Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

By what age should the testes be descended?

A

by 3 months - if they are noted to not be descended at 8 week baby check, then advise to bring back to be re-examined at 3 months

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2
Q

what should be done if the testes are still not descended at 3 months?

A

refer to paediatric surgeons - to be seen before 6 months of age

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3
Q

what are the red flag features for sarcoma?

A

persistent fevers
pain - usually in one specific area, nocturnal and at rest
persistent localised swelling

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4
Q

what vaccination could be given at birth?

A

BCG - if comes from high risk country for TB

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5
Q

what vaccinations are given at 2 months?

A

“6 in 1” - diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B
Oral rotavirus vaccine
Men B

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6
Q

what vaccinations are given at 3 months of age?

A

“6 in 1” - diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hep B
Oral rotavirus
pneumonoccocal

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7
Q

what vaccinations are given at 4 months of age?

A

“6 in 1” - diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, hep B
Men B

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8
Q

what vaccinations are given at 12 months?

A

Hib/Men C vaccine (1st)
MMR (1st)
pneumococcal (2nd)
Men b (3nd dose)

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9
Q

what vaccination is given at 3-4 years?

A

“4 in 1” preschool booster - diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio
MMR

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10
Q

what is vaccination is given at 12-13 years?

A

HPV vaccine

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11
Q

what vaccination is given between 13-18 years?

A

3 in 1 teenage booster - tetanus, diphteria, polio
ACWY

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12
Q

what is the expected symptom duration of croup?

A

2 days

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13
Q

what is the expected symptom duration of sore throat?

A

2-7 days

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14
Q

what is the expected symptom duration of earache?

A

7-8 days

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15
Q

what is the expected symptom duration of common cold in children?

A

15 days

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16
Q

what is the expected symptom duration of bronchiolitis?

A

21 days

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16
Q

what is the expected symptom duration of nonspecific URTI?

A

16 days

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17
Q

what is the expected symptom duration of acute cough in children?

A

25 days

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18
Q

what infection causes fever, malaise, tonsillitis, strawberry tongue and then a fine sandpaper erythematous rash which starts on the trunk then spreads to extremities and around the mouth?

A

scarlet fever

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19
Q

what is scarlet fever?

A

toxin mediated infection caused by group A strep

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20
Q

what age does scarlet fever commonly affect?

A

2-10 years

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21
Q

what are the symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

prodromal phase of fever, nausea, vomiting, sore throat, headache 1-2 days before rash

then develops characteristic sandpaper type of rash which starts on the trunk and spreads to the arms and legs

desquamination of hands and feet in later stages

strawberry tongue

circumolar pallor

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22
Q

what is the management of scarlet fever?

A

pen V for 10 days

azithro/clari if pen allergic

supportive care

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23
Q

what are some possible complications of scarlet fever?

A

rheumatic fever
post-strep glomerulonephritis

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24
Q

is scarlet fever a notifiable disease?

A

yes

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25
Q

how long should a child stay off school with scarlet fever?

A

at least 24 hours after starting abx

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26
Q

what causes a sore throat, fever and then the development of vesicles on the mouth, palms and soles of feet?

A

hand foot and mouth (coxackie A16 virus)

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27
Q

what are symptoms of hand food and mouth disease?

A

viral illness - low grade fever, sore throat, malaise, poor appetite

followed by development of vesicles on the hands, mouth and feet - are non-itchy and non-blanching

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28
Q

what is the treatment of hand foot and mouth disease?

A

supportive treatment - resolves in 7-10 days

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29
Q

how long should children stay off school for with hand foot and mouth?

A

until feeling well - no exclusion applies

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30
Q

what infection causes a slapped cheek appearance?

A

erythema infectiosum - parvovirus b19

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31
Q

what causes slapped cheek?

A

parvovirus b19

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32
Q

what are the symptoms of erythema infectiosum/slapped cheek?

A

prodrome - 1 week before rash - low grade fever, malaise, headache, coryzal symptoms

phase 2: rash - slapped cheek on cheeks + lacy reticular rash on trunks and limbs - lasts for 1-3 weeks

phase 3: arthropathy - symmetrical polarthritis

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33
Q

management of slapped cheek/erythema infectiosum?

A

supportive care

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34
Q

what are some potential complications of slapped cheek/parvovirus?

