurones within the substantia nigra. There is dysfunction of the nigrostriatal pathway. Dopamine receptors are GPCRs. Dopamine can be increased (LDOPA) or the breakdown of dopamine can be inhibited (MOA inhibitors/amantadine/D2 receptor agonists or COMT inhibitors).

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80
Q

What is the relationship between dopamine and schizophrenia?

A

Mesolimbic-mesocortical pathways are involved in emotions and organisation of thoughts. This is implicated in schizophrenia. D2-receptor antagonists are used in the treatment of schizophrenia (opposite to PD) such as Haloperidol.

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81
Q

What is the relationship between serotonin and depression?

A

Serotonin and 5-HT receptors are possible involved which are targeted by SSRIs. The serotonin pathways run from the raphe nuclei of the brainstem to the cortex, thalamus, limbic system, and spinal cord.

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82
Q

What is the relationship between GABA and epilepsy?

A

GABA (gamma-Aminobutyric acid) is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS and plays the principal role in reducing neuronal excitability throughout the nervous system. It is involved in inhibitory motor control in the spinal cord and the regulation of muscle tone. GABAa receptors are ligand gated and are responsible for inhibitory action in the CNS whereas GABAb receptors are GPCR and responsible for motor control in the spinal cord and regulation of muscle tone.

GABAa positive allosteric modulators include alcohol, benzodiazepines (anxiolytic and antiepileptic), and barbituates such as phenobarbital (antiepileptic).

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83
Q

What is the relationship between acetylcholine and dementia?

A

95% of CNS receptors are muscarinic GPCRs and the rest nicotinic ligand-gated. Cholinergic projection from the nucleus basalis of Meynert (in the basal forebrain) to the forebrain neocortex and associated limbic structures is involved in learning and memory and thus been implicated in AD. There is a dramatic loss of cholinergic neurons in the cortex of AD patients.

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84
Q

What is the function of Glutamate in the neurological system?

A

This is a major excitatory neurotransmitter and the most abundant neurotransmitter. There are 3 types of inotropic receptors (NMDA, AMPA, and Kainate). These are metabotropic GPCRs.

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85
Q

What is the function of Noradrenaline in the neurological system?

A

The major concentration of noradrenergic neurons is in the locus of ceruleus of the caudal pons. Fibres from the locus ceruleus form part of the reticular activating system which is responsible for behavioural arousal and levels of awareness. GPCRs include a1/a2/b1/b2/b3 where a2 is inhibitory. There is an a2 agonist clonidine which is an anxiolytic & sedative.

Acetylcholine and noradrenaline play important roles within the autonomic nervous system and acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction.

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86
Q

What are the drugs options available for anxiolytics?

A
  1. Benzodiazepines are GABAs receptor agonists. There is no enzyme induction, and they use phase 1 metabolism to form active metabolites although lorazepam/temazepam undergo direct phase 2 reactions. Clinical effects include anxiolytic, hypnotic and anticonvulsants. Adverse effects include drowsiness, dizziness, confusion, cleft lip and palate and respiratory depression in foetus, cognitive and psychomotor impairment, tolerance and cross-tolerance with alcohol, withdrawal, and discontinuation symptoms.
  2. Antidepressants are generally 5-HT reuptake blockers. SSRIs are 1st line pharmacological treatment for anxiety disorders (clomipramine in OCD).
  3. Buspirone (Azapirones) are 5-HT1a receptor partial agonists and have a short elimination half-life. It is effective in GAD but less effective for acute anxiety and social phobia. They should not be used as an augmenting agent with an SSRI in anxiety disorders. Adverse effects include dizziness, nausea and akathisia.
  4. Pregabalin: MOA is through a high affinity for voltage gated calcium channels and is eliminated via the kidney. It is effective in GAD and social phobia. It is also useful as an augmenting agent for antidepressant treated anxiety disorders. It is well tolerated but is a drug of abuse and discontinuation syndrome can occur. Deranged LFTs, vertigo, dizziness, and weight gain are also seen.
  5. Beta blockers: MOA is through blockage of beta adrenoceptors. Clinical effects include reduction in physical symptoms of anxiety, akathisia and lithium induced fine tremor. Adverse effects include bradycardia and hypotension, be wary of bronchospasm in asthma patients.
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87
Q

Describe the uses, consequences, and mechanism of action of benzodiazepines

A

These vary in their duration of action. Short acting agents such as lorazepam and temazepam have a greater potential for abuse and dependence but may be safer in acute situations. Long-acting agents include diazepam. Benzodiazepines can be used for short term management of severe anxiety. Bispirone can be used in the longer-term but may be less efficacious than alternative strategies and is rarely used in clinical practice.

Benzodiazepine addiction should be treated with conversion to a longer acting drug (diazepam) before starting a very slow reducing regimen. The non-benzodiazepine Z drugs (zopiclone, zaleplon and zolpidem) are not used as anxiolytics though they act on the same receptors. They are commonly prescribed as hypnotics.

Benzodiazepine metabolism is through phase 1 metabolism via CYP450, and phase 2 metabolism (conjugation) occurs in lorazepam, oxazepam and temazepam.

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88
Q

How are antipsychotics classified?

A

They are broadly defined as first or second generation.

1st generation antipsychotics: Effects predominantly on D2 receptors (antagonism) requires about 70% D2 receptor occupancy for efficacy. Extrapyramidal side effects include dystonia, drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. There may also be prolactin elevation, muscarinic (cholinergic) blocking properties and there is limited efficacy on the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Examples include chlorpromazine, haloperidol, trifluoperazine, fluphenazine, zuclopenthixol, and flupentixol.

2nd generation antipsychotics: These have a lower D2 receptor affinity and a high serotonin/dopamine-binding ratio. These have a greater efficacy for both positive and negative symptoms and a reduced risk for the development of extrapyramidal symptoms. Examples include clozapine, amisulpride, risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, and aripiprazole (this exhibits unique dopamine modulatory effects). 2nd generation antipsychotics are linked to the development of metabolic abnormalities more than conventional agents. These include obesity (truncal), hypercholesterolaemia/dyslipidaemia, elevated BP, and diabetes.

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89
Q

What are the dopamine pathways?

A
  1. Mesolimbic pathway: Linked to positive symptoms: Delusions, hallucinations, disorganised speech/thinking and disorganised or catatonic behaviour
  2. Mesocortical pathway: Linked to negative symptoms: Alogia, affective flattening and avolition
  3. Nigrostriatal pathway: Controls motor movement
  4. Tuberoinfundibular pathway: Controls prolactin secretion
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90
Q

Give some examples of antipsychotics and their mechanism of action

A

Olanzapine: This is a multi-receptor antagonist (histamingeric/muscarinic/serotonergic/adrenergic/dopaminergic). It has D2 receptor selectivity. It is used for the treatment of positive, negative and mood stabilising symptoms. Short-acting injections are effective for the treatment of agitation and behavioural control. Long-acting injections require post injection monitoring for post-injection syndrome. Side effects include sedation, weight gain, metabolic syndrome, dry mouth, and constipation.

Paliperidone: This is a metabolite of risperidone but with lesser bioavailability. It has less affinity for D4 receptors than risperidone. It antagonises 5HT2A/5HT2C/D2/H1/adrenergic receptors. It comes in oral and long-acting injectable form. It is licenced for the treatment of schizophrenia. Side effects include severe EPSEs, hyperprolactinaemia, weight gain, but a lower risk of QTc interval changes.

Risperidone: 5HT2A/5HT2C/D2/Adrenergic receptor antagonist. It has a low-moderate H1 affinity. It is used for the treatment of schizophrenia and acute treatment of mania. Side effects include akathisia, dystonia, weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and tachycardia.

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91
Q

What are the side effects of antipsychotics?

A

General side effects of antipsychotics are extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs), neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), prolonged QTc interval (risk factor for fatal ventricular arrhythmia so If QTc interval is over 500 ms the refer the patient for cardiovascular assessment), hyperprolactinaemia, osteoporosis, sexual dysfunction, and metabolic syndromes.

Other side effects include a reduced seizure threshold, anticholinergic effects (constipation), hyponatraemia (SIADH), photosensitivity, agranulocytosis and myocarditis (clozapine).

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92
Q

When should clozapine be prescribed?

A

This is licensed for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but can also improve positive and negative symptoms of psychosis, affective symptoms, cognitive symptoms and manic symptoms in bipolar disorder. These effects are due to the clozapine’s receptor affinity binding profile (histaminergic/muscarinic/serotonergic/dopaminergic).

All patients MUST be registered with a clozapine monitoring service. They should have an FBC done weekly for the first 18 weeks to assess neutropenia/agranulocytosis, and then fortnightly until 52 weeks of treatment, and then monthly from then on.

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93
Q

What are the side effects of clozapine?

A

Side effects include increased appetite, weight gain, constipation, hypersalivation, tachycardia, seizures, neutropenia, agranulocytosis (concurrent use of lithium can increase WCC), myocarditis and cardiomyopathy.

Dystonic reactions such as oculogyric spasm and torticollis have a higher risk in the early stages of treatment or after a dose increase. It may also occur on drug withdrawal. Treatment of this side effect is with oral or IM anticholinergics such a procyclidine 5-10 mg.

Drug-induced parkinsonism: This presents with tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity. It can be treated with an anticholinergic agent, but this should not be routine. Most patients will cope with the symptoms without active treatment.

Akathisia: This is the subjective unpleasant state of motor restlessness which is linked to violence and suicide. It responds poorly to anticholinergics but can be treated by changing to a drug with lower liability for akathisia – usually atypical. There is a place for the use of a non-selective beta blocker (propranolol), small dose of clonazepam, or the antihistamine cyproheptadine, have been suggested and tried.

Tardive dyskinesia: This involves a wide variety of movements such as lip-smacking, chewing, tongue protrusion, choreiform hand movements, pelvic thrusting, and severe orofacial movements. This is caused by super-sensitivity of dopamine receptors due to prolonged therapy with dopamine-blocking drugs. This should be managed with the discontinuation or reduction of any anticholinergics, reduction to the minimum effective antipsychotics, or the use of atypical antipsychotics (clozapine has little or no association with TD). FDA has approved deutetrabenazine and valbenazine.

SIADH: This is commonly associated with the use of haloperidol, risperidone, quetiapine, olanzapine, and clozapine. Mild – moderate hyponatraemia presents as confusion, epilepsy, cramps, nausea, headache, and lethargy. As the plasma sodium falls these symptoms become increasingly severe and seizures/coma can develop.

Hyperprolactinaemia: Antipsychotic-related serum prolactin elevation occurs in 40% of men and 60% of women. This can lead to galactorrhoea, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, infertility, oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea, and sexual dysfunction. Risperidone and paliperidone have potent prolactin-elevating effects. Quetiapine, aripiprazole, and clozapine have no effect on prolactin.

Reduced seizure threshold: Seizure is recognised as a side effect of antipsychotic therapy, the higher the dose the higher the risk. Clozapine has the highest risk of reducing seizure threshold.

Postural hypotension: Mediated through the adrenergic alpha-1 blockade. It is a particular risk when phenothiazine is prescribed for the elderly or when high doses of antipsychotics are used. Atypical antipsychotics (clozapine/risperidone/quetiapine) have important affinity for alpha-1 receptors making dosing titration necessary.

Anticholinergic side effects: Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. Clozapine has been associated with severe constipation which can lead to intestinal obstruction. Therefore, chlorpromazine and clozapine are not advised for patients with closed angle glaucoma. Olanzapine and quetiapine only have mild side effects of this kind.

Metabolic syndromes: This usually presents as truncal obesity, diabetes, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and elevated BP. Clozapine has the highest risk of weight gain, followed by olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone. In some cases, an oral hypoglycaemic or insulin is required. Advice should be provided on increased appetite, diet, and exercise. Weight should be monitored regularly.

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94
Q

Describe neuroleptic malignant syndrome and what are the risk factors?

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: This is a life-threatening medical emergency occurring in 0.5% of patients newly treated with antipsychotics. Clinical features rapidly progress over 72 hours including hyperthermia, muscular rigidity, decreased consciousness, and labile BP. They may have an elevated CK level, leucocytosis, abnormal LFTs, and myoglobinuria. Usual causes of death are PE, DIC, aspiration, and renal failure secondary to rhabdomyolysis.

