Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of noninvasive neuromodulation and what are they used for?

A

Electroconvulsive therapy
Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Mostly for refractory depression, ECT also used for BD, schizophrenia/schizoaffective disorder, catatonia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which eating disorder is most commonly comorbid with BD?

A

Binge eating disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Main treatments for binge-eating disorder?

A

Psychotherapy (esp CBT)
SSRIs (e.g. fluoxetine)
Lisdexamfetamine (amphetamine derivative), topiramate (reduce weight gain/impulsiveness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the stress diathesis model, sustained elevated cortisol leads to what physical change in the brain?
Is this reversible?

A

Hippocampal shrinkage due to cortisol blocking BDNF —> emotional dysregulation, memory loss
Antidepressants + stress management can mostly reverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the first 5 individuals on the SDM hierarchy

A

1) Guardian
2) POA for personal care
3) Representative from consent/capacity board
4) Spouse (incld common law and “most important primary person in both individuals’ lives)
5) Child/parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who is at the bottom of the SDM hierarchy if no family can be found?

A

Public guardian and trustee (government representative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What act applies to both incapacity for mental health and medical treatment? Which act only applies to mental health treatment? What form is required?

A

Mental Health Act only to mental health
Health Care Consent Act to both
Form 33 ONLY REQUIRED FOR MENTAL HEALTH; for medical, rights advisor doesn’t need to be notified, the HCP can tell the pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Form 1 allows what?

A

You have 7 days to apprehend pt
Can be detained for psych evaluation for 72 hours at a schedule 1 facility
Physician signing form must have seen pt in the last 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a form 42?

A

Notice to pt they are under form 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Form 1 allows detention but not ____. What else do you need to issue?

A

NOT TREATMENT! (unless emergency)

Need Form 33 to provide treatment w/out consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a form 2?

A

Same conditions as form 1 but issued by Justice of the Peace

Allows police to bring personal to hospital but doesn’t authorize detainment (doc needs to issue form 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a Form 3?
Who fills it out?
How is patient notified?

A

Certificate of involuntary admission (14 days)
CANNOT be filled out by same physician as Form 1
Form 30 notifies pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a Form 4? 4A?

A

After form 3 expires –> Form 4 for 1 month, 2 months then 3 months, then 4A (certificate of continuation) = 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Form 50 = confirmation of ___

Given by who to who?

A

Rights advise (given by Rights Advisor to physician who issued form 33)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 2 diff criteria for a Form 1 or 2?

A

Box A: Risk of harm to self or others PLUS evidence of a mental disorder
Box B: need to treat (had past effective treatment for mental disorder that could result in serious harm to self/others, current episode likely to be same)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you have evidence of mental disorder for Form 1 Box A?

A

1) Past/Present Test: evidence of risk/danger (HPI, history)
2) Future Test: evidence to support findings of mental disorder causing the risks above (MSE etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If you use Box B criteria you must ALWAYS have a finding of ____

A

Incapacity (also issue for 33!)

+ SDM consent obtained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 core (positive) symptoms of psychosis?

A

1) Delusions
2) Hallucinations
3) Disorganization (speech, thought, behaviour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name 4 general categories of what can cause psychosis

A

1) Primary psychotic disorder (schizophrenia, schizoaffective, etc.)
2) Mood disorders (MDD, BD)
3) Substances
4) Organic etiologies (neuro, dementia, hypothyroid, delirium, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is orientation generally affected in psychiatric psychosis vs delirium

A

Psychosis: usually intact
Delirium: often very affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What can happen to sleep-wake cycle in psychiatric psychosis

A

Day-night reversal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are ventricles affected in schizophrenia? What other areas of the brain are affected?

A

Ventricles enlarged

Frontal lobe & cortical grey matter atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DSM-V criteria for schizophrenia

A

2 or more of the following present 1+ months: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech/behaviour, apathy/affective flattening

+Marked decline in social/occupational functioning

6+ months duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 4 dopamine pathways (+projects from where to where)

A

1) Mesolimbic (VTA of midbrain –> nucleus accumbens (ventral basal ganglia)
2) Mesocortical pathway (VTA –> frontal cortex)
3) Nigrostriatal (SN –> striatum)
4) Tuberoinfundibular (hypothalamus –> pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define anasognosia

A

Lack of ability to perceive the reality of your own illness (lack of insight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is schizophreniform disorder?

