Psych 2101 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q
  • What is a mental disorder?
A

A mental disorder is characterized by a clinically significant disturbance in an individual’s cognition, emotional regulation, or behaviour. It is usually associated with distress or impairment in important areas of functioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  • What is classification?
A

Classification is “the act or process of dividing things into groups according to their type”(Cambridge dictionary)
Mental disorders, however, are classified by symptoms that meet specific “diagnostic criteria”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • Why should we classify mental disorders?
A

Most medical disorders are classified by results of biological testing. * Ex. Diabetes and fasting glucose + glucose tolerance test
Mental disorders are classified by observable behaviours (signs) and self-reported feelings and thoughts (symptoms).
Who is emil kraepelin? (Defined 15 categories of mental disorders based on common patterns of symptoms, Most famous for the “Krapeliniandichotomy”: dementia praecox (schizophrenia) vs manic depression)
Why should mental disorders be classified at all?
It’s debatable, but there are some good reasons:
* Provides a common vocabulary across psychologists, psychiatrists, GPs, social workers, governments, etc.
* Provides a guide for treatment
* Can be used in legal settings → see if they are fit to stand trial or lesser sentencing
Some disadvantages:
* Stigma
* Changes self-concept (e.g., being “abnormal”)
* Insurance problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • How do we classify mental disorders?
A

categorical approach
dimensional approach
transdiagnostic approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the categorical approach

A

The categorical approach
Based on DSM-V or ICD-11 criteria
Diagnostic categories include disorders, subtypes, and changes overtime
There are 22 diagnostic categories in the dsm5
Limitations of the categorical approach
Including a disorder in the DSM or ICD makes people believe that the disorder is real
* A real category, different from others. → isolates people
* Ignores overlap between disorders.
* People classified with the same disorder may have few symptoms in common.
(eg internert gaming disorder)
Example of categories not matching reality → a platypus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the dimensional approach

A

The dimensional approach
* Not yes or no (i.e., you’ve got it or you don’t), but how much?
* Each i* Most mental disorders can be described along a number of symptom dimensions individual receives a score on several different ‘dimensions’ of psychopathology. This includes emotional symptoms (fear), cognitive symptoms (fear of losing control/dying/derealisation), and physical symptoms (sweating)
Example
* Hallucinations and delusions are distributed continuously in the population.
* Subclinical psychotic experiences (8%)
* Subclinical psychotic symptoms which are associated with a degree of distress and help-seeking behaviour but do not necessarily amount to clinical psychotic disorder (prevalence
around 4%).
* Psychotic disorder (3%)
Beck Depression Inventory is a dimensional approach
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
First developed in 1943, updated in 1989, 2008, and 2018
* 10 ‘dimensions’ (clinical scales) of psychopathology along which people differ e.g., hypochondriasis (HS), depression (D), paranoia (PA), psychasthenia (PT), hypomania (MA), psychopathic deviate (PD) etc.
* Individual’s score on each dimension is compared to population norms
Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory
>20 dimensions
With loads of dimensions can defeat the purpose of the easy classification mechanism → plus no common communication between each group
Limitations of the Dimensional Approach
* No common vocabulary
* Unwieldly
* Implications for treatment?
* Knowing severity of disorder may not impact treatment plan.
* E.g., what’s the best way to treat someone who is high on hypochondriasis, but low on depression, but high on social introversion, but low on paranoia etc….
* Does a consistent pattern map on to a specific diagnostic category?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the transdiagnostic approach

A

The transdiagnostic approach
Very new approach (last 10 years)
National Institute of Mental Health’s (USA) Research Domain Criteria
Launched in 2009
Characteristics of RDoC:
* Holistic approach
* Understanding interaction between brain development, social factors, and lifespan to identify multiple dimensions that may produce mental illness.
* Study of biological processes and behavior that are part of interpersonal and sociocultural milieu
* From genes and cells to human behaviour
Not for immediate clinical use
Will take many years of research before it will influence classification

draw the RDoC diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

draw the RDoC diagram

A

domains
- negative valence
- positive valence
- cognitive symptoms
- systems for social processes
- arousal/regulatory systems
-sensorimotor systems

environment:
circuits:
neural systems –> genes, moleculles, cells
behavioural dimensions –> physiology, behaviour, self reports

neurodevelopment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is negative valence

A
  • acute threat fear
  • potential threat anxiety
  • sustained threat
  • loss
    -frustrative non reward
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is positive valence

A

approach motivation
- reward valuation
- effort valuation
- expectancy
-action selection
initial responsiveness to reward
sustained responsiveness to reward
reward learning
habit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is cognition?

