Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pharmacological management of GAD?

A

step 1 - offer SSRI sertaline

step 2 - if sertraline is not effective - offer alternative SSRI such as paroxetine or escitalopram, or SNRI such as duloxetine or venlafaxine

if unable to tolerate SSRI or SNRI consider pregabalin

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2
Q

what are the risks for pregnant women taking SNRI or SSRI?

A

first trimester - risk of congenital heart defects

at 20 weeks - risk of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn and can lead to neonatal withdrawal - advised of these risks

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3
Q

what are some of the risk associated with clozapine?

A

agranulocytosis and neutropenia - most major

also causes hypersalivation
constipation - risk of bowel obstruction
myocarditis
reduced seizure threshold

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4
Q

what are the categories of depression based on the PHQ-9 scoring?

A

PHQ 9 < 16 = less severe depression

PHQ 9 > 16 = more severe depression

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5
Q

what treatment options are first line for less severe depression?

A

consider talking therapy/lifestyle first line if the patient is open for other options
self guided therapy
CBT etc

can consider antidepressants if it is the patients wishes

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6
Q

what are schneiders first rank symptoms?

A

auditory hallucinations
thought disorder
passivity phenomena
delusional perceptions

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7
Q

what are three different types of thought disorder?

A

thought wtihdrawal
thought insertion
thought broadcasting

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8
Q

what is passivity phenomena?

A

bodily sensations that are being controlled by external influences
actions/impulses/feelings - experiences which are imposed on the individual or influenced by others

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9
Q

what are delusional perceptions?

A

a two stage process whereby first a normal object is perceived, and then secondly there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the objects meaning for a patient - i.e. the traffic light is green therefore I am a king

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10
Q

what are the negative features of schizophrenia?

A

blutning of affect
anhedonia
alogia - poverty of speech
poor motivation
social withdrawal
catatonia

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11
Q

how should clozapine be initiated?

A

slowly, at lowest dose and titrated upwards

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12
Q

what should be done if clozapine dose is missed for 48 hours?

A

re-titrated upwards again slowly - under the direction of psychiatry team

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13
Q

how often are blood tests done for patients taking clozapine?

A

initially weekly for 18 weeks, then can be reduced as appropriate for the patient

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14
Q

what SE can happen if clozapine is re-titrated too quickly?

A

Side effects can include postural hypotension,
myocarditis, arrhythmias and tachycardia - can be LIFE THREATENING

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15
Q

how often are lipids + weight monitored for antipyschotics?

A

at the start of therapy
at 3 months
then annually

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16
Q

how often are fasting blood glucose and prolactin monitored for antipyschotic therapy?

A

at the start of therapy
at 6 months
annually

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17
Q

how often is ECG done when taking antipsychotics?

A

at start

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18
Q

how often is FBC/LFT/U+E monitored for antipyschotics?

A

at the start of therapy
annually

clozapine requires much more frequent monitoring of FBC

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19
Q

which sign is used to evaluate for functional neurological disorder?

A

hoovers sign

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20
Q

what are the features of PTSD?

A

re-experiencing e.g. flashbacks, nightmares
avoidance e.g. avoiding people or situations
hyperarousal e.g.hypervigilance, sleep problems

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21
Q

what is the treatment for PTSD?

A

can watch and wait for 4 weeks
trauma focussed CBT or EMDR can be used in severe cases
drug treatments - should not routine. If required - venlafaxine or SSRI’s should be used.

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22
Q

what are examples of SSRI’s?

A

sertraline
paroxetine
escitalopram
citalopram
fluoxetine
vortioxetine

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23
Q

what are common SE of SSRI’s?

A

GI SE are most common
increased risk of GI bleeds
serotonin syndrome
period of increased risk of symptoms worsening/suicide/self harm in first 2 weeks after starting

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24
Q

which 5 medications do SSRI’s interact with?

A

NSAID’s - increase risk of bleeding, prescribe PPI if starting

warfarin/heparin - advised to avoid

aspirin

triptans - increased risk of serotonin syndrome

MOAI’s - increased risk of serotoniin syndrome

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25
Q

which is the SSRI of choice if starting antidepressants after MI?