A

Same as schizophrenia but 1-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is brief psychotic disorder?

A

Same as schizophrenia/schizophreniform but <1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name 7 different Levels of Consciousness categories

A

1) Alertness
2) Somnolence (easily aroused)
3) Lethargy
4) Obtundation
5) Stupor (need STRONG external stimulus)
6) Coma (eyes closed, no response, weak/absent reflexes, but preserved ABCs unlike braindeath)
7) Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What 3 things are assessed in the Glasgow coma scale?

A

1) Eye opening response
2) Verbal response
3) Motor response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are decorticate and decerebrate responses? Which is worse?

A

Abnormal posturing responses to noxious stimuli
Decorticate = upper body flexion (better) = damage to corticospinal tracts above midbraine
Decerebrate = upper body extension (worse) = upper pontine damage
Both have legs extended + feet plantar flexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pathophysiological process underlying delirium

A

Acute encephalopathy (diffuse process in brain, no structural lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Common etiologies of delirium

A

Infections

Withdrawal
Acute metabolic disorders (AKI, liver failure, electrolytes)
Trauma
CNS pathology (stroke, tumor)
Hypoxia (anemia, HF, COPD, PE)
Deficiencies (B12, folate, thiamine)
Endocrine (DKA, hyper/hypothyroid, adrenal crisis)
Acute CV collapse/MI
Toxins/drugs
Heavy metals

Also: ongoing constipation, urinary retention, pain, vision/hearing loss, dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is oxybutynin and how does it relate to delirium?

A

It’s a muscarinig antagonist used to treat urge incontinence

Anticholinergics are a RF for delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is sundowning?

A

Phenomenon where delirium usually worsens in the evening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is psychomotor activity affected in delirium?

A

May be hypoactive (esp in elderly), hyperactive/agitated (esp in substance use/withdrawal), or mixed (most common in gen pop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) for assessing delirium

A

1) Acute onset change in mental status, fluctuating
2) Inattention
AND
3) Altered consciousness (hypervigilant or decreased)
OR
4) Disorganized thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name 4 important labs to do in delirious patient regardless of suspected etiology

A

CBC (anemia, WBCs)
BMP (glucose, urea/creatinine, electrolytes)
LFTs
Urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Based on the possible etiologies of delirium, what other tests might you order

A
CT/MRI head, EEG, LP
CXR
ECG/echo
B12, folate, thiamine
Urine/serum toxicology
Cultures
TSH, cortisol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Delirium is reversible when the underlying condition is treated but…

A

May sometimes persist for several weeks after correction, potentially requiring hospital admission for that time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Nonpharm methods to treat/prevent delirium

A

Reorientation, family members, pain relief/comfort, adequate sleep (reduce noice), reduce delirium-inducing drugs, vavoid restraints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Meds to treat delirium if nonpharm measures insufficient and posing risk to self/others

A

1) Antipsychotics (esp HALOPERIDOL)

2) Benzos (lorazepam) - ONLY for pts w/ alcohol or benzo withdrawal (antipsychs have seizure risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Definition of Binge-Eating Disorder

A
Recurrent binge eating w/out purging at least once per week for 3 months
Lack of control over amount of food consumed w/ at least 3 of:
- eating must faster
- eating until uncomfortably full
- when not physically hungry
- alone because embarrassed
- feeling disgusted/guilty/depressed
Market distress!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

DSMV definition of Major Depressive Order (9 traits)

A

At least 5 (mood and/or anhedonia MUST be present) nearly every day for 2 weeks: (SIG ME CAPS)

Sleep
Interest (anhedonia)
Guilt/worthlessness feelings

Mood (depressed)
Energy (fatigue)

Concentration difficulties
Appetite changes
Psychomotor activity changes
Suicidal ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Definition of Dysthymia (Persistent Depressive Disorder)

A

1) Depressed mood for most of day, more days than not, 2+ years (never 2 months w/out in this period)

HE’S SAD

Hopelessness
Energy (low)
Self esteem (low)
Sleep (more or less)
Appetite changes
Decision-making/concentration impaired
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

After how much time does grief meet criteria for diagnosis? What is this disorder called?

