GP Notes Flashcards

1
Q

How should a question on medical complexity be discussed?

A

Medical Complexity is conceptually regarded as a combination of multiorgan system involvement from chronic health condition(s), functional limitations,
ongoing use of medical technology, and high resource need/use.

Medical complexity can largely be broken down into medical, mental illness, patient behaviour, socio-economic and resources.

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2
Q

What are the componants of the FeverPAIN score

A

F – Fever in past 24 hours
P – Purulent tonsils
A – Attend rapidly (under 3 days)
I – Inflamed tonsils
N – No cough or coyza

Score:
0-1 = no antibiotics
2-3 = 3 day back up antibiotic prescription
3 = Immediate antibiotic or 48 hour delay

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3
Q

What are the components of the Centor Score?

A
  1. Exudate or swelling
  2. Tender/swollen anterior cervical nodes
  3. Temperature over 38
  4. No cough

Score:
0-1 = No antibiotics
2-3 = Culture
4 = Antibiotics

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4
Q

What drug should be given for anaphylaxis?

A

As soon as anaphylaxis is recognised 0.5mg IM Adrenaline must be given.

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5
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A

Anaphylaxis is a severe, life threating, systemic hypersensitive reaction (type 1). It involves respiratory difficulty and/or hypotension (which may present as fainting, collapse, or loss of consciousness). Patients do not have to have both to be in anaphylaxis.

There is always a rapid onset of symptoms. Skin changes can include urticaria, erythema or angioedema. 80% will have skin changes. There will be a history of exposure to an allergen.

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6
Q

What are the causes of anaphylaxis?

A

Causes of anaphylaxis can include nuts, wasp stings and drugs. These are the three most common causes. There are many potential causes.

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7
Q

How should anaphylaxis be managed?

A

Every patient should be assessed with the ABCDE approach. Diagnosis is dependent on finding the acute onset of illness, life-threatening airway or circulation problems, and potential skin changes. Call for help, raise the patient’s legs, and give 0.5mg IM Adrenaline. Then establish an airway, high flow oxygen, IV fluid challenge (500-1000 crystalloid stat), Chlorphenamine (10mg IM or slow IV), Hydrocortisone (200mg IM or slow IV) and monitor SATs, ECG, and BP.

Patients should then be admitted and observed for 6-12 hours. Biphasic reaction can occur in 20%. Mast cell tryptase at baseline and 2 hours later can be used for monitoring. In the community, patients should be given 2x Epi-Pens and organise an immunology follow up. Patients should call an ambulance even if they use their epi-pen and it works.

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8
Q

What is the inverse care law?

A

The inverse care law states that the availability of good medical care tends to vary inversely with the need for it in the population served. – Tudor Hart

This means that those who need it most are least likely to receive it. He believed nullifying market trends in healthcare would reduce this burden.

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9
Q

How should complex conversations in GP be approached?

A

Doctor factors: Tiredness/burnout, lack of empathy, not listening, poor job satisfaction, poor communication skills, rushed, personality, feelings, personal problems and illness

Patient factors: No diagnosis, no treatment, health beliefs, impaired quality of life, emotions, personality, expectations, cultural and language barriers, PMH, psychosocial history and inequalities.

System factors: Lack of resources, long waiting times, overstretched system, lack of time, overbooking, inadequate IT and cancelled clinics.

Health beliefs can be cultural, generational, socioeconomic factors, trends, media, religion and spiritual beliefs. These are involved in every patient encounter.

Safety netting was introduced by Roger Neighbour. The aim is for the doctor to answer these three questions:
- ‘If I am right, what do I expect to happen?’
- ‘How will I know if I am wrong?’
- ‘What would I do then?’

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10
Q

What is Palliative care?

A

Palliative care is defined as ‘the active, holistic care of patients with advanced progressive illness.’ This commonly means managing symptoms such as pain, SOB, anxiety, agitation, constipation, nausea, vomiting, hiccups, depression, psychological distress, spiritual distress and financial problems.

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11
Q

Who is involved in palliative care in the community?

A
  • GP role: Co-ordinate care, DNACPR and prescribing palliative care medication
  • Community Nurse: Often main co-ordinator and provider of palliative care, administer palliative care medication, wound dressings and holistic support to the family and social care.
  • Macmillan nurse: Work embedded within the NHS teams but funded by Macmillan charity. They are subspecialised into chemotherapy, paediatrics, breast ect… They provide practical and emotional support as well as clinical advice for the MDT.
  • Community Palliative Care Team: Provide advice and support to patients, family and GPS and sometimes will take over management. They facilitate patients visiting hospice, support or end of life care. They also have access to physio, OT and alternative therapy services.

GPs are ideally placed to manage palliation because they are likely to know the patient and their family, which allows them to have difficult conversations such as DNACPR and end of life care. GPs can make pragmatic decisions about medications, investigations and admission to hospital. They are also used to managing uncertainty and multi-morbidity.