A

sertraline - considered safest immediately after MI

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26
Q

how long should SSRI’s be continued before withdrawing if symptoms improve?

A

6 months - this reduces the risk of a relapse

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27
Q

how should SSRI’s be stopped?

A

gradually reduced over 4 weeks

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28
Q

which SSRI has the highest risk of withdrawal symptoms when stopping?

A

paroxetine

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29
Q

what are some common withdrawal symptoms when stopping SSRI’s?

A

mood change
restlessness
difficulty sleeping
unsteadiness
sweating
GI symptoms
parasthesia

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30
Q

what are some examples of SNRI’s?

A

duloxetine
venlafaxine

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31
Q

what are some common examples of SE with SNRI’s?

A

nausea
dizziness
insomnia or drowsiness
sexual dysfunction
HTN

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32
Q

what are two more common SE of venlafaxine?

A

hypertension
prolonged Qt

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33
Q

what are 4 medications that SNRI’s interact with?

A

MAOI’s
triptans
antihypertensive
warfarin/anticoagulants

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34
Q

which section allows admission for assessment to hospital under MHA for 28 days?

A

section 2 - admission for assessment for 28 days - 2 independent doctors , one has to be approved under section 12(2)

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35
Q

which section allows hospital stay for up to 6 months under MHA?

A

section 3 -
admission for treatment for up to 6 months, can be renewed

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36
Q

can section 2 be renewed?

A

no - has to either be converted to a section 3 or patient discharged

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37
Q

what is a section 4?

A

72 hour assessment order
used in an emergency where section 2 would involve unacceptable delay
can be done by GP or AMHP or nurse
often changed to section 2 on arrival to hospital

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38
Q

which section is used to allow a nurse to detain a patient who is voluntarily in hospital for 6 hours?

A

section 5(4)

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39
Q

which section is used to allow a doctor to detain a patient for 72 hours who is already voluntarily in hospital?

A

section5(2)

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40
Q

what is a section 17a?

A

community treatment order
can be used to recall a patient to hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community i.e. if they stop taking their medication

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41
Q

what section is used by the police to break into a property to take a person to a place of safety?

A

section 135

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42
Q

what section is used by the police to take someone from a public space into a place of safety for 24 hours?

A

section 136

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43
Q

what is the therapeutic window for lithium?

A

0.4-1 mmol

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44
Q

where is lithium excreted?

A

renal

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45
Q

what are some common SE of lithium?

A

fine tremor
GI disturbance
weight gain
idiopathic intracranial hypertension
hypothyroidism
nephrotoxicity

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46
Q

which organs are affected by lithium?

A

kidneys - renally excreted, can cause nephrotoxicity and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

thyroid - causes enlargement, leading to hypothyroidism

heart - T wave flattening/inversion

brain - idiopathic intracranial hypertension

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47
Q

how long after lithium dose should monitoring blood test be taken?

A

12 hours post dose

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48
Q

how often should lithium monitoring levels be taken?

A

initially every week after starting until stable, then every 3 months

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49
Q

what blood tests are done for lithium monitoring?

A

lithium levels weekly until stable then 3 monthly

TFT + renal + calcium - 6 monthly

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50
Q

what are the physiological abnormalities in anorexia nervosa?

A

LOW K
LOW FSH/LH/testosterone/oestrogen
LOW T3

G’s and C’s HIGH - growth hormone, cholesterol, cortisol

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51
Q

how do you switch from fluoxetine to another SSRI??

A

gradually reduce fluoxetine, then leave a gap of 4-7 days, then start the new antidepressant

52
Q

how do you switch from citalopram/escitalopram/sertraline or paroxetine to venlafaxine?

A

direct switch (caution if paroxetine)

53
Q

which is the antidepressant of choice in teenagers and children

A

fluoxetine - started in secondary care

54
Q

how does tardive dyskinesia present?

A

chewing
jaw pouting
excessive blinking

55
Q

what is tardive dyskinesia?