A

aplastic crisis in sickle cell anaemia

hydrops fetalis - can cross placenta and cause heart failure - pregnant women need referring for serological testing

prolonged arthritis

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35
Q

is school exclusion required in erythema infectiosum / parvovirus b19?

A

no

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36
Q

what causes a pink maculopapular rash on the face, which spreads to the whole body?

A

rubella

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37
Q

what causes rubella?

A

rubella virus

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38
Q

what are the symptoms of rubella?

A

fever, malaise, coryzal symptoms
rash - pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads to the trunk/limbs within 24 hours and fades in 3 days
lymphadenopathy
forchemier spots - petechiae on soft palate

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39
Q

what is the management of rubella?

A

notifiable disease
supportive

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40
Q

what are complications of rubella?

A

congenital rubella syndrome - triad of senosorineural deafness, cataracts, heart defects

encephalitis

thrombocytopenia

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41
Q

what is the school exclusion recommendations for rubella?

A

4 days after onset of rash

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42
Q

what causes prodromal viral phase, followed by parotitis?

A

mumps

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43
Q

what causes mumps?

A

mumps virus

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44
Q

what are the symptoms of mumps?

A

prodromal viral phase 1-2 days
painful bilateral parotid gland swelling
tenderness at mandibular angle
difficulty chewing /swallowing

orchitis
pancreatitis
aseptic meningitis
encephalitis

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45
Q

management of mumps?

A

supportive - resolves in 7-10 days

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46
Q

what are some complications of mumps?

A

orchitis - subfertility
meningitis
pancreatitis
encephalitis
hearing loss - rare but permanent

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47
Q

school exclusion advice for mumps?

A

stay off school for 5 days after swelling strted

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48
Q

how is mumps spread?

A

respiratory droplets and saliva

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49
Q

what causes kolpik spots, and blochy maculopapular rash that starts behind the ears and spreads to the rest of the body?

A

measles

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50
Q

what causes measles?

A

causes by measles virus

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51
Q

how does measles spread?

A

highly contagious - through water droplets

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52
Q

what is the incubation period for measles?

A

10-12 days prior to symptoms

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53
Q

what are the symptoms of measles?

A

high fever, coryza, cough, conjunctivits
kolpik spots - white spots on buccal mucosa
maculopapular rash - starts behind the ears and at the hairline then spreads downwards, initially blanching then becomes non-blanching

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54
Q

what are common complications of measles?

A

acute encephalitis - happens in 1 in 1000 cases but when does happen 1 in 4 die
SSPE - encephalitis, occurs years later, fatal
pneumonia
diarrhoea
miscarriage, preterm birth, stillbirth

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55
Q

management of measles?

A

supportive

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56
Q

how long should children be kept off of school with measles?

A

4 days before and 4 days after rash

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57
Q

what causes whooping cough?

A

bordatella pertussis

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58
Q

what are the symptoms of whooping cough?

A

prodromal viral phase - 1-2 weeks

then whooping cough - worse at night, and after feeding
infants may have apnoeic spells
lasts for 2- 8 weeks

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59
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for whooping cough?

A

acute cough for more than 14 days with no apparent cause and has paroxysmal cough + inspiratory whoops, post-tussive vomiting or apnoeic attacks

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60
Q

how do you diagnose whooping cough?

A

nasal swab for brodatella pertussis

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61
Q

management of whooping cough?

A

infants under 6 months - admission
oral macrolide usually clari/azithro/erythro - if inset of cough within 21 days
household contacts should be offered abx prophylaxis

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62
Q

what is the school exclusion advise for whooping cough?

A

48 hours after commencing abx

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63
Q

what are some complications of whooping cough?

A

subconjunctival haemorrhage
penumonia
bronchiectasis
seizures

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64
Q

what causes croup?

A

parainfluenza virus - accounts for majority of cases

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65
Q

what is the age typically affected by croup?

A

6 months - 3 years

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66
Q

what are the symptoms of croup?

A

barking, seal like cough
stridor
worse at night
fever, coryzal

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67
Q

who should be admitted with croup?

A

moderate/severe croup
< 3 months of age
known upper air way abnormalities - downs syndrome, laryngomalacia
uncertain diagnosis

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68
Q

what constitutes as mild croup?

A

occasional barking cough
no audible stridor at rest
no or mild intercostal recession
child is otherwise well in self and happy

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69
Q

management of croup?