A

Persistent Complex Bereavement Disorder
>6 months for youth
>12 for adults

*Diff than MDD because focused on the loss, generally not suicidal. But diff than grief because of more emptiness, loss of joy in other things, numbness, etc that doesn’t pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the difference between mania and hypomania

A

Duration + severity
Mania = 1+ week (unless v severe e.g. psychosis)
Hypomania = 4+ days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the symptoms characterizing mania/hypomania (7)

A

3+ of the following: DIGFAST

Distractibility
Indiscretion (risk-taking)
Grandiosity (increased confidence)

Flight of ideas
Agitation (psychomotor)/activity increased
Sleep need reduced
Talkative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why do pts need treatment for hypomania?

A

It’s generally actually pleasant but you need to stabilize mood because of MDEs which are often much more frequent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How are Bipolar I & II defined?

A

Type II = hypomania + at least 1 MDE

Type I = at least 1 manic episode (MDE not required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Define cyclothymic disorder

A

2+ years (1 year in children/adolescents) periods of hypomanic & depressive symptoms that never meet criteria for hypomania, mania, or MDE
Symptoms present at least half the time and never absent for 2+ months within the 2 eyars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

60% of patients with MDD have a comorbid..

A

Anxiety (or related) disorder
also 1/3 of anxiety pts suffer form MDD!
(diff stat: 80% of patients with anxiety disorders during the course of their illness will present with secondary depression)
EITHER WAY VERY COMORBID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the criteria for GAD?

A

Excessive & hard-to-control anxiety/worry most days for 6+ months

WATCHERS
Worry, Anxiety (required)
3+ of:
Tension (muscles)
Concentration difficult or mind going "blank"
Hyperarousal/irritability
Energy (easily fatigued)
Restlessness
Sleep disturbance

*+Distress/impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the main anxiety disorders?

A

1) GAD
2) OCD
3) Panic disorder
4) PTSD
5) Social anxiety disorder
6) Specific phobias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

6 criteria of PTSD

A

TRAUMAS
1) TRAUMA Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence (direct, witnessing, learning about it)
2) REEXPERIENCING - Intrusion symptoms associated with the events (dreams, flashbacks, physiological reactions)
3) AVOIDANCE Persistent avoidance of associated stimuli
4) UNABLE to function
MONTH (lasts >1 month)
5) AROUSAL - Altered arousal/reactivity (incld sleep disturbance)
6) SELF - Negative alterations in cognitions/mood (negative beliefs, distorted cognitions, detachment, anhedonia, memory issues, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

More correct term for antipsychotics = ?

Difference between Typicals (old) & Atypicals (new)

A

Dopamine blockers (because also used as antidepressants, mood stabilizers)
Typicals: D2 blocker
Atypicals: D2 & 5HT2a, more expensive, typically less EPS

56
Q

Dopamine blockade in schizophrenia (treatment) leads to what symptoms in the 4 pathways

A

Mesolimbic –> reduce positive symptoms
Mesocortical –> may increase neg symptoms!
Nigrostriatal –> EPS
Tuberoinfundibular –> hyperprolactinemia

57
Q

Biggest ADEs of typical vs atypical antipsychotics

A

Typicals: EPS, anti-cholinergic, sedation
Atypicals: metabolic syndrome, strokes, QT prolongation (–> afterdepolarizations)

58
Q

What are some side effects of clozapine?

A

Agranulocytosis (need very freq bloodwork!)
Sialorrhea
Constipation (co-prescribe laxatives)
Anticholinergic effects

59
Q

What type of antipsychotics are aripiprazole & brexpirazole?