Risk factors for NMS include rapid antipsychotic dose increase, IM medication, medical illnesses, male gender, and dehydration. Treatment is with cessation of the antipsychotic, hydration, antipyretics, dopamine agonists (bromocriptine/dantrolene) to help reduce the muscle spasms, and ICU may be required. Investigations should include serum CK, temperature, pulse and BP.

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95
Q

SSRIs: Examples, indications, MOA, and side effects

A

Examples include fluoxetine (Prozac), Sertraline (Zoloft), Paroxetine (Paxil), Citalopram (Celexa), Escitalopram (Lexapro), and Fluvoxamine (Luvox). The therapeutic effect may not appear for 3-8 weeks after treatment initiation.

SSRIs are absorbed into the GI tract and then bind to proteins to cross the blood-brain barrier. Peak plasma levels occur between 1-8 hours. They are metabolised in the liver and the half-life is around 1 day. SSRIs, except citalopram and escitalopram, inhibit P450 so cause many drug-drug interactions.

SSRIs are first-line antidepressants because of their efficacy, tolerability, and general safety in overdose. They are used for anxiety, panic disorder, OCD, PTSD, eating disorders, and premenstrual syndrome. Between 28-55% of patients fail to respond to SSRI therapy and many continue to experience residual symptoms. The efficacy of SSRI treatment increases with the severity of the depression and may not be beneficial in mild-moderate disease. CYP26 and CYP2C19 polymorphisms affect SSRI efficacy and safety.

Side effects include GI symptoms, dizziness, headache, sexual dysfunction, drowsiness, weight changes, insomnia, syndrome of hyponatremia, movement disorders, QT prolongation, suicidal ideation, and discontinuation syndrome (dysphoria, dizziness, GI distress, fatigue, and myalgia). Fluoxetine is safe to use in pregnancy.

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96
Q

Give an example and side effects of noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

A

Reboxetine is used in major depressive disorder (MDD) and is safe in combination therapy as it has few interactions. Side effects include uncertainty, paralysis, powerlessness and avoidance.

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97
Q

Give an example and side effects of noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitors (NSRIs)

A

Duloxetine and Venlafaxine which has similar uses to SSRIs but also used for chronic pain syndromes. It has an improved potency and onset of action. Shorter half lide than SSRIs at 5 hours. Duloxetine is a moderately potent CYP2D6 inhibitor. Side effects include HTN (not duloxetine), loss of appetite, and hepatic failure.

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98
Q

What is the MOA, side effects and indications for monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)?

A

These prevent the catabolism of NE, DA and 5-HT neurotransmitters by blocking monoamine oxidase irreversibly. Serious and potentially lethal adverse events include hypertensive crises so there is a requirement for strict dietary restrictions.

Selegiline is a selective MAOb which is used in low doses as a transdermal patch in Parkinson’s disease. Side effects include hypotension, dry mouth, headache, GI upset, and myoclonic jerks. These should never be co-prescribed with an SSRI or NSRI due to the risk of serotonin syndrome.

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99
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

This is usually the result of an interaction between multiple medications that increase serotonergic neurotransmission. It will present within 6-24 hours of a drug initiation or dose increase. Symptoms include agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, tremor, rigidity, clonus, hyperthermia, and dilated pupils. It should be treated with support, benzodiazepines, and cyproheptadine (serotonin antagonist).

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100
Q

Describe the MOA, indications and side effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A

These include amitriptyline and its metabolite nortriptyline, imipramine and its metabolite desipramine, and clomipramine. Uses include depression, anxiety, bulimia nervosa, neuropathic pain, and smoking cessation. The half-life is around 1 day. Mechanism of action includes serotonin reuptake blockage, norepinephrine reuptake blockage, histamine receptor antagonists, muscarinic & alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonists, and Na and Ca channel blockage.

Side effects include anti-histaminic effect (sedation, weight gain, and confusion), anticholinergic action (dry mouth, blurred vision (dilated pupils), urinary retention, and constipation), antiadrenergic action (orthostatic hypotension and dizziness), voltage sensitive sodium channels in the heart and brain are blocked in overdose causing coma, seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Other side effects include lowering the seizure threshold, bone marrow and lover toxicity, and cardiotoxic effects. Not all TCAs have the same affinity for all receptors as nortriptyline is well tolerated whereas amitriptyline has a potent antihistaminic action.

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101
Q

Give some examples of atypical antidepressants

A

The mechanism of action for these drugs is unclear.

Bupropion (dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor) is used for smoking cessation as well as depression. It inhibits P450. Side effects include seizures (dose-dependent), dry mouth, nausea, insomnia, hypertension, sexual dysfunction, and weight gain.

Mirtazapine (presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic and postsynaptic serotonin blockade) has antihistamine properties via H1 receptors and is thus sedative. There are no significant drug-drug interactions. Side effects include dry mouth, drowsiness, weight gain, and rarely agranulocytosis. In OD there is a risk of fatal arrhythmia and sedation.

Vilazodone and vortioxetine block serotonin reuptake in addition to various effects on 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor subtypes.

Research is now ongoing into the use of kappa opioid receptor antagonists, CB1 cannabinoid receptor antagonists or agonists, cytokines, histone deacetylase inhibitors, and tissue plasminogen activator.

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102
Q

What is addiction?

A

Addiction is a diseased state of the brain and nerve centres characterised by an irresistible impulse to indulge in intoxicating liquors or other narcotics, for the relief these afford, at any peril (Kerr, 1884).

Addiction is a chronic condition involving a repeated powerful motivation to engage in rewarding behaviour, acquired as a result of engaging I that behaviour, that has significant potential for unintended harm. (West and Brown 2013).

DSM-5 and ICD-11 definitions of substance use disorder:

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103
Q

What are the theories of psychopathology of addiction?

A

There is evidence of a neurobiological pattern in the brain when substances are consumed in individuals at risk of addiction. There is a biological change in the brain with tolerance and withdrawal. The nucleus accumbens and dopamine pathways are often cited when discussing the pathophysiology of addiction. Drugs of abuse do cause the release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens, but there is also a release whenever a person engages in something they enjoy.

Positive reinforcement: People take drugs because they get pleasure from doing so via the dopamine reward pathway.

Negative reinforcement: People take drugs to alleviate negative symptoms such as mental or physical pain or to remove withdrawal symptoms.

The opponent process theory states that there is an initial euphoria with intoxication, but future dosing does not give them same reward. The B process is the low after substance intoxication before returning to normal. When the drug has been used for some time, the euphoria is minimal but the come down is bigger and longer lasting.

Incentive sensitisation is the idea that we want to use a substance rather than like it. Drug cues are salient and draw attention which can be implicit or explicit so the cues end up causing dopamine release rather than the substance itself. As the dopamine pathway becomes sensitised the cues become pathologically salient so there is increase dopamine release and density of dendritic spines in the NA.

Impaired decision making: This is the theory that after taking a substance for an extended period of time we develop an impaired ability to inhibit responses to drug cues, even when associated with longer term negative consequences. Frontal striatal dopamine pathways are involved in inhibitory control, planning and working memory.

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104
Q

What are the psychological theories of addiction?

A

Classical conditioning: Pavlov’s dog states that unrelated things become linked with substance use. This is observed as cue reactivity.

Operant conditioning: This is positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement which states that we do something and learn from it. This explains the initial motivation of using a substance and then negative reinforcement maintains the addiction. This does not explain relapse.

Social learning theory: This states that we learn behaviours through observing others and our social norms so others enjoying smoking conditions us to smoke.

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105
Q

What are the social theories of addiction?

A

Risk and resilience:
Adverse Childhood experiences such as abuse, neglect, or household dysfunction reduces the ability to be resilient which makes them vulnerable to use and dependence on drugs. This is evidenced in the literature. 5 or more ACEs are associated with significant increased risk.

Vietnam veterans’ study: This was a response to heroin abuse in US soldiers after the war. They found that the context of the opiate use was very important and changing to a supportive place rather than the war zone allowed patients to quit.

Rat Park: Rats become addicted easily, but they are experimented on outside of their normal societies. When rats were allowed to live in a large community as they would in the wild it was found that they abused drugs less. This suggested that societal issues are possibly causative for addition issues.

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106
Q

What are behavioral addictions?

A

Gambling and Gaming are the only behavioral addictions. These behaviors meet the definition of ICD11 addiction.

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107
Q

What is perception?

A

The process of making sense of the physical information we receive from our sensory modalities

108
Q

What are the types of hallucinations?

A

Perception occurring in the absence of an external physical stimulus. Characteristics of a hallucination:

  1. To the patient, the nature of the hallucination is the same as a normal sensory experience (appears real)
  2. Experienced as external sensations from any one of the sensory modalities and should be distinguished from ideas, thoughts, images, or fantasies which originate in the patient’s own mind.
  3. They are not merely distortions of an existing physical stimulus.

Hallucinations can be visual, auditory, olfactory, gustatory, somatic, or special types.

109
Q

Describe the features of visual hallucinations

A

Visual hallucinations most commonly occur in organic brain disturbances (delirium, epilepsy, occipital lobe tumours, and dementia) and in psychoactive substance use such as alcoholic hallucinosis, petrol/glue sniffing, LSD, and mescaline.

An autoscopic hallucination is seeing oneself in external space.

Charles-Bonnet Syndrome is where the patient experiences complex visual hallucinations associated with no other psychiatric symptoms and no impairment of consciousness. It is associated with loss of vision and usually occurs in older people.

Lilliputian hallucination is where they see miniature people or animals. This is associated with acute alcohol withdrawal.

110
Q

Describe the features of auditory hallucinations

A

Auditory hallucination is the most common type of hallucination in clinical psychiatry. This can be elementary (simple) or complex.

Elementary hallucinations are simple, unstructured sounds (buzzing, whirring, or whistling). It occurs most commonly in acute organic states such as epilepsy, migraine, and delirium.

Complex hallucinations occur as spoken phrases, sentences, or even dialogue. Complex auditory hallucinations are split into:

  1. Audible thoughts (first person): The patient hears their own thought spoken out loud as they think them. When patients experience their thoughts as echoed by a voice after they have thought them, this is called echo.
  2. Second person: The patient hears a voice or voices talking directly to them. These can be persecutory, complimentary, critical, or issue commands.
  3. Third person: The patient hears a voice or voices talking about them. This may involve two or more voices arguing or discussing the patient or one or more voices providing a running commentary on the patient’s thoughts or actions.
111
Q

Describe the features of somatic hallucinations

A

Somatic Hallucinations can be superficial, visceral, and kinaesthetic

Superficial: These are sensations on or just below the skin. They may be tactile (haptic) where there is an experience of the skin being touched, pricked, or pinched. Formication is the sense of insects crawling on or just below the skin. This is commonly seen in long-term cocaine use or alcohol withdrawal. Thermal is the false perception of heat or cold whereas hydric is the false perception of a fluid.

Visceral: False perception of the internal organs such as throbbing or stretching

Kinaesthetic: False perceptions of joint or muscle sense such as limbs vibrating or twisting

112
Q

Describe the features of special types of hallucinations

A

Hypnagogic: False perceptions in any modality that occur as an individual goes to sleep. Common and do not indicate a mental disorder.

Hypnopompic: False perceptions in any modality that occur as a person awakens. These are common and do not indicate a mental disorder.

Extracampine: False perceptions that occur outside the limits of a person’s normal sensory field. The patient will provide a delusional explanation.

Functional: A normal sensory stimulus is required to precipitate a hallucination in that same sensory modality (voices heard when the doorbell rings)

Reflex: A normal sensory stimulus in one modality stimulates a hallucination in another (voices heard when a light is switched on).

113
Q

What are illusions?

A

These are misperceptions of real external stimuli such as when in a dark room a dressing gown hanging down is perceived as a person. Often occurs in healthy individuals and is usually associated with inattention or intense emotional states (situational anxiety).

114
Q

What are pseudohallucinations?

A

Perceptual disturbance that differs from a hallucination in that it appears to arise in the subjective inner space of the individuals mind, not through one of the sensory organs. They are not under conscious control (an individual hearing a voice inside her own head telling her to harm herself or someone experiencing distressing flashbacks in PTSD). These are not viewed as true psychotic phenomena. Pseudohallucinations are defined by some psychiatrists to mean hallucinations that the patient recognises as false perceptions (have insight into their hallucinations).