A

single dose of 0.15mg/kg to all children regardless of severity
pred is alternative if dex not available

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70
Q

what is the emergency treatment of croup?

A

high dose O2
neb adrenaline

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71
Q

what causes acute epiglottitis?

A

haeomphilus influenza type B

72
Q

symptoms of acute epiglottitis?

A

rapid onset
drooling
stridor
tripod position - leaning forwards, neck in seated position

73
Q

management?

A

NO exam of throat
immediate anaesthetics support
needs O2 usually intubated
IV abx

74
Q

what is seen on XRAY for acute eppiglotits?

A

thumb sign
steeple sign

75
Q

what age is bronchiolitis most common?

A

< 1 year old

76
Q

what causes bronchiolitis?

A

RSV virus in 75-80% of cases

77
Q

symptoms of bronchiolitis?

A

coryzal symptoms
dry cough
increased breathlessness
wheezing/fine insp crackles
feeding difficulties

78
Q

what is the criteria for immediate admission of child with suspected bronchiolitis?

A

apneoa reported or observed
child looks seriously unwell
severe resp distress- grunting, chest recession, RR > 70
central cyanosis
SpO2 < 92%

79
Q

what is the crtieria for “considering” hospital referral for bronchiolitis?

A

RR > 60
< 50% oral intake
clinical dehydration

80
Q

what is the school advice re chickenpox?

A

until all lesions crusted over - usually 5 days after onset of rash

81
Q

who should receive VZIG for chickenpox?

A

immuncompromised patients
new borns with exposure in perinatal period

82
Q

what is the incubation period of chicken pox?

A

10-14 days

83
Q

at what age does flat fleet resolve?

A

by 4-8 years
parental reassurance

84
Q

what age does intoeing resolve?

A

by 8-10 years old

85
Q

what age does out toeing reoslve?

A

usually by 2 years - if persistent , refer

86
Q

what age does bow legs resolve?

87
Q

what age does knock knees resolve?

A

spontaneously

88
Q

what hearing test is used for newborns?

A

aautomated otoacoustic emission test p small soft tipped earpiece is placed in the baby’s ear which sends a clicking sound to the cochela. The presence of a soft echo indicates normal cochlea

89
Q

what test is done if the audiologist finds the automatated otoacoustic emission test to be inconclusive?

A

auditory brainstem response test

90
Q

when is pure tone audiometry done?

A

done at school age

91
Q

when should you refer a baby that cannot sit without support?

A

aged 12 months

92
Q

at what age should you refer a baby that cannot walk unsupported?

93
Q

and what age can a baby squat to pick up a toy?

94
Q

what age can babies crawl?

95
Q

what age can babies roll front to back?

96
Q

at what age can children hop?

97
Q

what age can children walk up stairs without holding on to rail?

98
Q

at what age does pyloric stenosis typically present?

99
Q

symptoms of pyloric stenosis?

A

projectile vomiting
constipation
dehydration
failure to thrive
falling off weight chart
palpable mass in upper abdomen

100
Q

what is pyloric stenosis caused by?

A

hypertrophy of the circular muscles in the pylorus

101
Q

how do you diagnose threadworms?

A

usually clinical but can use sellotape test

102
Q

what is the management of threadworms

A

mebenazole oral one off dose
treat all household members

103
Q

what is caput succedaneum?

A

fluid collection with poorly defined margins caused by the pressure of the presenting part of the scalp against the dilating cervix (tourniquet effect of the cervix) during delivery. For the purpose of exams, this swelling would cross suture lines. The swelling is also present at birth and typically over the vertex.

104
Q

what is cephalhaematoma and how can you tell?

A

does not cross suture lines
haemorrhoage between the skull and periosteum - limited to bone lines
can present 2-3 days after birth

105
Q

at what age to children develop hand dominance?

A

18 months - if shows hand dominance prior to this - is a RED FLAG for cerebral palsy

106
Q

what is osgood schlatter disease?

A

most common in sporty teenagers
due to tibial apophysitis

107
Q

symptoms of osgood schlatter disease?

A

pain tenderness and swelling over the tibial tubercle
worse with exercise, relieved with rest

108
Q

what is chondromalacia patallae?

A

softening of the cartilage of the patella

109
Q

who is chrondromalacia patellae more common in?

A

teenage girls

110
Q

what are the symptoms of chondromalacia pattella?