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12
Q

What are the cultural factors involved in palliative care?

A

Cultural differences in death and dying can include rituals before/after death, what to do with the deceased body and how quickly (MRI scanners are owned by some religious institutions to allow for rapid post-mortem), who is allowed to be present at death and grieving behaviour.

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13
Q

What is the GOLD standard framework? (GSF)

A

Gold Standard Framework is a standardised method of describing where a patient is on their journey from illness to end-of-life care. This should be reproducible across different healthcare settings and professionals. The starting question is, ‘would you be surprised if this patient died in the next 6-12 months?’

Aims of GSF include:
1. Identify patients to enable proactive care
2. Assess their needs and those of their carer
3. Plan their care involving patient family and MDT where appropriate.

There is a palliative care register in every practice which is discussed at the GSF meeting every 12 weeks. GSF meetings involve community nurses, palliative care team and macmillan nurses. The aim is for a proactive rather than reactive approach to patients reaching end-of-life care.

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14
Q

Describe the GSF stages

A

GSF stages:
- Green: Death expected in the next months
- Amber: Death expected within weeks
- Red: Death expected in the next couple of days to week

  1. Green GSF are expected to die within 6-12 months. They are clinically stable but have advancing frailty or could deteriorate quickly.

These patients need to be referred for benefits, assessed for carer needs, discussion about the patients and family’s future plans, discuss worries, spiritual and psychological, DNAR, advanced care planning, living will/advanced directives, and lasting power of attorney.

  1. Amber GSF are expected to die within the next weeks and patient deterioration may be noticeable week by week. “Hope for the best and plan for the worst.”

This is an opportunity to revisit holistic and carers assessment to see if anything has changed such as reduced mobility, need for hospital or OT. The DS1500 form provides the higher rate of benefits straight away without the normal 6month delay. DNAR and LPOA should be doubled checked. Respite, symptomatic care, and anticipatory meds should be prescribed at this stage. There should be a medication review for medications that do not provide symptomatic relief or that cause adverse effects. Stopping drugs can be a difficult conversation as family may see it as giving up.

  1. Red patients are expected to die within the next couple of days to a week and will be deteriorating day by day.

Anticipatory medications should be in place and there should be provision of a syringe driver. All non-essential medications should be stopped and required medication should be given sub-cut if there is swallowing issues. Patient comfort and symptom control are paramount goals. Preferred place of death is an important discussion.

Advanced care planning is a form which structures the consultation around end of life care and should be filled out for all patients on the GSF pathway.

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15
Q

How should management plans for MSK disorders be structured?

A

Lifestyle

Self-management

Pharmacotherapy

Injection Therapy

Surgical interventions and rehabilitation

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16
Q

What general lifestyle management can be used for MSK conditions?

A

Promote physical activity, highlight the importance of diet and nutrition on MSK health (adequate vitamin D for bone health), advice about the effects on smoking, obesity, and inactivity. Promoting lifestyle advice can be helped with referral and social prescribing. Patients who are frail should be advised on adapting to their physical environment to promote independence.

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17
Q

What general self-management can be used for MSK conditions?

A

Optimise the patient’s activity, mobility, and independence. Explore the consequences of patients’ actions and inactions regarding their health and recognise that MSK conditions are often associated with mental health issues, frailty, and multimorbidity. Refer individuals to psychological therapies ad counselling services, advise on adaptation that will reduce the impact of their MSK injury, self-help guidance, and support.

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18
Q

What general pharmacotherapy can be used for MSK conditions?

A

Common analgesia includes paracetamol, NSAIDs, Opiates, neuropathic agents, corticosteroids, and specialised drugs such as allopurinol. Always discuss patient expectations including the expected benefits and limitations. Signpost patients to further information, review the response to medication by assessing the risk-benefit ratio, polypharmacy, frailty, and cognitive impairment. Refer to a pain specialist if there is problems managing pharmacotherapeutically.

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19
Q

What general injection therapy can be used for MSK conditions?

A

Indications for therapeutic injections include OA (knee and hands), inflammatory arthritides, adult and juvenile RA, gout and pseudogout, and spondyloarthropathies. Soft-tissue injections can be used for bursitis, carpal tunnel syndrome, epicondylitis, and tenosynovitis.

Corticosteroid injections relieve pain, reduce inflammation, improve mobility, can be diagnostically beneficial, and may be injected with local anesthetics to provide rapid pain relief.

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20
Q

What general surgical options are there for MSK conditions?

A

These can include joint replacements and arthroscopies depending on co-morbidities, frailty and expectations for recovery. PT/OT post-surgery is immensely beneficial.