115
Q

What are delusions?

A

The unshakeable false belief that is not in keeping with a patient’s social, cultural, or religious norms. This has the following characteristics:

  • To the patient, there is no difference between a delusional belief and a true belief. Hence, only an external observer can diagnose a delusion.
  • The delusion is false because of faulty reasoning (though the belief may be true, the reason for the belief is undoubtedly false).
  • The delusion is out of keeping with the patient’s social and cultural background. It is crucial to establish that the belief is not likely to be held by the individuals subcultural group.
116
Q

How are delusions classified?

A

Delusions may be classified as primary or secondary, mood congruent or mood incongruent, bizarre or non-bizarre, and according to the content of the delusion.

Primary (autochthonous) delusions don’t occur in response to any previous psychopathological state and may be preceded by delusional atmosphere (mood)

Secondary delusions are consequences of pre-existing psychopathological states, usually mood disorders. There may be many inter-related delusions that are centred on a common theme are called systematised delusions.

Mood congruent delusions: Content is appropriate and matches the patient’s mood. It is commonly seen in mania with psychotic features and in psychotic depression.

Bizarre delusions: Extremely implausible content (belief that aliens have planted radioactive detonators in the patient’s brain). This is characteristic of schizophrenia.

Partial delusion: Belief that was previously held with delusional intensity, but then becomes held with less conviction. Occurs when a patient is recovering.

The term paranoid refers to any delusion or idea that is unduly self-referent, typically feelings of persecution, grandeur, or reference. It should not be synonymously used with the term persecutory.

The content of delusions can be persecutory, grandiose, delusion of reference, delusion of love (erotomanic), delusion of jealousy (Othello syndrome), delusion of misidentification (Capgras syndrome or Fregoli syndrome), delusion of infestation (Ekbom syndrome), Nihilistic delusion (Cotard syndrome), somatic delusion, and delusion of control (passivity or “made” experiences).

117
Q

What are overvalued ideas?

A

Plausible belief that a patient becomes pre-occupied with to an unreasonable extent. The pursuit of this belief causes considerable distress to the patient or to those living with/around the patient. Usually present for many years and associated with an abnormal personality. The lack of gross abnormality in reasoning distinguishes them from delusional beliefs (patient is often able to provide a fairly logical explanation for the belief). These differ from obsessions in that they are not experienced as recurrent intrusive thoughts. This is seen in anorexia nervosa, paranoid personality disorder, hypochondriacal disorder, body dysmorphic disorder and morbid jealousy.

118
Q

What are thought disorders?

A

The patient’s speech is so disorganised that it is difficult to follow what is meant (there is significant impairment of effective communication). This involves a spectrum from a patient with circumstantial thinking who is mostly understandable to the patient who exhibits word salad and who is completely incomprehensible. It is helpful to document and cite examples of the patient’s speech in their own words to help describe the phenomenon of thought disorder. It can be complicated to describe as it is impossible to know what the patient is actually thinking (thought form has to be inferred from the patient’s speech and behaviour).

  1. Circumstantial thinking: Over-inclusive with inclusion of details and unnecessary asides and diversions. This is not necessarily pathological.
  2. Tangential thinking: Diverting from the initial train of thought and never returns to the original point. Indicative of psychopathology.
  3. Flight of ideas: Markedly accelerated thinking, resulting in a stream on connected concepts. Typically occurs in mania.
  4. Loosening of association: Train of thought shifts suddenly from one very loosely related idea to the next. In its worst form, speech becomes a word salad. Also known as thought derailment or ‘knight’s move’ thinking. This is characteristic of schizophrenia.
  5. Thought blocking: Patient experiences sudden cessation to flow of thought, often in mid-sentence. The patient has no recall of what they were saying or thinking and thus continue talking about a different topic.
  6. Neologisms: New words created by the patient, often combining syllables of other known words.
  7. Preservation: When an initially correct response is inappropriately repeated. It is highly suggestive of organic brain disease.
  8. Echolalia: Patient seamlessly repeats words or phrases spoken around them by others like a parrot.
  9. Irrelevant answers: Patient’s give answers that are completely unrelated to the original question.
119
Q

What are the motor symptoms seen in psychiatric illness?

A

These are relatively rare in schizophrenia in industrialized countries. Classified as:

  • Catatonic rigidity: Maintaining fixed position and rigidly resisting all attempts to be moved.
  • Catatonic posturing: Adopting the unusual or bizarre position that is then maintained for some time.
  • Catatonic negativism: Seemingly motiveless resistance to all instructions or attempts to be moved. The patient may do the opposite to what was asked.
  • Catatonic waxy flexibility: Patient can be moulded like wax into a position that is then maintained.
  • Catatonic excitement: agitated, excited and seemingly purposeless motor activity, not influenced by external stimuli.
  • Catatonic stupor: Presentation of ‘akinesis’ (lack of voluntary movement, ‘mutism’, and ‘extreme unresponsiveness’ in an otherwise alert patient).
  • Echopraxia: Patient senselessly repeats or imitates the actions of those around them
  • Mannerisms: Apparently goal-directed movements that are performed repeatedly or at socially inappropriate times.
  • Stereotypies: Complex, identically repeated movement that does not appear to be goal-directed
  • Tics: Sudden, involuntary, rapid, recurrent, non-rhythmic motor movements or vocalisations.
120
Q

What are the components of a psychiatric history?

A
  • Presenting complaint
  • HPC
  • Past psychiatric history
  • PMH
  • Medications
  • Family history
  • Personal history
  • SH
  • Substance use history
  • Forensic history
  • Premorbid personality
121
Q

How should Past psychaitric History be taken in a psychiatric history?

A
  • Is the patient previously known to mental health services? If so, when
    was his / her first contact?
  • Does the patient identify with his / her psychiatric diagnosis(es)?
  • Is the patient under community mental health services (local CMHT)?
    If so, does he / she have a Care Co-ordinator (usually a CMHN or a
    Social Worker)?
  • Any previous hospital admissions? If so, try to obtain details of these - when, where, for how long, legal status (voluntary or detained under
    the Mental Health Act 1983?)
  • What psychotropic medications has the patient previously been
    prescribed? Were the treatments beneficial? If not, why not? Any
    unpleasant side effects or adverse reactions (most extreme - Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome)?
  • Has the patient ever had electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? If so, when and how many sessions? What was the indication (e.g. difficult to treat depression, psychotic depression, catatonia)? What was the response?
  • Any previous counselling or psychological therapy?
  • Any history of self-harm? If so, when did this start, what method(s) and what is the purpose of it?
  • Any previous suicide attempts? If so, when, impulsive or planned, what were the circumstances of the attempt?
122
Q

What significant PMH should be assessed in a psychiatric history?

A

Any medical conditions? Of particular importance in psychiatry - cardiac disease, type I or type II diabetes mellitus, stroke, epilepsy, renal disease, liver disease or any endocrine disorder.

Any history of major head trauma? If so, any resultant associated
acquired brain injury (may result in personality change)?

Any major surgery? If so, obtain details.

123
Q

What significant medication should be assessed in a psychiatric history?

A
  • Any history of adverse reactions to any psychotropic medications? For example, acute dystonic reaction when given Haloperidol or Olanzapine caused Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
  • Does the patient take any medications over-the-counter, e.g. St John’s Wort for mild depression?
124
Q

What significant family history should be assessed in a psychiatric history?

A
  • Any history of any mental disorder in the family? If so, obtain details.
    (Mental disorder have a strong genetic basis).
  • Any history of alcoholism or illicit substance dependence in any family member?
  • Any history of completed suicide in the family?
  • Any family history of diabetes mellitus or cardiac disease (e.g. premature fatal MI)?
  • Are the patient’s parents still alive? Is the patient close to either or both parent?
  • Does the patient have any siblings? If so, state how many and their ages.
125
Q

What significant personal history should be assessed in a psychiatric history?

A
  • Should be obtained in chronological order, starting from when the patient’s mother was pregnant with the patient, through to modern day.
  • Any complications during pregnancy (e.g. traumatic birth, premature)?
  • Any delays in attaining developmental milestones (learning to talk and to walk, etc.)?
  • Any major illnesses during childhood?
  • Any abnormally aggressive behaviour during childhood (suggestive of oppositional defiant disorder or, in adolescents, conduct disorder)?
  • Any history of any physical, sexual or emotional abuse or neglect during
  • Did the patient attend mainstream schooling throughout?
  • Any verbal and / or physical bullying whilst at school?
  • Was the patient able to form friendships and, if so, were these lasting?
  • Any truanting? Any suspensions and / or expulsions? If so, what for?
  • What age was the patient when he / she left school? Any formal qualifications?
  • Did the patient then enrol at college? If so, to study what and did he / she complete the course?
  • Did the patient go to university? Did he / she complete the degree?
  • What employment has the patient had? How long? Any history of being sacked?
  • Any long-term relationships? If so, how long and why did they end?
  • Any history of any form of abuse in any of the relationships?
  • What is the patient’s current relationship status?
  • Does the patient have any children? If so, obtain their name, age and (if under 16) date of birth.
  • If the patient has children not in their care, why is this the case? (NB: ask sensitively!) Are Children’s Social Services involved? Does the patient have any contact with any of the children and, if so, how often?
126
Q

How should a substance abuse history be taken?

A
  • How old was the patient when he / she started drinking?
  • Any pattern of hazardous or harmful use of alcohol?
  • Is there a preferred alcoholic drink?
  • Has the alcohol intake changed recently? If so, why?
  • What is the patient’s motivation for drinking? Is it self-medication of
    anxiety, boredom, peer or partner pressure, self-medication of psychotic symptoms or of previous trauma (e.g. previous sexual or physical assault)?
  • Is the patient under alcohol services or ever been under alcohol services?
  • Does the patient attend any local Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) groups?
  • Any current or previous use of any illicit substances? If so, list these
    and in order of when use started. (Don’t forget to ask about novel
    psychoactive substances, like “Spice.”) Include: name, amount, route
    of administration (oral, inhaled, injected), frequency of use and duration.
  • Screen the patient for evidence of dependence syndrome of any illicit substance.
  • Is the patient under drug services?
  • If the patient is opiate dependent and subject to a substitution
    programme (i.e. Methadone or Buprenorphine), where does he / she
    pick up scripts from, how often, and is it supervised or unsupervised?
127
Q

What are the components of a forensic psychiatric history?

A
  • Any previous convictions? If so, list these in chronological order. In
    particular, any violence-related offences, sexual offences or involving
    use of weapons?
  • What was the age of the patient at the time of the first offence?
  • Has the patient served any prison sentences? If so, when, for how long and for what conviction(s)?
  • Is the patient currently under probation services? If so, which probation service and who is the patient’s probation officer? How long is the
    probation order for and for what conviction(s)?
  • Does the patient have any pending or upcoming court appearance? If so, when and for what?
128
Q

How should pre-morbid personality be assessed?

A

This provides an indication of the patient’s personality and character before he / she started experiencing mental health difficulties.

It is best obtained, not from the patient, but from the patient’s family / partner / carer.

If the patient has good insight, you could ask “If I was to have met you before you started to experience these difficulties with your mental health, what sort of person were you?”

129
Q

What is the structure of the mental state examination?

A

Appearance, behaviour, speech, mood, thoughts, perceptions, cognition and insight

130
Q

What signs should be assessed in appearance of the MSE?

A

Apparent age of the patient, patient’s build, racial origin, appropriate dress or staining or signs of disrepair, cleanliness/personal hygiene, and how does the patient appear (anxious/perplexed/guarded).

131
Q

What signs should be assessed in behaviour of the MSE?

A

Is the patient co-operative with being interviewed (irritable or angry), is the patient’s behaviour appropriate (sexually or socially disinhibited), level of motor activity (increased or decreased), and degree of eye contact, ability to establish a rapport with the patient, any aggression, any abnormal postures or movements noted (EPSEs, tics, stereotypies, or tremor).

132
Q

What signs should be assessed in speech of the MSE?

A

Comment on volume, rate, and tone. Comment on quantity (degree of spontaneity) and fluency (articulacy), any abnormal associations like clanging/rhyming or punning, and any stuttering. Is there dysphasia (can occur in elderly post-stoke or in young people following a TBI), any word finding difficulties, pressure speech or flight of ideas, any tangentiality or circumstantially to the patient’s speech.