A

3rd gen, dopamine “balancers” (partial agonists) –> improve positive & negative
Also impacts serotonin receptors
*also have EPS

60
Q

List 6 SSRIs by brand name

A

1) Prozac
2) Paxil
3) Luvox
4) Zoloft
5) Celexa
6) Cipralex/Lexapro

61
Q

Typical antipsychotics often end in ____ or ___
Atypicals often end in ___ or ___; ___ = 3rd gen
(not always)

A

-ine or -ol = typicals (chlorpromazine, haloperidole)
-pine or -done = atypicals (clozapine, olanzapine, quentiapine, risperidone)
zole = 3rd gens

62
Q

What is SSRI poop-out?

A

Drug that was previously working stops (not a compliance issue)

63
Q

Fluoxetine =

A

Prozac (SSRI)

64
Q

Sertraline =

A

Zoloft (SSRI)

65
Q

Citalopram =

A

Celexa (SSRI)

66
Q

Escitalopram =

A

Cipralex/Lexapro (SSRI)

67
Q

What are SNRIs?

A

Selective Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (BOTH S & N!)

68
Q

SNRIs have what additional side effect compared to SSRIs?

A

Increased BP

69
Q

What are NDRIs? What is the only drug in this class? Other purpose?

A

Norepinephrine/dopamine re-uptake inhibitors
Bupropion (Wellbutrin, Zyban)
Also used to treat smoking

70
Q

Side effect pro/con of NDRIs?

A

Rarely impairs sexual dysfunction, little weight gain

Can cause seizures, increased BP, stimulating

71
Q

Duloxetine, venlafaxine = what drug class?

A

SNRIs

72
Q

What type of drug is mirtazapine (Remeron)? Prominent ADE?

A

NaSSA (noradrenergic/specific serotonergic antidepresents)

SEDATIVE side effect, good for depression w/ prominent INSOMNIA

73
Q

Moclobemide (Manerix) is what type of drug? Main ADEs?

A

rMAOIs
(reversible inhibitors of monoamine oxidase A)
Can cause stimulation/insomnia
Less tyramine issues than MAOIs

74
Q

Name 5 first-line classes of antidepressants

A
SSRIs
SNRIs
NDRIs
NaSSAs
rMAOI
75
Q

Serious side effects of TCAs

A

Mania
Cardiotoxicity in overdose
Anticholinergic/CV side effects

76
Q

What atypical antipsychotic is an option for unipolar depression?

A

Quentiapine

77
Q

What is an issue with traditional MAOis?

A

Need to avoid all tyramine-containing foods (fermented foods etc)
Hypertensive crisis can be caused by inhibition of tyramine removal

78
Q

What is the difference between med augmentation, combination, and switching in depression?

A
Augmentation = adding another drug that isn't an antidepressant
Combination = adding another AD
Switching = wean off then start something else
79
Q

In pts with BD an AD shouldn’t be prescribed before what? Why?

A

Shouldn’t be before mood stabilizes because AD can –> manic episode

80
Q

First line mood stabilizer. Mech of action?

A

Lithium
Inhibits excitatory NTs (dopamine/glutamate)
Promotes GABA-mediated neurotranmission

81
Q

Issue with lithium

A

Narrow therapeutic window, need to monitor, constant salt/fluid intake
Can cause kidney ADES (polyuria/dipsia due to salts, DI, lower GFR, kidney atrophy/sclerosis)

82
Q

Lithium toxicity can appear like..

A

Drunkenness

83
Q

What are 2 anticonvulsants that can be used as mood stabilizers

A

Valproate & carbamazepine

84
Q

What is the difference between valproic acid (Depakene) & divalproex (Epival)

A

Divalproex = 2 molecules + Na

salt is easier on GI tract

85
Q

Buspirone treats what?