A

attention
perception
- visual
-auditory
-olfactory
declarative memory
language behaviour
cognitive control
- goal selection, updating, representation, and maintenance
- response selection
- inhibition
-performance monitoring
working memory
- active maintenance
- flexible updating
- limited capacity
- interference control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is HiTOP?

A

The hierarchical taxonomy of psychopathology (HiTOP) splits the world into internal and external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Advantages of Categorical

A

Common vocabulary, aids in communication
Provides a guide for treatment and prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Advantages of Dimensional

A

Closer to reality?
Doesn’t require arbitrary distinctions between normality and abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a categorical v dimensional approach

A

A categorical approach to assessment relies on diagnostic criteria to determine the presence or absence of disruptive or other abnormal behaviors (e.g., Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders or DSM-IV, APA, 2000), whereas a dimensional approach places such behaviors on a continuum of frequency and/or severity (e.g., Child Behavior Checklist or CBCL, Achenbach & Edelbrock, 1983; Lavigne et al., 1996).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which approach does the dsm use?

A

categorical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a Taxometrics

A

Taxometrics is a statistical procedure for determining whether relationships among observables reflect the existence of a latent taxon (type, species, category, disease entity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is RDoC?

A

RDoC is a research framework for new approaches to investigating mental disorders. It integrates many levels of information (from genomics and circuits to behavior and self-reports) in order to explore basic dimensions of functioning that span the full range of human behavior from normal to abnormal.
“RDoC is an attempt to create a new kind of taxonomy for mental disorders by bringing the power of modern research approaches in genetics, neuroscience, and behavioral science to the problem of mental illness.”
Research domains encompass various fields of study that contribute to the advancement of knowledge and understanding in different areas. They provide specialized frameworks for conducting research and generating insights within specific disciplines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • What are psychometrics?
A
  • The branch of psychology dealing with the design, administration, and interpretation of quantitative tests for the measurement of psychological variables
  • Psyche = mind, metric = measure
  • Psychometrics involves the measurement of directly unobservable mental constructs (e.g., intelligence, aptitude, personality, etc.) as opposed to directly observable physical constructs (e.g., height, weight, antibody levels, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a mental construct?

A
  • Theoretical, intangible quality or trait.
  • A psychological test aims to measure mental constructs (latent construct) by inferring an individual’s true score on the construct from their observed test score.
    Aggressiveness
    Emotional stability
    Depression
    Fear of vaccination
    Intelligence
    Beliefs in conspiracy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  • Assumptions underlying psychometrics
A
  1. It is possible to measure psychological states and traits.
    * Measurement – assigning values according to rules.
    * Define the construct under study (“operationalization”)
    * Sample from a universe of items thought to represent the construct.
    * Developed rationally or empirically (good enough that its correlated)
  2. Various methods of measuring aspects of the same thing can be useful.
    * Format
    * Multiple choice, true-false, essay, performance, verbal-nonverbal, behavioural observation, interview
    * Administration
    * Individual vs. group
    * Timed
    * Clinician administered versus self-report
    * Scoring
    * Cutoff vs. relative values (i.e., categorical versus dimensional)
  3. Assessment can provide answers to some of life’s most momentous questions. Examples:
    * Entry to UNSW?
    * Competent to stand trial?
    * Receive job or promotion?
    * Many more…
    * CAVEAT: Testing must be used appropriately by trained experts.
  4. Error is part of the assessment process.
    * Extraneous factors that influence test performance.
    * Example:
    * PSYC 2101 Final exam score = knowledge + noisy room
    + hungry + tired + drunk last night + COVID…. Etc.
    True score + measurement error = observed score
  5. Testing and assessment can be conducted in a fair and unbiased manner.
    * Accommodations for test-takers with disabilities .
    * Cultural Bias – very controversial with good reason. (Koori IQ test, 2003)
    * If someone referred to you as “Binghi”, would it mean….
    * a) you’re white
    * b) like a brother
    * c) you’re a baker
    * d) you’ve got dough
    * If you saw a gungibal, would you be looking at a….
    * (a) soldier
    * (b) policeman
    * (c) centrelink officer
    * (d) gunsmith
    * The main point is to show non-Indigenous people two things: how the value of knowledge is culturally constructed; and what it is like to be assessed and graded on the basis of alien criteria.
    (https://www.nesst.org.au/resource/koori-iq-test/)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the two types of measurement error?