133
Q

What signs should be assessed in mood of the MSE?

A

Subjective mood (what the patient describes), objective mood (what you observe), because mood has a complex multifaceted quality. Euthymic is normal and dysphoric is sad. What is the patient’s affect? Reactive? Labile? Blunted or flat? Congruous or incongruous?

134
Q

What signs should be assessed in thought of the MSE?

A

Disorders of form of thought: Degree of linearity, associational quality, any poverty of thought, capacity for goal-directed thinking, loosening of association and thought block.

Are there thoughts of self-harm, suicide, harm to others, any delusional beliefs (if so what is the content of them and what type?), any overvalued ideas, ant thought alienation experiences (thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting), and are the obsessive thoughts (unpleasant intrusive and repetitive thoughts recognised by the patient as their own thoughts).

135
Q

What signs should be assessed in perceptions of the MSE?

A

Any perceptual disturbances (auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, or tactile). If so, what type and describe the content. Are there flashbacks (PTSD), depersonalisation, derealisation, and illusions.

136
Q

What signs should be assessed in cognition of the MSE?

A

A crude assessment is all that is required, is it grossly intact? Are they orientated to time, place and person. Any attention deficit and any short or long-term memory deficits. For patients with mild cognitive impairment or suspected dementia, a comprehensive assessment of cognition should be undertaken -Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) or, ideally, Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Examination-Revised (ACE-R).

137
Q

What signs should be assessed in insight of the MSE?

A

Don’t state good, partial or poor – clarify why. Comment on the patient’s recognition of their psychiatric illness and attribution of presenting symptoms to this illness. Does the patient think they are mentally unwell at this time? Does the patient think they require treatment for their mental health? Doe they think they require admission and is the patient aware of the benefits of compliance with treatment.

138
Q

What are the components of a psych risk assessment?

A

Risk to self, risk of self-neglect, risk to others, risk to children, risk from others, risk of substance misuse, risk of property, risk of non-concordance with treatment, risk of poor engagement with mental health services and risk of absconding.

139
Q

How should risk to self be assessed?

A

Thoughts of self-harm, thoughts of suicide, any current suicidal plans, any intent to act on thoughts of self-harm or suicide, is there a history of self-harm (and what method), does the patient present with any delusional beliefs or command auditory hallucinations that may increase the risk to self, and any history of suicide attempts.

Is there a risk of death by misadventure (accidental fatal overdose), psychiatric co-morbidities such as impulsiveness of EUPD, comorbid harmful or dependent alcohol or substance use and is there any risk to self in terms of risk of deterioration in physical health such as anorexia nervosa.

140
Q

How should risk of self-neglect be assessed?

A

Neglect on one’s personal care and personal hygiene. Are there concerns about the patient’s ability to look after themselves in the community, concerns about the patient living in unsuitable conditions or a lack of social support network of family and friends.

141
Q

How should risk to others be assessed?

A

This can include verbal, physical and sexual assault risk. Are there delusional beliefs or auditory hallucinations that increase the risk to other. If there is a risk is it to anyone specifically or to people in general? Is there any intent, is there a risk of stalking or erotomanic delusions/delusions of morbid jealously. Is there a risk to other vulnerable adults being subject to any abuse such as an elderly relative.

142
Q

How should risk to children be assessed in psychiatry?

A

Always establish if a patient has any children living with them. If so, establish the name and DOB of each child. Are there any child safeguarding concerns (physical, sexual, or emotional abuse or neglect).

143
Q

How should risk from others be assessed?

A

Is there a risk that the patient will be exploited by family or friends, retaliation to their aggression or delusions, or risk of sexual exploitation or other exploitation due to their disturbed mental state.

144
Q

How should risk of substance misuse be assessed?

A

Does the patient engage in harmful or dependent use of substances or alcohol. Are they in contact with drug or alcohol services and would they be willing. Does the patient’s substance misuse link to criminal charges or is it affecting their relationships/employment?

145
Q

How should risk of property be assessed?

A

Risk of property is there any risk of arson driven by mental disorder (command auditory hallucinations instructing the patient to set fires), is there a risk of physical destruction of property. Is this due to psychotic symptoms or personality-based difficulties.

146
Q

How should risk of non-concordance with treatment be assessed?

A

This is usually related to the patient having a poor level of insight into their mental disorder and the need for treatment. There may be co-morbid harmful or dependent use of alcohol and/or illicit substances can also contribute to significantly poor or non-concordance with treatment.

This can necessitate treatment with antipsychotic medication in depot form rather than oral form or possible the use of a supervised Community Treatment Order (CTO) for patients discharged from hospital following a period of detention under Section 3 of the Mental Health Act 1983.

147
Q

How should risk of poor engagement with mental health services be assessed?

A

This is usually due to poor insight into their mental health disorder. This can necessitate depot antipsychotic injections.

148
Q

How should risk of absconding be assessed?

A

This will influence whether the psychiatrist will grant the patient periods of escorted leave from the ward such as with family/friends or members of staff. Patients with poor insight or objections to being in hospital are high risk for absconding.

149
Q

How should psychiatric risk be managed?

A
  1. Consider the need for admission to hospital, either voluntary or through detention under the mental health act 1983.
  2. Ensure there is adequate information sharing between different agencies involved in the patient’s care (children’s social service, probation services, drug and alcohol, and housing provider).
  3. Restrict leave off the ward in a patient who is an absconding risk
  4. When discharge planning, ensure an MDT approach is adopted rather than working in and making decision in isolation.
  5. Consider the need for depot medication if concordance is an issue
  6. Consider the need for a CTO
  7. If the patient is a high risk of overdose, consider weekly issuing of any prescribed medications
  8. Consider the need for Care Act assessment for those patients at risk of self-neglect (is a community care package indicated?)
  9. Ensure the option of referral to drug and alcohol services is explored with the patient where appropriate. If unmotived then consider how to reduce the risk of harm.
  10. Consider the need for safeguarding if appropriate
  11. Involve children’s social services if there are concerns about a child
150
Q

How is self harm defined?

A

Self-Harm: Intentional act of self-poisoning or self-injury irrespective of the type of motivation or degree of suicidal intent. The main difference between suicide and self-harm is the intent.

Self-harm is not always associated with direct suicidal intent but some overlap. People who self-harm are at higher risk of suicide. The risk is high in the subsequent year and remains high for a few days.

151
Q

What is the spectrum of self-harm?

A

The spectrum ranges from mild self-destructive behaviour to active deliberate self-injury. This includes self-directed harmful acts and self-harm by omission. CASHAs are culturally accepted self-harm acts (taking excessive recreational drugs, excessive exercise, using steroids, and excessive alcohol). Self-harm by omission include striking lapses in self-care resulting in injury (external) or damage to health (internal).

Four key points of self-harm:
1. Intent is to help oneself
2. Immediately harmful
3. Immediate response (relief from tension)
4. Repeated behaviour

Major methods of self-harm include self-poisoning and self-injury.

152
Q

What is the epidemiology of self-harm?

A

Self-harm occurs in 3.5% of the population and 14% of teenagers and rates are increasing. It is more common in women than in men. Men self-injure more severely than women. The reasons in elderly are often different from young adults. Self-poisoning is the most common type of self-harm (90%) including overdosing, ingesting toxic substances, and inhaling harmful substances. Most common drugs used are aspirin and paracetamol. Concomitant alcohol and drug misuse is common.

153
Q

What is self-injury?

A

Self-injury is deliberately damaging the body without conscious attempt to commit suicide. It accounts for 5-15% of self-harm acts and includes cutting (common), burning, swallowing objects, inserting objects, punching/hitting themselves, scratching/picking/tearing the skin, jumping from a height, jumping in front of a car and pulling out hair or eyelashes.

154
Q

How are the reasons for self-harm categorised?

A

Reasons for self-harm are copious but can include escape emptiness, feel emotional pain, ease tension, see blood, communicate, pleasurable experiences, cope better, control, prevent suicide, addicted to crisis or punish themselves or others. These can be categorised into three broad groups:
1. Affect regulation (controlling emotions)
2. Communication (Individual cannot communicate their difficulties)
3. Control

Self-harming is often associated with relationship difficulties, school/work problems, difficulties with partner, disputes with siblings, physical ill health, mental illness, bullying, low self-esteem, sexuality problems, and drug/alcohol abuse.

Mental illness in self-harm include depression, EUPD, substance misuse, eating disorders, schizophrenia, OCD, PTSD, anxiety disorders, dissociative disorders and intellectual disability.

Factors that are associated with repeat self-harm include previous episodes of self-harm, personality disorders, previous contact with psychiatric services, unemployment, social class, alcohol, substance misuse, criminal record, involvement in violence, aged 25-54, and single/divorced status.

155
Q

How does self-harm and suicide risk correlate?

A

There is a clear but complex link between self-harm and suicide. 15-25% of people who self-harm will go on to commit suicide. Risk of suicide in self-harm is 100x that expected in the general population.

Whether people have deep wounds or slight injuries, the problem they represent should always be taken very seriously. The size of the wound isn’t a measure of the size of the conflict inside.

156
Q

What is the epidemiology of suicide?

A

There are 4000-4500 suicides in England per year, with a male: female of 3:1 (in ASD the rate is higher in females). The most common methods of suicide are hanging (44%), self-poisoning (23%), and jumping/multiple injuries (10%). Less frequent methods are drowning (5%), CO poisoning (4%), stabbing/cutting (3%) and use of a firearm (2%).

Opiates are the most common drug used in self-poisoning and is most common in patients with a history of substance abuse. The next most common substances were TCAs (15%) and paracetamol/opiate compounds (12%).

157
Q

What are the risk factors for suicide?

A

There is usually no single cause, rather the endpoint of an individual process, in which several interacting factors can be identified. Sociodemographic variables include male gender, elderly, low social status, low educational status, institutionalisation, living alone, low social support, lack of social integration, adverse life events, marital status, profession (female doctors, farmers, students and sailors), and unemployment/retired status.

All mental disorders carry an increased risk of suicide. Suicide risk in functional disorders is double that in substance use disorders which in turn is double the risk than organic disorders. Anorexia (20x), major depressive disorder (20x), mood disorders (15x), reactive psychoses (15x), anxiety disorders (10x), personality disorders (10x) and substance use disorders (10x).

In old age, there is a continuum from suicidal thinking through to self-harm to completed suicide. The added component in old age is “indirect self-destructive behaviour” such as refusal to drink. Assisted suicide in people with terminal illness may also form part of the continuum. Suicide rates in the elderly have been declining but widowers are more likely to kill themselves than widows. Combined physical illness is a risk factor for suicide in older people and major depressive disorder is the most common psychiatric illness, especially undertreated depression. Alcohol and substance abuse rate and schizophrenia are less common in elderly suicide victims than younger.

158
Q

How should attempted suicide be assessed?

A

When assessing an attempt: Describe the attempt, what precipitated the attempt, planned or impulsive, intention to die, method, final acts (suicide note), and was the patient intoxicated at the time.

Where there attempts to avoid discovery, was the patient alone, what was the perceived lethality of the attempt, did the patient seek help after the attempt or were they found, and does the patient regret the suicide attempt?

Assess risk factors such as male, aged under 45, unemployed, divorced/widowed/single, physical illness, mental disorder present, substance misuse, previous suicide attempt, family history of mental disorder, and family history of suicide/attempts.

Assess for any underlying mood disorder (depressive or manic features), assess any psychotic symptoms, will the patient be returning to the same situation, how does the person see the future, any ongoing suicidal thoughts and obtain a collateral history if possible.

159
Q

What are the protective factors for suicide risk?

A

Protective factors are positive social support, spirituality/religion, sense of responsibility to family, children or pregnant spouse, life satisfaction, reality testing ability, positive coping skills, positive problem solving skills and positive therapeutic relationship.

160
Q

When should lithium toxicity be considered?

A

Symptoms include weakness, worsening tremor, mild ataxia, poor concentration and diarrhea.

Even if initial symptoms of vomiting and diarrhoea were unrelated to lithium, these symptoms themselves put the patient at risk of lithium toxicity as they may lead to dehydration.