A

extra pyramidal SE of long term antipyschotic use - presents as repetitive facial movements

56
Q

what are some examples of the extrapyramidal SE patients can experience with long term antipyschotic use?

A

parkinsonism
acute dystonia
akathisia
tardive dyskinesia

57
Q

what are the atypical antipsychotics?

A

clozapine
risperidone
olanzapine

58
Q

what are the typical antipyschotics?

A

haloperidol
chlorpromazine

59
Q

what are the risks of taking antipyshcotics in the elderly population?

A

increased risk of stroke + VTE

60
Q

what are some antimuscarinic SE of antipsychotics?

A

dry mouth
blurred vision
urinary retention
constipation

61
Q

what are the SE of antipyschotics generally?

A

antimuscarinic - dry mouth, blurred vision, retention, constipation
sedation
weight gain
impaired glucose tolerance
raised prolactin

62
Q

do antipsychotics reduce the seizure threshold?

63
Q

what effect do antipyschotics have on the QT interval?

64
Q

what scale is used to classify the symptoms of OCD?

A

Y-BOCS scale

65
Q

what is the treatment of mild OCD?

A

if functional impairment is mild - low intensity posychological treatments such as CBT or ERP (exposure and response prevention)

if this is insufficient - consider SSRI or more CBT

66
Q

what is the treamtnet of moderate OCD?

A

offer choice of SSRI or more intensive CBT
clomipramine is alternative to SSRI

67
Q

what is the treatment of severe OCD?

A

refer to secondary services
SSRI + CBT whilst waiting appt

68
Q

which antidepressant is recommended for body dysmorphia?

A

fluoxetine

69
Q

how should benzodiazepines be withdrawn?

A

in steps of 1/8th of the daily dose every fortnight

70
Q

how long must a patient stop driving for if stable bipolar and then develops manic episode?

71
Q

how long must a patient stop driving for if they have bipolar and are unstable, then develop a mani episode?

72
Q

how do you classify unstable bipolar disorder for the DVLA?

A

if 4 or more episodes of mood disturbance in 12 months

73
Q

what is the first line management of panic disorder?

74
Q

what is somatisation disorder?

A

presenting with multiple physical symptoms over 2 years, pt refuses to accept any reassurance or negative test results

75
Q

what is hypochondriasis?

A

persistent belief that there is a serious underlying disease

76
Q

which antidepressant is contraindicated in breast feeding?

A

citalopram

77
Q

which antidepressant is the ONLY medication licensed for PTSD?

A

sertraline
others can be used, but only sertraline is licensed

78
Q

what is the most common type of abuse?

79
Q

which questionnaire can be used to screen for eating disorders?

A

SCOFF questionnaire

80
Q

what is the SCOFF questionnaire made up of?

A

Do you ever make yourself SICK because you feel uncomfortably full?’
‘Do you worry that you have lost CONTROL over how much you eat?’
‘Have you recently lost more than ONCE stone in a 3-month period?’
‘Do you believe yourself to be FAT when others say you are too thin?’
‘Would you say that FOOD dominates your life?’

81
Q

what are feeding disorders?

A

disorders involving behavioural disturbances but not association to body weight or body image/shape concerns

82
Q

what are examples of feeding disorders?

A

PICA
avoidant restrictive food disorder
rumination regurgitation disorder

83
Q

which antidepressant has lowest risk of bleeding?

A

mirtazapine

84
Q

which medications are used in bipolar disorder?

A

sodium valproate
lamotrigine
lithium
olanzapine

85
Q

which antidepressant is chosen if the patient has co-current alcohol abuse?

A

mirtazapine
SSRI’s not found to be particularly helpful

86
Q

at how many hours foes the incidence of alcohol withdrawal seziures peak?

A

24-48 hours post withdrawal

87
Q

at how many hours does delirium tremens typically occur after alcohol withdrawal?

88
Q

how many hours after alcohol withdrawal do the symptoms start usually?

A

6-12 hours

89
Q

what is given for prophylaxis of alcohol withdrawl seizures?