A

Anxiety (anxiolytic)

“Don’t be anxious if the BUS doesn’t come at ONE”

86
Q

Idiosyncratic reaction to neuroleptics =

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

87
Q

Clinical features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Muscular rigidity, high CPK
Tachycardia & hyperthermia
Altered consciousness, dysautonomia

88
Q

How to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

D/C drug, supportive care, Dantrolene (muscle relaxant)

89
Q

Classic triad of serotonin syndrome

A

Neuromuscular excitability
Autonomic dysfunction
Altered mental status

90
Q

List 4 extrapyramidal side effects

A

1) Parkinson-like symptoms (rigidity, bradykinesia, resting tremor, gait abnormalities)
2) Dystonia
3) Akathisia (restlessness esp in legs –> pacing, excess movement)
4) Tardive dyskinesia

91
Q

Continuance of ideas from normal –> most abnormal

A

Normal
Circumstantiality (return to point, usually normal)
Tangentiality
Flight of ideas/loose associations/derailment
Incoherence/word salad

92
Q

Between reality & delusions are….

A

Overvalued ideas

93
Q

Over-sensitivity to sound =

A

Hyperacusis

94
Q

What is the SCOFF screening for eating disorders

A

Do you make yourself SICK because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you worry that you have lost CONTROL over how much you heat?
Have you recently lost more than ONE stone (~6.5) in a 3-month period
Do you believe yourself to be FAT when others say you are too thin?
Would you say that FOOD dominates your life?
(2+ –> likely AN or Bulimia)

95
Q

What is a structure that can be used for the Impression/Formulation on a psych history

A

4 Ps: Predisposing, precipitating, perpetuating, protective

within each, biological, psychological, social

96
Q

2-question approach to screen for depression?

A

1) During the past month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed, or hopeless?
2) During the past month, have you been bothered by little interest/pleasure in doing things?

97
Q

Low risk drinking guidelines for women & men (per day, special occasions, per week)

A

Women: 2, 3, 10
Men: 3, 4, 15

98
Q

DSM diagnosis of somatic symptom disorder

A

At least 1 somatic symptoms that is distressing (doesn’t need to be “medically unexplained”
Excessive thoughts/feelings/behaviours related to somatic symptoms/health (disproportionate thinking about severity, anxiety, excessive time/energy)
6+ months

99
Q

Components of “consultation letter” from a psychiatrist for a patient with somatic symptom disorder

A
  • take symptoms seriously, don’t say “all in your head”
  • don’t refer for investigation unless clear indication
  • regular visits w/ same physician w/ physical exam
  • reassurance + invitation to talk about personal life
100
Q

What is conversion disorder

A

Neuro symptoms w/out organic explanation (not intentional) causing distress

101
Q

What is the new term for hypochondriasis

A

Illness anxiety disorder

102
Q

What is pseudocyesis

A

False believe you’re pregnant + PHYSICAL signs of early pregnancy

103
Q

Factitious disorder can be ___ or ____

Goal?

A

Imposed on self or other

Goal = to get med attention/sympathy though goal can be unconscious

104
Q

OCD DMS criteria (3)

A

1) Presence of obsessions, compulsions, or both
2) Take >1 hour per day or cause significant distress/impairment
3) Not attributable to substance of or other medical conditions, or other mental disorder

105
Q

For OCD diagnosis specify if…

A

Level of insight (into OCD believes)

Good/fair, poor, or absent/delusional

106
Q

Define obsession

A
  • Recurrent thoughts/urges/images experienced as intrusive/unwanted, cause anxiety/distress
  • Person attempts to ignore or suppress such thoughts or neutralize w/ an action (compulsion)
107
Q

Define comuplsion

A

Repetitive behaviours/mental acts driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rigid rules
- aimed to reduce anxiety but not realistically connected to what you’re trying to neutralize

108
Q

Main non-pharm treatment for OCD

A

CBT (exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli + prevent compulsive response)

109
Q

Cluster A personality disorders

A

“Odd/eccentric”

1) Paranoid
2) Schizoid (disinterest in others)
3) Schizotypal (eccentric)

110
Q

Cluster B personality disorders

A

“Dramatic/erratic”

1) Antisocial
2) Borderline
3) Histrionic
4) Narcissistic

111
Q

Main characteristics of BPD

A

Persistent pattern of unstable relationships, self-image, emotions (dysregulation) + impulsivity

112
Q

Cluster C personality disorders

A

“Anxious/fearful”

1) Avoidant (afraid of rejection but actually want social contact)
2) Dependent
3) OCPD

113
Q

Antisocial personality disorder if <18?