There are other reasons that should prompt you to consider lithium toxicity – she has recently been taking ibuprofen on a when needed basis. There is a major interaction between NSAIDs and lithium. NSAIDs are known to increase the concentration of lithium, however there is great variability within this, case reports have described increases in lithium concentration anywhere between 10% and 400%.

An AKI – this could well be as a result of taking an NSAID, however an AKI alone is also a risk factor for development of lithium toxicity.

161
Q

How should lithium toxicity be investigated?

A

You would need to check her lithium level and consider requesting an ECG. It may also be worth considering checking thyroid function.

162
Q

How should lithium toxicity be managed?

A

Lithium should temporarily be withheld and serum lithium levels monitored closely. It is important to correct any fluid and electrolyte abnormalities – in this case the patient is likely to be dehydrated so you may also consider prescribing intravenous fluids.

163
Q

What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity?

A

Mild symptoms include nausea, diarrhoea, fine resting tremor, muscle weakness, drowsiness, altered taste, blurred vision, light headedness, polyuria.

Moderate symptoms include increasing confusion, blackouts, fasciculation and increased deep tendon reflexes, myoclonic twitches and jerks, urinary or faecal incontinence, increasing restlessness, hypernatraemia.

Severe symptoms include – coma, convulsions, cardiac dysrhythmias, cerebellar signs, ECG changes, hypotension or rarely hypertension, peripheral neuropathy, peripheral vascular collapse, renal failure and death.

164
Q

What are the causes of lithium toxicity?

A
  • Intentional or accidental overdose of lithium
  • Renal impairment
  • Sodium deficiency and dehydration
    o Low salt diet
    o Fever and excessive sweating
    o GI upset causing vomiting and diarrhoea
  • Drug interactions
    o ACE inhibitors/ARBs – unpredictable effect on lithium level which can develop over several weeks
    o Thiazide diuretics – can reduce renal clearance of lithium, lithium levels usually start to rise within 10 days of a thiazide being started. Loop diuretics are still a risk but are considered safer than thiazides.
    o NSAIDs – magnitude of the rise is unpredictable, anywhere between 10 and 400%.
165
Q

What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A

It is characterised by a triad of symptoms:

  • Altered mental state
    o Restlessness, agitation, anxiety, hypervigilance, confusion, delirium, coma
  • Neuromuscular hyperactivity
    o Tremor, clonus (either inducible or sustained), hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, myoclonus, rigidity, respiratory failure
  • Autonomic hyperactivity
    o Tachycardia, sweating, hypertension, diarrhoea, shivering, fever, flushing, mydriasis, hyperthermia
166
Q

Which drugs can cause serotonin syndrome?

A
  • SSRIs (fluoxetine, paroxetine, citalopram, sertraline, escitalopram)
  • SNRIs (venlafaxine, duloxetine)
  • MAOI antidepressants (phenelzine, moclobemide, tranylcypromine)
  • TCAs (clomipramine, imipramine)
  • Opioids (pethidine, tramadol, fentanyl)
  • Linezolid (antibiotic with reversible MAOI activity)
  • Rasagiline and selegiline (Parkinson’s disease medications – MAO-B inhibitors)
  • Ondansetron and metoclopramide
  • Lithium, lamotrigine, buspirone
  • St John’s Wort
  • Other stimulants such as amphetamines, methylphenidate, ecstasy
167
Q

How should serotonin syndrome be managed?

A

In moderate-severity cases in some patients, a benzodiazepine such as diazepam at a dose of 5- 10mg (repeated in 30-60 minutes according to response) may be started to treat anxiety and provide sedation.
Cyproheptadine may be used in patients who have neuromuscular excitation and agitation if it is distressing. This is given as a single dose of 12mg repeated once according to response or 4 - 8mg three times a day.

168
Q

What are the features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A
  • Altered mental state
    o Drowsiness, stupor, coma, delirium, confusion, seizures
  • Fever
    o Temperature > 38.5°C
  • Muscle rigidity
    o Extrapyramidal side-effects, Parkinson-like symptoms, jaw contraction, lead-pipe rigidity, rhabdomyolysis, CK markedly raised, chorea, spinal contraction, abnormal flexion of the toes
  • Autonomic instability
    o Tachycardia, incontinence, diaphoresis, fluctuating blood pressure, high arterial pressure, tachypnoea
169
Q

What is the aetiology of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

It is thought that depletion or blockage of dopamine is what leads to Parkinsonian-like symptoms and abnormal regulation of blood pressure.It most commonly develops following initiation of antipsychotic medications or after dose increases – this patient has recently started olanzapine.

170
Q

What are the risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Exposure to antipsychotic medications and/or abrupt withdrawal of dopaminergic drugs are key risk factors

Other risk factors in the context of the above include;

  • Male sex
  • Older age (with associated structural brain abnormalities)
  • High alcohol intake
  • Dehydration
  • High ambient temperatures
  • Depot form of antipsychotics
  • Exhaustion
  • Iron deficiency
171
Q

How should neuroleptic malignancy syndrome be managed?

A

Immediate withdrawal of the patient’s antipsychotic medications – olanzapine Supportive care – administration of fluids, either oral or IV depending upon severity

Oral or IV lorazepam may be helpful to treat agitation and catatonia associated with NMS. It is important to ensure flumazenil is available alongside this in case of overdose.
Other options – although there is limited evidence for these (and use is controversial), include;

  • Dantrolene which can help to manage NMS associated rigidity and hyperthermia
  • Bromocriptine and amantadine which are dopaminergic agonists – these may be more useful in cases precipitated by withdrawal of anti-Parkinson’s medication.

Although not a drug treatment ECT is considered potentially useful in serious cases of NMS.

172
Q

What are acute dystonic reactions and when does it happen?

A

Acute dystonic reactions can be both painful and frightening for patients (and other patients who may be on the ward around them). They are characterised by uncontrolled muscle spasm, leading to abnormal face and body movements such as oculogyric crisis and torticollis. The patient may be unable to speak clearly or swallow. In severe cases the jaw can dislocate.

Acute dystonia can occur within the first few days of treatment and usually within hours of starting antipsychotics (or more quickly than this if the IM or IV route is used for administration).

Haloperidol is one of the antipsychotics considered to be at a higher risk of causing acute dystonia

173
Q

What drugs can cause acute dystonia?

A
  • Antipsychotics – especially first generation antipsychotics. Although it is still possible for acute dystonic reactions to occur with second generation antipsychotics.
  • Some anti-emetics such as metoclopramide and prochlorperazine (although prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic it is more often seen in practice as an antiemetic)
  • Illicit drugs such as cocaine and ecstasy
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Some anaesthetics
  • Some anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine and phenytoin

Acute dystonic reactions can occur within hours or days of exposure to the causative medication or following dose changes.

174
Q

What is the mechanism of action for acute dystonic reactions?

A

Antipsychotics work by reducing the amount of dopamine within the different dopamine pathways. We are mainly targeting the mesolimbic (reward) pathway, but the drugs (especially typicals) are not selective and also act at the nigrostriatal pathway which is involved in the regulation of movement – it is this that leads to the extra-pyramidal side-effects that can occur following antipsychotic use.

175
Q

What are the risk factors for acute dystonic reactions?

A
  • High-potency first-generation antipsychotic use
  • Lack of previous antipsychotic exposure
  • Abrupt discontinuation of antipsychotics
  • Rapid dose titration
  • Male
  • Younger age
  • Substance misuse such as with cocaine
176
Q

How could acute dystonic reactions be treated?

A

Stop haloperidol, ensure that this is recorded as an ‘adverse reaction’ on the patient’s drug allergy status box. You would need to use an alternative antipsychotic to treat the patients psychotic symptoms – olanzapine would be the usual antipsychotic of choice in this sort of situation (either when required or regular if it is felt regular treatment would be needed).
You need to prescribe a drug to manage the acute dystonia – see next question
Would you prescribe any treatment? If yes, what would this be?

Treatment would be with an anti-muscarinic drug. Acute dystonia usually responds well to this. First-line is usually 10mg of procyclidine IM (you can give oral procyclidine if appropriate) Second-line options include trihexyphenidyl or orphenadrine

177
Q

What movement disorders are associated with antipsychotic use?

A

Parkinsonian symptoms – approximately 20% of patients treated with typical antipsychotics will develop the PD-like symptoms of rigidity, tremor, akinesia and bradykinesia. Onset is usually within days or weeks and management options include reducing the dose, prescribing an antimuscarinic such as procyclidine or switching to an alternative. More common in elderly females and those with pre-existing neurological damage. Use of antimuscarinics should be reviewed every 3 months and they shouldn’t be prescribed at night as the symptoms are usually absent during sleep.

Akathisia – inner restlessness – strong desire and compulsion to move, rocking, crossing and uncrossing legs, pacing up and down. It can be misinterpreted as psychotic agitation. There is evidence that it is very closely linked to suicide. Around 25% of patients develop this. There is a lower risk with the atypical antipsychotics. It occurs within hours or weeks of starting an antipsychotic or following a dose increase. To manage this the dose of antipsychotic should be reduced or the patient changed to an atypical. A reduction in symptoms may be seen with propranolol or low dose clonazepam. Serotonin antagonists such as mirtazapine, cyproheptadine and misanserin may also help. All are unlicensed treatments for this indication.

Tardive dyskinesia – rhythmic, involuntary movements of tongue, face and jaw. Lip smacking, tongue protrusion, pill rolling. Movements are often worse when under stress. 5% of patients per year of antipsychotic exposure will develop this. More common in elderly women and those with affective illness. It is not responsive to antimuscarinics. It develops over months to years, only 50% of cases are irreversible. It can take up to 6 months for symptoms to reverse if they are going to. Treatment should include stopping the antipsychotic drug and substituting with another. If this is not effective additional agents may be used – tetrabenazine is the only licensed treatment for TD in the UK. Benzodiazepines have been used.

178
Q

What are the risk factors for depression?

A

The lifetime risk is 10-20% and is more common in women than men. There is an increased prevalence in the elderly, early 30s and low socio-economic groups. Black males are the least likely to be adequately treated. There is a high prevalence amongst people with learning disabilities and 90% of all cases are treated in primary care.

The aetiology is multifactorial with a combination of genetic and environmental factors. There is a genetic susceptibility but no specific causal gene. Personality traits such as low self-esteem, overly self-critical, anxiousness, socially avoidance and early life experiences. The neuro-chemical hypothesis is that depression is due to deficiency of monoamine neurotransmitters (noradrenaline and 5HT).

Environmental risk factors include adverse life events, bereavement, divorce, unemployment, stress, war, social isolation, past history of abuse, bullying, domestic abuse, illness, pregnancy, post-natal period, mental health co-morbidities, and substance misuse.

179
Q

What are the recommendations for sleep hygiene?

A

Establish regular sleep and wake times, avoid excess eating, smoking or alcohol before sleep, create a proper environment for sleep and take regular physical exercise.

180
Q

What does active monitoring of depression involve?

A

Discuss the presenting problem and any concerns that the person may have about them, provide information about the nature and course of depression, arrange a further assessment in 2 weeks and make contact if the person does not attend follow up appointments.

181
Q

How does depression present?

A

This is defined as the concurrent presence of at least 5 out of a list of 10 symptoms which must occur most of the day, nearly every day, for at least 2 weeks. The mood disturbance must result in significant functional impairment and not be a manifestation of another health condition or the effects of another substance or medication.
Physical symptoms can include disturbed sleep (decreased or increased), change of appetite or weight, fatigue/loss of energy, agitation or slowing of movements.

Cognitive symptoms can include poor concentration, indecisiveness, feeling of worthlessness/inappropriate guilt, hopelessness about the future, and suicidal ideation.

182
Q

How should depression be examined?

A

Examination should look for appearance (signs of neglect), behaviour (tearful, poor eye contact, restlessness, or flat affect), and speech (reduced rate/quantity, poor quality and reduced volume).

Screening for depression is with the PHQ-9 score.

183
Q

What are the differentials for depression?

A

Differentials should include depression, anxiety, stress, and physical health conditions such as thyroid disease, diabetes or urological conditions. Moderate depressive symptoms differentials include anxiety, alcoholism and physical causes for TATT.

184
Q

How should mild depression be treated?