21
Q

Describe the diagnosis and management of pernicious anaemia

A

Pernicious anaemia should be tested for with B12 and MCV (normal in 1/3) so must also include anti-intrinsic factor antibodies as this is the most specific test for PA. It is very specific but not very sensitive.

Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disorder which usually presents in over 70s and is very rare. The patient may have atrophic gastritis due to the autoimmune parietal cell damage causing hypochlorhydria and reduced intrinsic factor production. Therefore, all patients should be offered an OGD.

B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia. Symptoms can be neurological, neuropsychiatric or GI. Management: Lifelong B12: prompt treatment can reverse anaemia and CNS symptoms. Diagnosis often delayed/missed: insidious onset/non-specific and symptom overlap diagnostically. Complications long-term: gastric cancer (think Iron Deficiency Anaemia/upper GI red flags)

22
Q

Describe thrombocytosis

A

Thrombocytosis is when another disease causes a elevated platelet count. History taking should focus on risk factors and symptoms for cancer. Consider referral for colonoscopy or other assessments in secondary care.

23
Q

Which tumours are associated with thrombocytosis?

A

LEGO-C – tumours associated with thrombocytopenia. This stands for lung, endometrial, gastric, oesophageal, and colorectal.

24
Q

Describe the management of suspected coeliac disease

A

Coeliac is associated with lymphoma. OGD is not needed if TTA is 10x upper limit of normal. All patients should have pneumococcal vaccinations every 5 years because of their risk of splenic dysfunction.

It is an autoimmune enteropathy of the small bowel, mucosal inflammation (gluten exposure), villous atrophy, and malabsorption. More common in women. Presenting features include GI, lethargy, infertility, amenorrhoea, B12/Vitamin D/Iron/Folate deficiency, abnormal LFTs, early onset osteoporosis, weight loss and failure to thrive. Complications include dermatitis herpetiformis, osteoporosis and gastrointestinal lymphoma.

25
Q

What are the causes of elevated ferritin?

A

Ferritin can be elevated by haemochromatosis, liver disease, porphyria, RA, chronic inflammatory diseases, hyperthyroidism, leukaemia, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, blood transfusions, alcohol abuse and iron supplementation. Women often present later because menstruation masks the results.

26
Q

How does iron overload present on FBC?

A

Raised ferritin and iron with high % transferrin saturation.

Therefore, a lower binding capacity is available so the total iron binding capacity will be low.

27
Q

Describe the causes, diagnosis and treatment of hereditary haemochromatosis

A

Hereditary haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition causing complications of iron overload. There is a defect of iron regulating hormone hepcidin (increased GI absorption of iron). There is also deposition in the liver, pancreas, heart, joint, skin and gonads. Consequences include cirrhosis, HCC, heart failure, arthritis, hypopituitarism, diabetes, ED and slate grey skin. Presenting symptoms are vague including fatigue, arthralgia, GI complaints, skin pigmentation, diabetes, and cirrhosis (bronze diabetes). Women present later because menstruation acts as venesection.

Mutations of the HFE gene cause iron overload and can include C282Y homogenous (80%) and H63D. Any patient diagnosed should be screened for cirrhosis. Management is with venesection and DEXA (osteoporosis).

Isolated ALT is a hepatitic pattern and there may be a mild thrombocytopenia (consider portal hypertension/cirrhosis). Synthetic function is assessed with albumin, bilirubin and pro-thrombin time which may indicate decompensating/failure.

The genetic test is HFE genotype, USS and refer to hepatologist (FIB4 score)

28
Q

Which conditions may cause low WBC count?

A

WCC is low in liver disease and hepatitis

29
Q

What is a cholestatic pattern of deranged LFTs?

A

Raised ALP and GGT > rise in ALT/AST. Bilirubin markedly raised.

30
Q

What is a hepatocellular pattern of deranged LFTs?

A

Rise in ALT/AST > Rise in ALP and GGT. Bilirubin is normal or mildly raised.

31
Q

What are the categories of CKD in relation to eGFR?

A

CKD 1: >=90
CKD 2: 60-89
CKD 3a: 45-59
CKD 3b: 30-44
CKD 4: 15-29
CKD 5: <15

32
Q

What are the stages of hyperkalemia?

A
  • Mild 5.5-5.9 mmol/L should be reviewed
  • Moderate - 6.0 – 6.4 mmol/L should have an urgent review and treatment
  • Severe - >6.5 mmol/L or ECG changes present should be treated as a medical emergency. This is cardiotoxic and thus a cause of sudden death
33
Q

Is calcium or adjusted calcium more accurate?

A

Calcium is less accurate than adjusted calcium because calcium is bound to albumin so it will fluctuate depending on albumin whereas adjusted calcium describes the amount that is usable.

34
Q

What are the stages of hypercalcemia?