A

Two types of measurement error
* Random error: unpredictable influences that vary from measurement to measurement. –> threats to reliability
* e.g. participant didn’t have their morning coffee or has the flu, examiner didn’t give clear instructions etc.
* Influences go in both directions —sometimes increasing a score and sometimes decreasing it
* Systematic error: biases that influence scores in a similar way across multiple measurements –> threats to validity
* e.g., using vocabulary as a measure of IQ in ESL participants
* Influences generally go in one direction —consistently increasing or decreasing a score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is reliability?

A

Consistency of measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is validity?

A

Accuracy of measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

types of reliability

A
  • Temporal stability
  • Are the results of an assessment instrument stable over time?
  • Test-retest reliability
  • Inter-rater reliability
  • Can raters agree on the scores of an instrument?
    Can the two people collecting data get the same scores?
  • Inter-rater reliability
  • Internal consistency reliability
  • Are there positive correlations among items that are intended to measure the same construct?
  • Cronbach’s alpha (α)

Test-retest Reliability
* Will taking the assessment again yield the same results?
* Administer a test once and then again later.
* Limitations: practice effects, fatigue, expensive

Inter-rater reliability
* Do two different raters yield the same results?
* Often used with subjectively-scored measures like coding written responses.
* Test is scored by two or more raters. Sets of scores are correlated with one another.

Internal consistency reliability
* Extent to which test items that propose to measure the same construct actually show similar scores
* Strong correlations between items within a scale

Internal consistency reliability
* To increase internal consistency reliability:
* Increase the number of items
* Remove items that are uncorrelated with many of the other items.
* To increase internal interrater reliability:
* Train and practice
* To increase test-retest reliability:
* Maintain standardized protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

draw brunswik’s lens model

A

search it up pookie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are 3 major sources of error?

A
  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Errors in use of method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

types of validity

A

Content validity
* The degree to which the items adequately sample the mental construct in question
* e.g., Imagine 2 measures of general intelligence (IQ)
* Scale A only includes a vocabulary measure
* poor content validity
* Scale B includes measures of vocabulary, arithmetic, working memory, matrix reasoning, mental rotation, etc
* better content validity
* Fictitious example (don’t freak out ☺): 2101 final exam only has 3 questions and they are all on interrater reliability

Construct validity
* A scale is said to have high construct validity if:
1)It correlates with other tests purporting to measure the same construct (and hence they converge on measuring the same construct).
Convergent Validity
2)It does not correlate with other tests that do not purport to measure the same construct (and hence, their scores discriminate between different constructs).
Discriminant Validity → always have discriminant validity
Construct validity - convergent
* Demonstrated when a measure correlates highly with other measures with which it theoretically should correlate.
Criterion validity
* Degree to which the test is able to predict present or future performance on some real-world outcome (i.e., the criterion)
* Concurrent validity: Does test score accurately predict present scores on the criterion?
* i.e., the test and the criterion are assessed at the same time
* e.g. Predicting who has clinically-diagnosed major depression based on their score on the DASS
* Predictive validity: Does test score accurately predict future scores on the criterion?
* Predicting future convictions for crimes from a measure of self control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a mental disorder?

A

is abnormal and effects the way an individual functions
Associated with significant distress and impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is not a disorder?

A

An acceptable or culturally approved response to a common stressor or loss (such as death of a loved one) is not a disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

in regards to society, what is not a disorder?

A

Socially deviant behaviour and conflicts are primarily between the individual and society are NOT mental disorders unless the deviance or conflict results from a dysfunction in the individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when was the dsm first published?

A

1952

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when was the dsm5 published

A

2013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what year was homosexuality removed from the dsm?