A

Mild depression should be actively monitored. Low-intensity psychosocial interventions such as CBT, computerised CBT, or structured group physical activity programmes. Consider group CBY, sleep hygiene and routine use of medication is not recommended.

Self-help resources include lifestyle factors (alcohol, diet, exercise, sleep), routine, talking with friends, resilience building and mindfulness, stress management, and phone lines.

185
Q

How should moderate-severe depression be treated?

A

Moderate-severe depression should be managed with high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT or interpersonal therapy), antidepressants or a combination of both.

Drug treatment from NICE:
Do not use antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression because the risk-beneift ratio is poor but consider if there is moderate/severe depression or initial presentation of subthreshold depression lasting longer than two years.

St John’s wort may be of benefit in mild to moderate depression but there is significant uncertainty and a range of harmful potential interactions with other medications.

First line medication should be an SSRI as it is equally effective as other antidepressants but has a favourable risk-benefit ratio. However, in older people there is an increased risk of bleeding so consider a PPI. Choice of SSRI in older people is usually fluoxetine. Paroxetine and fluoxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions and paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms. Venlafaxine has a greater risk of death from overdose. TCAs have the highest risk of overdose.

High doses of venlafaxine can exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias so may require BP/ECG monitoring. It can also exacerbate venlafaxine and duloxetine. Postural hypotension and arrhythmias with TCAs.

SSRIs can cause bleeding, interactions leading to serotonin syndrome, and hypersensitivity reactions. Side effects can include minor sedation, dizziness, anxiety, anti-muscarinic, GI, sexual dysfunction, hyponatraemia, and suicidal ideation (young).

1st line is an SSRI
2nd line is an alternative SSRI
3rd line is Mirtazapine or SNRI or Trazodone or Tricyclic.

Consider combining/augmenting medications if not fully effective. In very severe depression there may need to be a referral to co-ordinated multi-professional care. There should be collaborative care if there is a chronic physical health problem with associated functional impairment. Discuss crisis resolution plans, in-patient care requirements and possibility for ECT.

186
Q

What should be considered before starting lithium in depression?

A

Lithium should have renal and thyroid function before treatment and every 6/12 if normal. ECG monitoring should be done if high risk for CVD. Serum lithium levels 1 week after initiation and each dose change until stable, and every three months thereafter.

187
Q

What should be considered before prescribing antipsychotics?

A

Monitor weight, lipid and glucose levels, and side effects (extrapyramidal side effects and prolactin-related side effects with risperidone).

Stopping or reducing antidepressants should be discussed with the doctor beforehand as stopping abruptly or missing doses may cause discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms include restlessness, problems sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, abdominal symptoms, altered sensations (shock sensations in the head), altered feelings (irritability, anxiety or confusion).

188
Q

What is the interaction between alcohol and depression?

A

1:100 adults in the UK have alcohol dependence. Self-harm and suicide is much more common in people with alcohol problems. Regular excessive alcohol causes depressive symptoms and people use alcohol to self-medicate for anxiety and depression. Studies show alcohol induces cortical norepinephrine reduction. Hangovers can cause cyclical self-medication. This leads to problems with relationships, finances, memory and sexual dysfunction.

189
Q

What are personality disorders?

A

Personality disorders are characterised by problems in functioning of aspects of the self, and/or interpersonal dysfunction that have persisted over an extended period of time (2 years or more).

190
Q

What are the symptoms and differentials for anxiety?

A

Symptoms of anxiety include the fight or flight response, adrenaline causes palpitations, nausea, headache, poor sleep, shaking, dizziness, tiredness, sweating, dry mouth, and shortness of breath. Psychological symptoms include restlessness, fear of impending doom, irritability, difficulty concentrating, and feeling on edge.

Anxiety becomes a medical problem when symptoms persist for several months, more days than not, and impact on an individual’s life.

Differentials should include GAD, OCD, panic disorder, social phobia, PTSD, and physical causes such as phaeochromocytoma or hyperthyroidism.

The GAD-7 score is the screening tool for generalised anxiety disorder.

191
Q

How does ICD-11 define generalised anxiety disorder?

A

The ICD-11 definition of generalised anxiety disorder: This is characterised by marked symptoms of anxiety that persist for at least several months, for more days than not, manifested by either general apprehension or excessive worry focused on multiple everyday events, most often concerning family, health, finances, school or work, and together with additional symptoms such as muscular tension or motor restlessness, sympathetic autonomic over-activity, subjective experience of nervousness, difficulty maintaining concentration, irritability, or sleep disturbance.

The symptoms result in significant distress or significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another health condition and are not due to the effects of a substance or medication on the CNS.

192
Q

How should mild anxiety be treated?

A

Mild anxiety should be managed with low intensity psychological interventions and active monitoring by the GP. Treat concurrent medical conditions such as hyperthyroid and depression.

193
Q

How should moderate-severe anxiety be managed?

A

Moderate anxiety should be managed with high-intensity psychotherapy such as CBT or applied relaxation. Pharmacological interventions should be considered such as SSRIs or pregabalin. If symptoms are severe and there is a risk of harm to self or others then consider referral to a specialist mental health team.

194
Q

What is the aetiology of schizophrenia?

A

Genetic factors, developmental factors (maternal influenza in second trimester and complications during birth and pregnancy), brain abnormalities (ventricular enlargement, reduced brain size, and cognitive deficit), neurotransmitter abnormalities (dopamine hypothesis), life events (bereavement, loss of employment and financial concerns), and expressed emotion such as highly critical peers.

195
Q

What is the epidemiology of schizophrenia?

A

Incidence of 15/100,000. Prevalence is under 1%. Lifetime risk is 1%. Age of onset is between teens and mid 30s. Women have a later onset than men. Male: Female is 1.4: 1. Increased prevalence in lower socio-economic classes and increased in urban areas. Incidence and prevalence higher in migrants.

196
Q

What are the ICD-10 criteria for schizophrenia?

A

At least one of the following:
- Thought echo, insertion, withdrawal, or broadcasting.

  • Delusions of control, influence or passivity, clearly referred to body or limb movements or specific thoughts, actions, or sensations, and delusional perception.
  • Hallucinatory voices giving a running commentary on the patient’s behaviour or discussing him/her between themselves, or other types of hallucinatory voices coming from some part of the body.
  • Persistent delusions of other kinds that are culturally inappropriate or implausible.

Or at least 2 of the following for over 1 month duration:

  • Persistent hallucinations in any modality, when accompanied by fleeing or half-formed delusions without clear affective content, persistent over-valued ideas, or occurring every day for weeks or months on end
  • Breaks of interpolation in the train of thought, resulting in incoherence or irrelevant speech or neologisms
  • Catatonic behaviour such as excitement, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, mutism and stupor
  • A significant and consistent change in the overall quality of some aspects of personal behaviour, manifest as loss of interest, aimlessness, idleness, as self-absorbed attitude and social withdrawal.
197
Q

What are delusions and hallucinations?

A

Delusions: Fixed unshakeable belief that is not in keeping with patient’s social, cultural and educational background. These can be primary or secondary, mood congruent or mood incongruent, bizarre or non-bizarre, and according to the content of the delusion.

Hallucinations: Percept experienced in the absence of an external stimulus

198
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Marked apathy, poverty of thought, poverty of speech, blunting of affect, social isolation, poor self-care, and cognitive deficits (especially executive functions).

199
Q

What are the catatonic symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Rigidity, posturing, negativism, waxy flexibility, excitement, and stupor

200
Q

What are the 5 types of schizophrenia?

A

Paranoid, hebephrenic, catatonic, simple and residual

  1. Paranoid: Dominated by presence of delusions and hallucinations. Absence of negative and catatonic symptoms. Thought disorganisation is not prominent. Reasonable prognosis and later age of onset.
  2. Hebephrenic: Prominent thought disorder, disturbed behaviour and incongruent or flat affect. Delusions and hallucinations are fleeting or not prominent. Earlier age of onset (25-35) and prognosis is poorer than paranoid schizophrenia.
  3. Catatonic: Rare form of schizophrenia characterised by the presence of one or more catatonic symptoms (motor symptoms/changes in motor activity). Hallucinations and delusions are less obvious.
  4. Simple: Insidious development of odd behaviour, social withdrawal, declining performance at work, and a lack of clear symptoms which makes it difficult to identify and is a diagnosis of last resort.
  5. Residual: One year of predominantly negative symptoms which must be preceded by at least one clear cut psychotic episode in the past.
201
Q

What is the course and prognosis of schizophrenia?

A

The course and prognosis are highly variable and difficult to predict. It tis thought that 20% have a single episode in their lifetime with no relapses. 50% have poor outcome with repeat psychotic episodes. 10% will commit suicide. Life expectancy is 15-20 years shorter.

202
Q

What are schizophrenia-like psychotic disorders?

A
  • Acute and transient psychotic disorder: Abrupt onset (no prodromal phase), precipitated by an acute stress with symptoms present for less than 1 month.
  • Schizoaffective disorder: Equal prominence of psychotic and affective (mood) symptoms which may be manic type or depressive type.
  • Delusional disorder: Delusional beliefs are the only symptom, and this has been present for at least 3 months.
203
Q

How should antipsychotics be managed?

A

Antipsychotic monitoring: There is a risk of metabolic syndrome (especially with second generation antipsychotics) so there should be monitoring of essential hypertension, truncal obesity, insulin resistance, low glucose tolerance and dyslipidaemia.

204
Q

What are the psychological treatments for schizophrenia?

A

NICE guidelines recommend that CBT and family therapy should be available for all patients with schizophrenia and those at increased risk of developing psychosis.

205
Q

What is treatment-resistant schizophrenia and how is it managed?

A

This is defined as failure to respond to an adequate trial (6 weeks) of at least two antipsychotics, at least one of which must be a second-generation antipsychotic.

Treatment-resistant schizophrenia should be assessed with a review of the original diagnosis, check patient concordance, assess psychosocial stressors, consider clozapine (only antipsychotic effective for TRS) and implement strict monitoring requirements for clozapine.

206
Q

Who is involved in the mental health act assessment?

A
  • Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP)
  • Psychiatrist on-call (Consultant or SpR). He / she will be Section 12(2) approved
  • Section 12(2) doctor (usually independent of the mental health trust, may be the patient’s G.P). At least one of the two doctors involved in the Mental Health Act assessment

MUST be approved under Section 12(2) of the Mental Health Act 1983.
Following assessment under the Mental Health Act 1983, the young man is detained and admitted to the local psychiatric inpatient unit.

207
Q

What are the criteria for detention under the Mental Health Act 1983?

A
  • Presence of a mental disorder (paranoid psychotic episode).
  • Mental disorder is of a degree such as to warrant detention under the Mental Health Act 1983.
  • Young man poses a risk to self (in terms of own health and own safety) and a risk to others.
  • Lack of insight and the current level of risk to self and risk to others mean community treatment (as an alternative and less restrictive option for management) is not appropriate.
  • Informal admission is not appropriate as the young man lacks capacity to consent to admission (and would most likely refuse the offer of voluntary admission to hospital).
208
Q

What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • Perceptual disturbances (hallucinatory experiences)
  • Delusional beliefs / ideation
  • Formal thought disorder
209
Q

What is Community Therapy Order and when is it indicated?

A
  • CTO is used where it is necessary for the patient’s health or safety or for the protection of others to continue to receive treatment after their discharge from hospital.
  • Seeks to prevent patients with mental disorder becoming “revolving door” patients.
  • Has stated conditions attached. Typically, these are to agree to take one’s prescribed psychotropic medication in the community, to agree to engage with one’s Care Co-ordinator on a regular basis in the community and to agree to make oneself available for medical examination with the community Responsible Clinician (RC) as and when required.
  • CTO lasts for up to six months initially. It can then be extended for a further six months, and every 12 months thereafter.
  • Any patient on a CTO may be recalled to hospital, for up to 72 hours, if he / she fails to adhere to any of their stated conditions and there is evidence of deterioration in his / her mental state.
  • Following recall to hospital, the patient’s CTO may then be revoked and the patient’s Section 3 is re-activated. Alternatively, the patient may be
    discharged within the 72-hour recall period, or may agree to remain in hospital on a voluntary basis for further assessment and treatment.
  • A Section 5(2) detention cannot be used for any patient who is subject to a CTO!
210
Q

What are the extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics?