A

Conduct disorder
OR
Oppositional defiant disorder if only within home

114
Q

Is BPD more prevalent in men or women?

A

Women more in clinic but 1:1 in genpop

115
Q

BPD is diff than histrionic/narcissistic PDs because..

A

Pt sees themself as “bad”

116
Q

Patients w/ BPD have a high risk of…

A

Suicide

117
Q

Drugs to treat panic attacked

A

Antidepressants
Benzos work factor but more adverse effects/withdrawal; combine then taper benzo as AD kicks in
BB can control HR

118
Q

Psychotherapy for panic disorders

A

Exposure therapy, CBT

119
Q

Panic attacks turn to panic disorders based on ____

A

Conditioned anxiety

120
Q

Diagnostic criteria of panic disorder

A
"STUDENTS Fear the 3Cs" (4 of 13)
Sweating
Trembling
Unsteadiness/dizziness
Derealization (feel surroundings aren't real)
Elevated HR
Nausea
Tingling
SOB
Fear of dying/going crazy
Chest pain
Choking 
Chills
\+ persistent worry about future attacks + maladaptive behaviour to avoid this
121
Q

Difference between avoidant personality vs social phobia

Commonality?

A

Avoidant can be life of party but not allow people to get close
Social phobics can’t got to parties/gatherings but can have enduring close friendships
Commonality = self-esteem issues

122
Q

Self-esteem in OCPD?

A

Low

123
Q

Problematic # of drinks in one sitting for men vs women?

Per week?

A

4 for women, 5 for men in one sitting

10 & 15 per week

124
Q

Canada’s low-risk drinking guidelines (day, special occasion, week)

A

Women: 2, 3, 10
Men: 3, 4, 15

125
Q

Name 3 drugs to treat alcohol use disorder

A

Naltrexone
Acamprosate
Disulfiram (Antabuse)

126
Q

How does naltrexone work for AUD? Cautions?

A

Blocks opioid receptor –> reduces euphoric effect of alcohol
Reduces cravings
*Causes withdrawal if pt also taking opioids, can increase liver enzymes

127
Q

How does acamprosate work for AUD?

A

Antagonizes glutamate receptors to relieve subacute withdrawal symptoms (best if abstinent a few days before)

128
Q

How does antabuse work?

A

inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase –> sick after you drink

Deterrent

129
Q

How does methadone work for opioid use disorder

A

Long-acting, less euphoria

130
Q

How does buprenorphine work for opioid use disorder

A

Partial agonist
VERY high affinity so displaces other opioids
Less high, less withdrawal

131
Q

How does suboxone work for OUD?

A

Buprenorphine + naloxone

Naloxone only activated if injected (misuse) –> withdrawal

132
Q

What are 2 opioid antagonists and how do they work differently for OUD?

A

1) Naloxone - rapid onset, short-acting (for OD)

2) Naltrexone - longer-acting to promote long-term abstinence (have to be off opioids at least a week first)

133
Q

Mechanism of action of stimulants for ADHD. 2 main types?

A

Methylphenidate blocks dopamine/NE reuptake
Amphetamine blocks reuptake AND increase dop/NE release
both increase REGULATORY activity of brain in prefrontal cortex (stimulant paradox)

134
Q

First line stimulants for ADHD

A

Methylphenidates: Concerta, Biphentin
Amphetamines: Adderall XR, Vyvanse

135
Q

CV screening before putting someone with ADHD on stimulant

A

Screen based on known cardiac abnormalities, FMHx, other sympathomimetic drugs, exercise intolerance/syncope
if YES to above –> EKG

136
Q

4 attachment style

A

Secure
Avoidant
Ambivalent/resistant/anxious
Disorganized

137
Q

Diff between ODD and conduct disorder?

A

Conduct disorder more serious, linked to antisocial personality disorder in adulthood (violence, vandalism more serious misconduct)
ODD is more behavioural issues at home but not dangerous