A

1974

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Revisions and updates of the DSM5

A

The removal of the DSM4 multi axial system → included:
Axis 1: clinical disorders
Axis 2: personality disorders or mental retardation (now know as learning disorders)
Axis 3: medical or physical conditions → affect or be affected by mental disorders
Axis 4: contributing environmental psychosocial factors
Axis 5: global assessment of functioning → a number between 0 and 100 indicating a persons level of functioning and their ability to engage in daily living
There was no scientific reason to separate these into different axis
DSM single axis
Notations for what would be under 4 and 5 (such as parent child relationship problems)
Combined 1-3 into a single axis
Helps to remove stigma from personality disorder diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DSM organisation

A

Developmental and lifespan considerations
Chapters and diagnostic categories
Childhood disorders outlined first → later in life
Contextual influence : gender and culture

Mental disorders are grouped together in the dsm5 according to the disorder (such as anxiety and depression)
Dsm provides detailed information about each mental disorder and their diagnostic criteria
Also provides cultural and sexual issues for the clinician to consider
Also includes differential diagnosis → other possibilities that need to be ruled out before labeling someone with a disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

dsm advantages

A

Common language
Short hand communication
Guide treatment recommendations and access to funding
Benefits fo research
Research conducted on same phenomena
Prevalence morbidity and mortality rates
Normalising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DSM limitations and critiques

A

Arbitrary cut offs
What is considered normal v abnormal (abnormal is a relative context that changes over time)
Categorical classification
Borderline personality disorder → 256 distinct presentations
Post traumatic stress disorder → 636120 presentations
Dimensional or spectrum approach → puts people on a spectrum of the disorder and aids when categorically they dont ‘have’ the disorder
Diagnostic validity → how accurate is it at measuring what it says it will measure?
Do mental disorder exist the way they are outlined?
Inter rater reliability
Diagnoses are subjective and interpretative
National institute of mental health: Research domain criteria (RDoC) → abandoned dsm and used rdoc instead as it incorporates behavioural and neuroscience
Influence of the medical model
Viewed as having a disease
Reductionstic in its use of labels and numbers
Pharmaceutical influence
Experts with financial ties to the pharmaceutical industry
Implicates classification as it aligns with pharmaceutical companies and their medication options
Lowering an broadening of diagnostic thresholds
Meaning more people will be diagnosed with a mental disorder than they did before
E.g. major depressive disorder - bereavement exclusion removed → allows people who are clinically depressed for up to two months over the loss of a loved one to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder → benefits individuals as they get reimbursements for medications but also benefits pharmaceutical sectors as it broadens their customer scope
Western influences
Labeling and stigmatising
Can become internalised and effect the identity of the individual

It is crucial to use this CAREFULLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the key features of BDP

A

Periods of mania alternate with periods of depression
Emotional rollercoaster: elation to despair to elation to despair…
“Manic depression” = old name for bipolar disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a manic episode definition according to the dsm?

A

A distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased goal- directed activity or energy, lasting at least 1 week and present most of the day, nearly every day (or any duration if hospitalization is necessary)
3 or more of the following (4 if mood is only irritable):
Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
Decreased need for sleep
Atypically talkative
Flight of ideas or subjective experience of racing thoughts
Distractibility as reported or observed
Increase in goal-directed activity (socially, at work, or sexually) or psychomotor agitation (purposeless non-goal-directed activity)
Excessive involvement of activities with a high potential for painful consequences (e.g., unrestrained buying sprees, sexual indiscretions, foolish business investments)
The mood disturbance is sufficiently severe to cause a marked impairment in social or occupational functioning OR necessitates hospitalization to prevent harm to self or others OR there are psychotic features
Not substance induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a hypomanic episode definition according to the dsm5?

A

A distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy, lasting at least 4 consecutive days and present most of the day, nearly every day
3 or more of the following (4 if mood is only irritable):
Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
Decreased need for sleep
Atypically talkative
Flight of ideas or subjective experience of racing thoughts
Distractibility as reported or observed
Increase in goal-directed activity
Excessive involvement of activities with a high potential for painful consequences
The episode is NOT severe enough to cause a marked impairment in social or occupational functioning or necessitate hospitalization and there are NO psychotic features.
The disturbance in mood or functioning is unequivocal and observable by others
Not substance induced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 3 main categories for bipolar disorders?