A

Parkinsonism. Muscular rigidity, bradykinesia and resting tremor. Generally occurs within one month of starting an antipsychotic

Acute dystonia. Involuntary sustained muscular contractions or spasms, e.g. neck (spasmodic torticollis), clenched jaw (trismus), protruding tongue and eye rolling upwards (oculogyric crisis). Usually occurs within 72 hours of initiation of antipsychotic treatment. More common in young men.

-Akathisia. Subjective feeling of inner restlessness and muscular discomfort. Typically occurs within 6 to 60 days of initiation of antipsychotic treatment.

Tardive dyskinesia: Rhythmic, involuntary movements of the head, limbs and trunk, especially chewing, grimacing of the mouth and protruding, darting movements of the tongue. Develops in up to 20% of patients who receive long-term treatment with first-generation antipsychotics.

211
Q

What are the side effects of clozapine?

A

Sedation. Tend to split the Clozapine dose so that a larger dose is given at night time and the smaller dose in the morning. Alternatively, the Clozapine dose is all given at night time. The dose could be reduced if the patient remains troubled by sedation.

Hypersalivation. Treat with an antimuscarinic medication, typically Hyoscine hydrobromide (up to 900 micrograms daily) as first-line and Pirenzepine (up to 150 mg daily) as second-line. (Both are used on an off-licence basis.)

Constipation. Manage with stool softeners (Movicol, Docusate Sodium, Senna)

Increased appetite. Risk of significant weight gain. Difficult to manage! Ensure the patient is provided with advice on the importance of healthy diet and regular strenuous physical exercise.

212
Q

What blood monitoring is required with clozapine and why?

A

Baseline FBC, CRP and Troponin-T level. Weekly FBC for the first 18 weeks of treatment, then every two weeks up to one year, then four-weekly thereafter. CRP and Troponin-T level should be checked weekly for the first six weeks.

  • Risk of agranulocytosis associated with Clozapine. This risk is greatest in the first six months following initiation of Clozapine. Hence the need for regular FBC monitoring.
  • Risk of myocarditis associated with Clozapine. This risk is greatest in the first few weeks following initiation of Clozapine. Myocarditis may be picked up by a raised Troponin-T level and raised CRP.
213
Q

What are the core symptoms of depression?

A

Low mood, anhedonia, and anergia

214
Q

What are psychotic symptoms and when do they appear in depression?

A

Delusions, hallucination, and depressive stupor. This occurs in severe depressive episodes only.

215
Q

What investigations should be done for the patient presenting with depression?

A

Exclude organic causes with FBC, U&Es, Vitamin B12, bone profile, TFTs, LFTs, Folate level, and diabetes screen. Exclude illicit substance use or medication side effects, screen for bipolar depression rather than unipolar depression and make sure symptoms have been present for more than 2 weeks.

216
Q

How is the severity of depression scored?

A
  • Mild: 2 core symptoms and 2 other symptoms
  • Moderate: 2 core symptoms and 4 other symptoms
  • Severe: 3 core symptoms and 5 other symptoms
217
Q

When is ECT used?

A

Electroconvulsive therapy: This is used in treatment resistant depression and is first line treatment in psychotic depression with a 90% response rate. This can be unilateral or bilateral. Unilateral is less likely to cause cognitive impairment but bilateral is more effective. Usual course is 8-12 sessions, twice weekly. Can give maintenance ECT as well as treatment course.

218
Q

What are the social interventions for depression?

A

Regular exercise, sleep hygiene, healthy diet, reduced alcohol intake, address financial concerns and address housing issues.

219
Q

How should SSRIs be monitored?

A

For people not at risk of suicide: Arrange initial review within on week for people less than 30 who have been started on an antidepressant and 2 weeks for over 30s. Arrange subsequent reviews every 2-4 weeks for 3 months and if response is good then longer intervals can be considered.

Duration of treatment: NICE guidelines are 6-9 months treatment following resolution of single depressive episode. For recurrent depressive disorder continue 2 years. Antidepressants should not be discontinued abruptly. Risk of recurrence of depression is high (85%) and increases with each episode.

220
Q

What is bipolar affective disorder?

A

This is otherwise known as manic depression. It classically presents with periods of prolonged and profound depression alternating with periods of excessively elevated and/ or irritable mood (mania). A milder form is called hypomania and subclinical presentation is cyclothymia.

221
Q

How is bipolar affective disorder classified?

A

At least two episodes, one of which must be hypomanic, manic or mixed, with recovery usually complete between episodes. Criteria for depressive episodes are the same as for unipolar depression. Separate category (“manic episode”) for hypomania or mania (with or without psychotic symptoms) without history of depressive episodes.

Mixed episodes:
1. Occurrence of both manic / hypomanic and depressive symptoms in a single episode, present for every day for at least two weeks (ICD-10).

  1. Typical presentations include:
    * Depression + overactivity / pressure of speech
    * Mania + agitation and reduced energy / libido
    * Dysphoria + manic symptoms (with exception of elevated mood)
    * Rapid cycling (fluctuating between mania and depression - four or more episodes / year)
222
Q

What is the epidemiology of bipolar affective disorder?

A

Lifetime risk is 1% and average age of onset is around 20. Equal in men and women and over 90% of patients who have a single manic episode will have further episodes. 15% of bipolar patients commit suicide.

223
Q

What is aetiology of bipolar affective disorder?

A

Interaction between genes and environment similar to depression. Heritability is up to 80%, first degree relatives with BPAD means 7x increased risk. Most important environmental risk factor is childbirth (risk of mania post-partum). Structural and functional abnormalities to brain regions linked to emotion have been identified including an association between increased levels of monoamines and mania.

224
Q

How does mania present in bipolar?

A

Distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, with three or more characteristic symptoms of mania. Episode should last at least one week, or less if hospital admission is necessary. Disturbance is sufficiently severe to impair occupational and social functioning. Psychotic features may or may not be present.

Clinical features of mania: Elevated mood, overactivity, pressured speech (flight of ideas), racing thoughts, reduced need for sleep, increased self-esteem, overoptimistic ideation, grandiosity, reduced social inhibitions, overfamiliarity, facetiousness, reduced attention, increased distractibility, tendency to engage in dangerous behaviour, aggressiveness, suspiciousness, and marked disruption of work and social activities.

225
Q

What is hypomania?

A

Three of more characteristic symptoms lasting at least four days and clearly different from individuals’ normal mood. It is not severe enough to interfere with social or occupational functioning and does not include psychotic features. This shares symptoms with mania, but evident to a lesser degree and do not significantly disrupt work or lead to social rejection.

226
Q

How should mania/hypomania be treated?

A

Discontinue the antidepressant, commence antipsychotic (Quetiapine, Risperidone, or Olanzapine), patient may require a short course of diazepam if there is behavioural disturbance and consider short-term use of a hypnotic (Zopiclone or Zolpidem) to help sleep.

227
Q

How do depressive episodes in bipolar present and how are they managed?

A

Clinical features are similar to unipolar depression. They appear to be more rapid in onset, more severe, shorter, more likely to involve delusional thinking, hyperphagia, and hypersomnia than unipolar depression. Most effective treatment is Olanzapine and Fluoxetine.

Other SSRIs may be effective but should be avoided unless individual benefit is obvious. Alternative first-line options are Quetiapine, Olanzapine, Lurasidone, Lamotrigine and Sodium Valproate. Consider Lithium Carbonate. Antidepressants can precipitate manic/hypomanic episodes.

228
Q

What is the prophylaxis for bipolar affective disorder?

A

Consider a mood stabiliser after remission of a manic episode. First line is Lithium Carbonate or Depakote. (Depakote must not be used in women of childbearing age due to teratogenicity of neural tube defects).

Second-line is Carbamazepine (CYP450 inducer and so can lower serum level of some medications and make them less effective).

Lamotrigine should be considered if the patient is more prone to bipolar depressive episodes rather than manic.

Psychotherapeutic interventions: Psychoeducation (staying well plan), CBT, interpersonal therapy, family therapy, and support groups.

229
Q

What are the ICD criteria for a manic episode?

A

Presence of elevated mood (or irritable and suspicious mood),
accompanied by increased energy, resulting in overactivity, the pressure of speech and a decreased need for sleep. Normal social inhibitions are lost, attention cannot be sustained and there is often marked distractibility. Self-esteem is inflated, and grandiose or over-optimistic ideas are freely expressed. The individual may embark on extravagant and impractical schemes, spend money recklessly, or become aggressive, amorous, or facetious in inappropriate circumstances.

  • The episode should last for at least one week and should be severe enough to disrupt ordinary work and social activities more or less completely.
230
Q

What are the criteria for detention under the mental health act?

A

You can be detained if: you have a mental disorder, and, you are unwell enough to need to be in hospital for an assessment, and professionals think you should be in hospital for your own health or safety, or to protect other people.

231
Q

What is the mechanism of action for SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs?

A
  • SSRI = selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. Include: Escitalopram, Citalopram, Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Fluvoxamine and Sertraline. Work by
    selective presynaptic blockade of serotonin re-uptake pumps.
  • SNRI = serotonin and noradrenaline re-uptake inhibitor. Include: Venlafaxine and Duloxetine. Work by presynaptic blockade of both serotonin and noradrenaline re-uptake pumps. At high doses, they also cause dopamine blockage. Negligible effects on muscarinic, histaminergic and α adrenergic receptors.
  • TCAs = tricyclic antidepressants include: Amitriptyline, Lofepramine, Clomipramine, Imipramine.

Work by presynaptic blockade of both serotonin and noradrenaline re-uptake pumps (and, to a lesser extent, dopamine). They also cause a blockade of muscarinic, histaminergic and α-adrenergic receptors.

232
Q

What are the side effects of lithium carbonate?

A

Side effects of lithium carbonate: Polydipsia, polyuria, weight gain, peripheral oedema, fine resting tremor, and worsening of psoriasis or other skin conditions.

Lithium toxicity presents in a serum lithium level of 1.5-2 with nausea, vomiting, apathy, coarse tremor, ataxia, and muscle weakness. In a serum level of 2+ there may be nystagmus, dysarthria, impaired consciousness, hyperactive tendon reflexes, oliguria, hypotension, convulsions and coma.

233
Q

How should acute lithium toxicity be managed?

A

Treatment for acute lithium toxicity is with supportive management, stop lithium carbonate, ensure adequate hydration (IV fluid is necessary), monitor renal function and electrolyte balance, consider haemodialysis if needed and if the lithium carbonate is to be restarted do so very cautiously.

There is an increased risk of lithium toxicity through interactions with NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors and diuretics

234
Q

What are the clinical indications for ECT?

A

Catatonia, schizophrenia, prolonged severe manic episodes and treatment-resistant depression.

235
Q

What is the definition of a personality disorder?

A

Enduring, persistent, and pervasive disorders of inner experience and behavioural that cause distress or significant impairment in social functioning. These must not be due to other mental disorders and should be out of keeping with social and cultural norms.

236
Q

How are personality disorders classified?

A
  • Acquired: These develop after and is directly related to recognisable insult.
  • Acquired Organic results when this insult is some form of brain damage or disease such as a brain tumour or stroke.
  • Specific group include onset in adolescence or early adulthood. It is difficult to find a causal relationship between personality traits and any one specific insult.

There are three clusters:
Cluster A: Paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal

Cluster B: Emotionally unstable, Dissocial (antisocial), Narcissistic, and Histrionic

Cluster C: Dependent, avoidant, and obsessive-compulsive (anankastic)

237
Q

What are the features of paranoid personality disorder?

A

Suspects others are exploiting, harming, or deceiving them. They may doubt fidelity, bears grudges, have a tenacious sense of personal rights, and have litigiousness.

238
Q

What are the features of schizoid personality disorder?

A

Emotional coldness, no desire or enjoyment of sexual relationships, prefers solitary activities, takes pleasure in few activities, and is indifferent to praise or criticism.

239
Q

What are the features of schizotypal personality disorder?

A

Eccentric behaviour, odd beliefs or magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, ideas or reference, suspicious or paranoid ideas, vague or circumstantial thinking and social withdrawal.

240
Q

What are the features of emotionally unstable personality disorder?