A

anterior knee pain on walking up and down the stairs, and rising from prolonged sitting

111
Q

management of chondromalacia patallae?

112
Q

symptoms of osteochondritis dissecans?

A

pain after excersise
intermittent swelling and locking

113
Q

what is osteochondritis dissecans?

A

Subchondral bone (beneath cartilage) loses blood supply → necrosis → cartilage weakens → fragment detaches

The loose fragment may remain partially attached or become a free-floating “joint mouse”, leading to locking and mechanical symptoms

114
Q

what is infectious mononucleosis?

A

infection with EBV

115
Q

what are the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis?

A

typically fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy

116
Q

how is infectious mononucleosis spread?

A

droplet - kissing disease

117
Q

what is the incubation period of infectious mononucleosis?

118
Q

management of infectious mononucleosis?

A

supportive
avoid penicillins - causes rash
avoid contact sports for 3-4 weeks due to risk of splenic injury

119
Q

symptoms of fragile X?

A

fragile masculinity - big head and big balls to overcompensate, bit stupid

macrocephaly, long face, long ears, macro-orchidism, learning difficulties

120
Q

symptoms of prader willi?

A

fat, floppy and small balls
obestiy, learning disability, hypogonadism, hypotonia

121
Q

symptoms of pierre - robin syndrome?

A

pierre- french waiter - thin face/jaw, speaks in funny accent

micrognathia (thin face/jaw), posterior tongue displacement, cleft palate

122
Q

williams syndrome?

A

small, playful boy who is foolish but has a big heart

short stature, friendly/extrovert, learning difficulties, supravalvular stenosis

123
Q

symptoms of noonan syndrome?

A

No neck N

webbed neck, narrow pulomonary vessels , pectus excavatum

124
Q

pataus syndrome?

A

pin head passau

cleft palate, polydactyl, microcephaly

125
Q

cri cu chat syndrome symptoms?

A

french translation = cat , cats head

microcephaly, migrognathia and small larynx

126
Q

when should you refer a child who has not started smiling?

127
Q

what is the algorithm of paediatric basic life support?

A

unresponsive?
shout for help
open airway
look listen feel
give 5 rescue breaths
check for ciruculation
then 15 compression to 2 rescue breaths

128
Q

what is the ongoing management of a child < 6 months with UTI?

A

abx acutely
refer for renal USS (6 weeks after infection) + DMSA (4-6 months)

129
Q

which is first line abx for pyelonephritis in a child?

130
Q

what is the genetic abnormality in turners syndrome?

131
Q

why is it not safe to give rotavirus vaccine after 15 weeks?

A

risk of intersussception

132
Q

treatment of cradle cap?

A

reassurance that it doesn’t affect the baby and usually resolves within a few weeks
massage a topical emollient onto the scalp to loosen scales, brush gently with a soft brush and wash off with shampoo.
if severe/persistent a topical imidazole cream may be tried

133
Q

what hip condition typically occurs in overweight male children?

134
Q

what is slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

rare hip condition - where the femoral head displaces postero-inferiorly

exact aetiology is unclear - thought to be due to growth/hormonal factors

135
Q

what are the symptoms of SUFE?

A

hip pain or knee pain exacerbated by movement
limping or altered gait
limited internal rotation of the hip
leg length discrepancy

136
Q

how is SUFE diagnosed?

A

refer for XR - shows ice cream cone appearance

137
Q

what is the management of SUFE?

A

surgical intervention - to prevent further slippage and complications

138
Q

what are some complications of SUFE?

A

avascular necrosis of the femoral head
persistent deformity

139
Q

what is chondromalacia patallae?

A

softening and deterioration of the cartilage of the underside of the patella usually due to overuse

140
Q

what causes chondromalacia patellae?

A

Overuse – common in runners, cyclists, and athletes with repetitive knee bending.
Muscle weakness/imbalance – particularly weak quadriceps or tight hamstrings can cause the patella to track abnormally.
Poor biomechanics – flat feet, knock knees, or high-arched feet can lead to improper knee movement.
Previous trauma – a history of knee injuries can predispose to chondromalacia.

141
Q

what are the symptoms of chondromalacia patellae?

A

dull aching anterior knee pain worse with movement
crepitus
mild swelling occasionally

142
Q

management of chondromalacia patellae?