A

diazepam or chlordiazepoxide (long acting benzos)
lorazepam in liver failure

90
Q

what are the symptoms of delirium tremens?

A

coarse tremor
confusion
delusions
auditory hallucinations
visual hallucinations
fever
tachycardia

91
Q

what should be monitored before starting SNRI?

A

BP - as increases the risk of HTN

92
Q

what should be monitored before starting citalopram?

A

ECG - increased risk of QT prolongation in patients with previous heart issues, so ECG should be done for high risk groups

93
Q

what is the management of acute dystonic reaction?

A

procyclidine

94
Q

how long are antidepressants recommended to be taken for GAD if symptoms have improved?

95
Q

what type of medication should be avoided when taking lithium, as it increases the risk of lithium toxicity?

A

NSAIDS - they reduce the excretion of lithium and increase the risk of toxicity

96
Q

what is the criteria for bulimia nervosa?

A

binge eating once a week for at least three months with compensatory behaviour (vomiting and excessive exercise) to prevent weight gain, and psychological features such as loss of control of his binge eating

97
Q

what are the two types of medications used to treat dementia?

A

cholinesterase inhibitors - donepazil, rivastigmine, galantamine

glutamate receptor antagonist - memantine

98
Q

what are the most common type of SE due to dementia medications?

99
Q

which blood tests should be done for monitoring of sodium valproate annually?

100
Q

when is postnatal depression most likely to occur?

A

0-5 weeks post natally

101
Q

what are the three options for smoking cessation treatment?

A

NRT
varenicline
bupropion

102
Q

how long should the prescription for NRT/varencline/bupropion be for?

A

sufficient to last only until 2 weeks past set expected quit date

103
Q

if someone is unsuccessful in stopping smoking with NRT/varencicline/bupropion - how quickly can they repeat the prescription?”

A

must be after 6 months

104
Q

what are examples of NRT?

A

patches
lozenges
gum
nasal spray

105
Q

can NRT be offered in combination?

A

yes - can offer combination of patches , lozenges, gum and nasal spray if single treatment was unsuccessful

106
Q

how does varenicline work?

A

nicotine receptor partial agonist

107
Q

when should varenicline be started?

A

should be started 1 week before the patients due stop date

108
Q

how do you take varenicline?

A

pill taken twice a day

109
Q

which is more effective - varenicline or bupropion?

A

varenicline

110
Q

how long do you take varenicline for?

A

12 week course

111
Q

what is the risks associated with varenicline?

A

should be used with caution for patient with history of self harm or depression - can increase the risk

112
Q

when is varenicline contraindicated?

A

pregnancy and breast feeding

113
Q

how does bupropion work?

A

a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and nicotinic antagonist

114
Q

when should buproprion started?

A

1 to 2 weeks before patients due stop smoking date

115
Q

what is the risk of taking bupropion?

A

small risk of seziure

116
Q

when is bupropion contraindicated?

A

epilepsy
pregnancy
breastfeeding
eating disorder - relative contraindication

117
Q

are women who are smoking tested during pregnancy

A

yes - using carbon monoxide detectors , if CO reading of 7ppm or above - refer to NHS stop smoking services

118
Q

what measures can be used to stop smoking in pregnancy?

A

first line - CBT, motivational interviewing, or structured self help and support from NHS stop smoking services
NRT if above fails

119
Q

how long can you not drive for while dependent on benzodiazepines?

A

3 years - must notify the DVLA, who will revoke license for minimum of 3 years which must be free of misuse or dependence

120
Q

what are contraindications for disulfuram?

A

cardiac failure
coronary aretery disease
CVA
HTN
psychosis
suicide risk

121
Q

what are contraindications for acamprosate?

A

hepatic impairement, renal impairement and pregnancy

122
Q

when can amphetamine users have their license back?

A

when abstinent for > 6 months

123
Q

how long should patients with alcohol addiction be abstinent for before they can have a group 1 licenes?

124
Q

how long should patients with alcohol addiction be abstinent for before they can have a group 2 license?