A
  • Mild (often asymptomatic) from 2.6-3 mmol/L
  • Moderate (start to develop symptoms) 3.0-3.4 mmol/L which requires surgent assessment and admission if symptomatic
  • Severe (associated with malignancy) is >3.4 mmol/L which risks dysrhythmias, seizures, and decreased GCS and thus should be admitted immediately.
35
Q

What are the symptoms and causes of hyponatraemia?

A

Admit hyponatraemia under 126. Hyponatraemia causes nausea, vomiting, headaches, confusion, loss of energy, drowsiness, fatigue, restlessness, irritability, muscle weakness, spasms, cramps, seizures and coma.
Causes include renal failure, congestive heart failure, diuretics, antidepressants, analgesia, vomiting, diarrhoea, and excessive fluid intake. Treatment is with IV fluid and dialysis if needed.

36
Q

What are the causes of hypovolaemic hyponatremia?

A

Medications (diuretics), D+V, sweating, endocrine disorders (primary adrenal insufficiency), cerebral salt wasting, bowel obstruction, sepsis and pancreatitis

37
Q

What are the causes of Euvolaemic hyponatremia?

A

SSRIs, diuretics, secondary adrenal insufficiency, and hypothyroidism

38
Q

What are the causes of Hypervolaemic hyponatremia?

A

Volume overload, congestive heart failure, renal failure (AKI/CKD/Nephrotic syndrome), and cirrhosis with ascites.

39
Q

What is SIADH?

A

Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone is a disorder of impaired water excretion caused by the inability to suppress the secretion of antidiuretic hormone. This is most commonly caused by malignancy, pulmonary disorders (PE and LRTI), CNS disorders (SOL, CVA and trauma) and medications such as thiazide diuretics, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, vasopressin and oxytocin.

SIADH will show low serum sodium, but the urine is inappropriately concentrated compared to the serum. When the cause is treated it will resolve and may require fluid restriction.

There will be diluted plasma, concentrated urine (high osmolarity), and high urinary sodium. Therefore, sodium is being excreted inappropriately.

40
Q

What should always be remembered with a normal PSA?

A

A normal PSA does not exclude cancer (15%) so must be recorded in a clinical context.

41
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

This presents with numbness and tingling in the index, middle fingers and thumb. There may also be pain. This can be clinically tested for with Phalen’s and Tinnel’s test. Investigations should include a FBC/HBA1c/Calcium/TFTs/B12/Folate and possible a urine HVG. Conservative management is with activity modification, rest, ice, and wrist splint.

42
Q

Describe the presentation, causes and treatment of pityriasis versicolor?

A

This is a fungal skin infection where flaky discoloured patches appear on the chest and back. It commonly affects young adults and is slightly more common in men. It is more common in hot climates and in people who perspire heavily.

It is caused by mycelial growth of Malassezia fungi which are part of the normal skin microbiota. They usually grow sparsely on seborrheic areas such as the scalp, face, and chest and it is not known why they may progress to cause pityriasis versicolor. There are three types; Brown, pink and white which are thought to be due to different granules. It can be mildly itchy.

This is a clinical diagnosis but investigations can include a wood lamp, dermoscopy, microscopy of skin scrapings, fungal cultures, and skin biopsy for histopathology.

Treatment is with topical antifungal agents such as Selenium sulfide shampoo, topical azole creams (Ketoconazole/econazole) or Terbinafine gel. Systemic antifungals such as itraconazole and fluconazole are used when topical agents have failed. Encourage showering after exercise and antiperspirant sprays. Terbinafine orally is not effective.

Prevention is with reapplication of topical treatment such as selenium sulfide shampoo every month once the rash has cleared.

43
Q

How should an otoscope examination be presented?

A

When you can see the handle of the malleus and the cone of light you should mention this to the examiner.

44
Q

What causes retraction of the tympanic membrane?

A

Eustation tube dysfunction

45
Q

How should otitis externa be treated?

A

Otitis externa is usually bacterial (pseudomonas or staph) and can be fungal (aspergillus or candida) so a swab should be considered, especially if recurrent. Should be treated with 7-14 days of topical antibiotics and a steroid. Oral should be used if topical does not work. Acetic acid and quinolones can be used in patients with TM perforation.

46
Q

What is subconjunctival hemorrhage?

A

Subconjunctival hemorrhage is a benign self-limiting condition, but you should check for uncontrolled hypertension or coagulopathy. It is caused by rupture of superficial vessels on the conjunctiva.

47
Q

How should corneal abrasion be treated?

A

Corneal abrasion should be treated with removal of any foreign bodies, chloramphenicol drops to prevent infection or the development of a corneal ulcer, eye patch and analgesia.

48
Q

What is breakthrough bleeding?

A

Breakthrough bleeding with the COCP is a common side effect, it will likely settle if it occurs shortly after commencement and does not mean the COCP efficacy is reduced. If breakthrough bleeding occurs later on in COCP use, then consider pathologies.