A

physiotherapy
rest , ICE

143
Q

what should be monitored in children taking methyphenidate for ADHD?

A

growth - stimulant, reduces appetite, need to ensure growth remains stable, check every 6 months

144
Q

what are examples of cyanotic heart disease?

A

tetralogy of fallot
transposition of the great arteries
tricuspid atresia

145
Q

what are examples of acyanotic heart disease?

A

VSD
ASD
PDA
coarctation of aorta
aortic valve stenosis

146
Q

what are the features of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Very Pale And Really Tired
V - ventricular septal defect
P - pulmonary stenosis
A - aorta overriding
R - right ventricular hypertrophy
T - tetralogy of fallot

147
Q

what condition is VSD associated with?

A

downs syndrome

148
Q

what are the symptoms of VSD?

A

mild - asymptomatic
moderate - FTT, poor feeding, SOB
severe - FTT, poor feeding, SOB, sweaty, pale, unwell

149
Q

what are the signs of VSD?

A

thrill
pansystolic murmur at LLSB
loud S2

150
Q

what is the most common acyanotic heart defect?

151
Q

what is the second most common acyanotic heart defect?

152
Q

what are the symptoms of ASD?

A

typically asymptomatic
can haev recurrent chest infections

153
Q

what are the clinical findings of ASD?

A

ejection systolic murmur at ULSB
splitting of the 2nd sound

154
Q

what is the most common heart defect associated with preterm neonates?

155
Q

what are the symptoms of PDA?

A

small - asymptomatic
moderate - CHF, FTT
large - CHF, FTT, poor feeding, recurrent chest infections

156
Q

what murmur is associated with PDA?

A

continuous machinery murmur

157
Q

what heart defect is associated with turners syndrome?

A

coarctation of the aorta

158
Q

what are the symptoms of coarctation of the aorta?

A

symptoms present 3-5 days after birth when the duct closes
absent femoral pulses
cold extremities
SOB
murmur heard between scapula

159
Q

management of suspected reflux in baby who is breast feeding?

A

trial of gaviscon

160
Q

management of suspected reflux in a baby who is bottle fed?

A

reduce feeds to 150ml/kg/24 hours

feed thickener trial for 1/2 weeks

alginate for 1/2 weeks

PPI for 4 weeks

refer for endoscopy if no improvement

161
Q

what type of scan is used to diagnose vesicoureteric reflux?

A

micturating cystogram

162
Q

what is vesicouretric reflux?

A

abnormal back flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter and kidney - urters are displaced laterally so they enter the bladder in a more perpendicular fashion, which causes backflow

163
Q

how does vesicuourteric reflux present?

A

can be picked up antenatally - hydronephrosis on US
can also present as recurrent UTI

164
Q

how much emollient should be used per week in a child with eczema?

A

250-500 grams per week

165
Q

what are the rules around applying steroids and emollients together?

A

emollient first
wait 30 mins
then steroid

166
Q

what is the age definition of precocious puberty?

A

development of sexual characteristics before 8 years in females and before 9 years in males

167
Q

what causes roseola infantum?

168
Q

what age does roseola infantum typically affect?

A

6 months to 2 years

169
Q

what are the features of infantum roseola?

A

high fever for few days then -
maculopapular rash
papular enanthem on the uvula and soft palate
febrile convulsions common - 10-15%
diarrhoea and cough commonly occur

170
Q

what are the school exclusion rules with roseola infantum?

A

school exclusion not needed

171
Q

what is a common SE of monteleukast?

A

nightmares

172
Q

what is the dose of IM ben pen given in meningitis to < 1 year old?

173
Q

what is the dose of IM ben pen given in meningitis 1-10 year old?

174
Q

what is the genetic variation in Turners syndrome?

A

presence of only one sex chromosome
45 XO

175
Q

what are the symptoms of turners syndrome?

A

if very short + primary amenorrhoea = think turners

short stature
webbed neck
wide space nipples
high arched palate
multiple pigmented naevi

176
Q

what are the causes of physiological jaundice inthe first 24 hours?

A

rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
hereditary spherocytosis
glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase

177
Q

what are some causes for prolonged jaundice (usually > 14 days) ?

A

biliary atresia
hypothyroidism
galactosaemia
urinary tract infection
breast milk jaundice
prematurity
congenital infections - CMV, toxoplasmosis