A

Unstable, intense relationships (idealisation and devaluation), unstable self-image, impulsivity (sex, substance abuse, binge eating, and spending), chronic feelings of emptiness, repetitive suicidal or self-harm behaviour, fluctuations in mood, frantic efforts to avoid abandonment, transient paranoid ideation, pseudo hallucinations, and periods of dissociation.

241
Q

What are the features of dissocial (antisocial) personality disorder?

A

Repeated unlawful or aggressive behaviour, deceitfulness, lying, reckless irresponsibility, lack of remorse or incapacity to experience guilt and often have a conduct disorder in childhood.

242
Q

What are the features of narcissistic personality disorder?

A

Grandiose sense of self-importance and need for admiration.

243
Q

What are the features of Histrionic personality disorder?

A

Dramatic, exaggeration expressions of emotion, attention seeking, seductive behaviour, and labile shallow emotions.

244
Q

What are the features of dependent personality disorder?

A

Excessive need to be cared for, submissive clinging behaviour, needs others to assume responsibility for major life areas and fear of separation.

245
Q

What are the features of avoidant personality disorder?

A

Hypersensitivity to critical remarks or rejection, inhibited in social situations and fears of inadequacy.

246
Q

What are the features of OCD/anankastic personality disorder?

A

Pre-occupation with orderliness, perfectionism and control, devoted to work at the expense of leisure, pedantic, rigid, stubborn and overly cautious.

247
Q

What is the aetiology of personality disorder?

A

There are various environmental and biology/genetics factors. MZ twins show higher concordance for PDs than DZ twins, Cluster A more common with 1st degree relatives with schizophrenia, schizoid and schizotypcal are neurodevelopmental disorders associated with autism, depressive disorders linked with EUPD, early adverse social circumstances are linked with cluster B, childhood abuse and EUPD, and disordered attachment with parents is seen in many personality disorders.

248
Q

How should personality disorders be assessed?

A

Patients present at time of crisis so initial diagnosis is difficult. Assessment should identify sources of distress to self and others, co-morbid mental illness, and specific impairments of functioning at work/home/social circumstances. History should include education, employment, criminality, relationships and sexual behaviour. Obtain a collateral history where possible.

Recognise that strong emotional reactions may be elicited by patients with personality disorder (transference and counter transference). Try to remain non-judgemental and self-rating questionnaires can be helpful in diagnosis of a personality disorder.

249
Q

How are personality disorders managed?

A

Consider admission to hospital with caution as personality disorders benefit little from prolonged hospital admission but is necessary when a patient is in crisis or presents with co-morbid mental disorders. Longer term admission for treatment may be undertaken. Crisis in personality disorders may occur secondary to life events, relationship problems or in context of comorbid mental illness.

Patients will need an individualised plan with psychological and practical support. There should be monitoring, supervision, and potential for crisis intervention. Comorbid mental disorders should be treated.

250
Q

What is the prognosis for personality disorders?

A

This is a lifelong condition so prognosis is poor. Children with antisocial behaviour are 5-7 times more likely to develop antisocial personality disorder compared to those presenting with other problems. Up to 50% of patients with EUPD will not meet the criteria in 20 years time.

50% of schizotypal personality disorder patients will develop schizophrenia.

251
Q

How is impulsive type EUPD diagnosed?

A

Impulsive type: The general criteria of personality disorder must be met, the patient must have a marked tendency to quarrelsome behaviour and conflict with others (especially when impulsive acts are thwarted or criticised), and one of the following:

  1. Marked tendency to act unexpectedly and without consideration of consequences.
  2. Liability to outbursts of anger or violence, with inability to control resulting behavioural explosions.
  3. Difficulty maintaining any course of action that offers no immediate reward.
  4. Unstable and capricious mood.
252
Q

How is borderline EUPD diagnosed?

A

Borderline type: The general criteria for personality disorder must be met, three of the impulsive type criteria met, and at least 2 of the following:

  1. Disturbances in, and uncertainty about, self-image/aims/internal preferences (including sexual).
  2. Liability to become involved in intense and unstable relationships, often leading to emotional crises.
  3. Excessive efforts to avoid abandonment.
  4. Recurrent threats or acts of self-harm.
  5. Chronic feelings of emptiness.
253
Q

What is the epidemiology and aetiology of EUPD?

A

Epidemiology: Prevalence is between 1-6% with higher prevalence in younger people and a M: F of 1:3. Lifetime suicide risk is 9%.

Aetiology of EUPD: There is a very strong link with childhood sexual abuse and associated with poor employment history and being single. Often co-morbid, especially with depression, anxiety, eating disorders and illicit substance use.

254
Q

How should EUPD be managed?

A

Management of EUPD: These patient should not be discriminated against, require a tolerant optimistic approach, and recognition that changes may evoke strong emotions. Co-morbidities should be treated.

Crisis management: Develop a crisis management plan in conjunction with the patient, detailed self-management strategies, sources of support, and details on how to access emergency care. Diazepam can be useful to alleviate distress during a crisis. This should only be given in very small quantities. Use the crisis team before admitting to hospital.

Hospital admission may be necessary if there is significant risk to self or to others that cannot be managed in the community. Agree with the patient the length and purpose of any admission to hospital. Re-visit the patient’s care plan after the crisis has evolved.

Short-term management: There is no psychotropic medication licensed for use in EUPD but can be used for co-morbidities. Benzodiazepines can be used short-term for crises. Antipsychotics may be useful for pseudo-psychotic symptoms. SSRIs may be helpful in depressive and OCD symptoms or impulsivity and self-harming behaviour. Mood stabilisers may be useful in aggression, impulsivity and mood stability.

Psychosocial management: Supportive psychotherapy provides an authority figure during times of crisis, regular contact with a healthcare professional can provide a sense of containment, psychoeducation is helpful, MDT to facilitate coping strategies, and address any social issues.

Long term management: Addressing and modifying maladaptive personality traits can take years. Many EUPD patients will disengage with treatment. The two modalities of psychotherapy should include dialectical behavioural therapy (DBT) and mentalisation-based therapy (MBT). CBT can be adapted and cognitive analytic therapy may be useful. Occasionally psychodynamic psychotherapy and therapeutic communities may also be used.

255
Q

What are the clusters of personality disorders?

A
  • Cluster A (MAD) which includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders
  • Cluster B (BAD) which includes emotionally unstable (borderline), dissocial (antisocial), histrionic and narcissistic personality disorders
  • Cluster C (SAD) which includes dependent, avoidant (anxious) and obsessive compulsive (anankastic) personality disorders
256
Q

Summarize the features of EUPD

A

EUPD features are emotional instability/dysregulation, affective (mood) instability, lack of impulse control, outbursts of violence or threatening behaviour in response to criticism, unclear self-image/aims/preferences, chronic feelings of emptiness, and liability to become involved in intense and unstable relationships.

There are two variants of EUPD: Impulsive type and borderline type. Both subtypes share themes of impulsiveness and lack of self-control.

EUPD may experience quasi (transient) psychotic symptoms which usually occur at times of crisis or distress. They may be precipitated by triggers such as reminders of abuse. The symptoms last less than 2 days and affect not more than 2 areas of life (circumscribed). The main types of psychosis reported in EUPD are paranoid, auditory pseudo-hallucinations and visual hallucinations. There is an absence of bizarre delusional thinking in quasi psychotic symptoms seen in individuals with EUPD.

257
Q

What is the aetiology of challenging behaviour in intellectual disability

A
  • Biological factors: Physical health morbidity (infection/pain), genetic syndromes (fragile X syndrome and Lesch Nyhan syndrome), mental illness, autism spectrum disorder, and brain injury in childhood may be associated with frontal lobe syndrome.
  • Psychological factors: History of neglect, bullying, physical and sexual abuse
  • Life events: Bereavement, unemployment and financial concerns
  • Communication difficulties
  • Sensory impairment
  • Environmental factors: Loud noise or changes to routine

Physical health conditions which can be screened for should include UTI, URTI, constipation, dental problems, reflux, thyroid dysfunction, anaemia, B12 deficiency, hypocalcaemia and any condition that causes pain.

258
Q

What syndromes are associated with challenging behaviour in intellectual disability?

A

Lesch Nyhan syndrome is associated with significant self-injurious behaviour. This is an X linked recessive condition presenting with impaired renal function, gouty arthritis, and self-injurious behaviour.

Prader Willi syndrome is associated with obsessions, hyperphagia, and mood fluctuations. This is caused by Chromosome 15 deletion. Symptoms include strabismus, speech delay, sleep disorders, infertility, hypogonadism, and hypotonia. They may have almond shaped eyes, small hands with tapering fingers, obesity, stretch marks and skin picking.

Fragile X syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning difficulties. It is an X-linked FMR-1 gene CGG repeat. It presents with a long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, large testes, flat feet, mitral value prolapse, autistic features, and anxiety.

259
Q

How should challenging behaviour in intellectual disability be assessed?

A

Describe the behaviour and use a formal rating scale such as the aberrant behaviour checklist or adaptive behaviour scale. Assess physical and mental health comorbidities. History should explore developmental history, triggers and impact of behaviour.

He should have a full physical examination focussing on abdominal (constipation), feet (ingrown toenail), ears (infection) and any signs of weight loss. Bloods should include FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs, bone profile, Vitamin B12, serum folate, HbA1c, and lipid profile.

Other investigations which may be warranted include H pylori, vitamin D, serum prolactin, urine dipstick, hearing test, sight test, dental check, and CT head if there are indications for any of these.

260
Q

How should challenging behaviour in intellectual disability be managed?

A

Positive behavioural support (preferred approach), treat comorbidities, staff training, communication and sensory guidelines, environmental changes and psychotropic medication to treat comorbid mental illness.

An Antipsychotic can be considered if there is no response to psychological intervention, comorbid mental illness is not controlled, or there is a risk to the person or others without sedation. Only offer antipsychotics in combination with psychological or other interventions. Chlorpromazine and Trifluoperazine are licenced for short term use. Risperidone is used for autism and aggression and can be used long term. Aripiprazole may also be used off licence long-term. Lithium is used for aggressive or self-harming behaviour.

261
Q

What are the principles of assessing capacity?

A

1) A presumption of capacity (assume a person has capacity unless proved otherwise).

2) Individuals should be supported to make their own decisions (do not treat people as incapable of making a decision unless all practicable steps have been tried to help them).

3) Unwise decisions (a person should not be treated as incapable of making a decision because their decision may seem unwise).

4) Best interests (always do things or take decisions for people without capacity in their best interests).

5) Least restrictive (before doing something to someone or making a decision on their behalf, consider whether the outcome could be achieved in a less restrictive way.)

262
Q

What is the two-stage of capacity and what are the requirements of capacity?

A

The Two stage test of capacity:
- Does the person have an impairment of their mind or brain?
- Does the impairment mean the person is unable to make a specific decision when they need to?

The requirements of capacity are:
1. Understand the information relevant to the discussion
2. Retain the information for long enough to make a decision
3. Use of weigh up the relevant information as part of the process of decision making
4. Communicate their decision back by any means of communication

263
Q

Who is involved in the MDT for intellectual disability with challenging behaviour?

A

MDT could involve the community intellectual disability nurse, intensive support team, SALT, OT for sensory assessment and psychiatrist for diagnosis and consideration of psychotropic medication.

264
Q

What are positive behavioural support plans?

A

PBS plans are person-centred, and values based. They try to ensure the person is living the best life that they can, achieve meaningful outcomes, reduce physical interventions and restrictive processes, conduct detailed investigations as to the causes of such behaviour, consideration of health/psychological/occupational/environmental needs, analysis of predictive factors, and identify any patterns of problem behaviour which could be disrupted.

265
Q

Summarise fragile X syndrome

A

Long face, broad forehead and prominent ears are seen in Fragile X syndrome. This requires genetic testing. Fragile syndrome is caused by an increase (expansion) in the number of CCG repeats (>200) on the fragile C mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1) on the X chromosome. X-linked dominant!

266
Q

What are the main features of autism spectrum disorder?

A

The three main features of ASD are abnormality in reciprocal social interaction, abnormalities in social communication, and restricted/stereotyped/repetitive behaviour. There must also have been an abnormal development prior to the age of 3 such as a delay in speech. The ICD-11 recognises sensory sensitivities in autism. The DISCO assessment tool can be used for childhood autism.