A

Bipolar I disorder: manic episodes (typically) alternate with major depressive episodes
Bipolar II disorder: hypomanic episodes alternate with major depressive episodes
Cyclothymia: hypomanic symptoms alternate with hypodepressive symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is bipolar I?

A

Diagnostic criteria: at least one manic episode
Over 90% of bipolar I patients have recurrent episodes
Manic episodes typically (but not necessarily) alternate with major depressive episodes
Manic symptoms can be psychotic
But typically not
Prevalence: ~ 0.5 to 1%
Typical age-of-onset: late teens, early 20s
Typical length of mood episode: 2-6 months (Angst and Sellaro, 2001)
‘Rapid cycling’ = 4 or more mood episodes (i.e., manic or major depressive) in previous 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is bipolar II?

A

Hypomanic episodes alternate with major depressive episodes
In contrast to bipolar I disorder, where a full-blown manic episode is necessary for diagnosis, but major depressive episodes - while common - are not necessary
Average length of mood episode tends shorter for bipolar II compared to bipolar I more likely to be rapid cycling
Approx. 15% of bipolar II patients transition to bipolar I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Cyclothymia?

A

Recurrent periods of hypomanic symptoms (which do not meet criteria for a hypomanic episode) alternating with hypodepressive symptoms (which do not meet criteria for a major depressive episode) over at least a 2 year period
Criteria for manic, hypomanic and major depressive episodes have never been met
Chronic, low-level symptoms
“Insidious onset, persistent course”
Personality disorder?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the causes of bipolar disorders?

A

Heritability
Bipolar disorder is highly heritable
Among the highest of any mental disorder
Around 1% of people have bipolar
If your twin has bipolar → your risk comes up to 45 to 75 %
Neurochemistry
Bipolar depression: low levels of the serotonin transporter
Mania: greater sensitivity to dopamine
But findings have been inconsistent…
Gave people speed → the dopamine → manic people have a great sensitivity to dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why do bipolar disorders cycle?

A

One theory…
Bipolar disorder caused by abnormal circadian rhythms (e.g., Harvey, 2008, AJP)
Observations:
Manic individuals tend to sleep very little; bipolar depressed individuals tend to sleep a lot
Sleep deprivation can improve mood in bipolar depressed patients; sleep deprivation can trigger mania
In healthy people, circadian rhythms (24 hours long) are set by zeitgebers (“time-givers”) such as light/dark cycles, meal times etc. In bipolar patients, CRs become detached from these zeitgebers
Key idea: bipolar patients have longer circadian cycles (i.e., in the order of weeks, rather than days)
Study to reset circadian rhythm → shine a bright light on bpd patients in the morning → WORKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are treatments for BPD

A

Mood stabilizers
Suppress swings between mania and depression
Primarily mania stabilizers; less effective against bipolar depression
Lithium: ‘gold standard’ Ancient treatment: alkali springs Mechanism of action unclear
Anticonvulsants (e.g., sodium valproate, blocks Na+ channels)
Antipsychotics are also used (e.g., olanzapine: dopamine antagonist)
CBT for bipolar disorders
Focus is on promoting stability and routine, and medication compliance
Help patient identify warning signs for imminent mood shifts
Not sleeping, feeling full of energy, thoughts racing, starting to get irritable or frustrated with others…
CBT for bipolar depression:
Behavioural activation, pleasant events scheduling → careful, we dont want to flip this into mania
CBT for mania:
Motivational interviewing – especially with regards to medication compliance (big problem!)
‘Urge surfing’ → acknowledge their urges and their consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is ocd categorised under?

A

Obsessive compulsive and related disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the two main criteria for ocd?

A

Obsessions and compulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are obsessions?

A

Recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are intrusive and unwanted and cause marked anxiety
The individual attempts to ignore or suppress such thoughts, urges, or images, or to neutralize them (i.e., by performing a compulsion)
Thoughts, images or impulses
Repetitive, intrusive, uncontrollable, distressing
Not just excessive worries about real life problems
Interpreted as strange or inappropriate
Compel the person to ignore or neutralize the obsessions in some way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are compulsions?

A

Repetitive behaviors or mental acts that the individual performs in response to an obsession or according to rules
Aimed at reducing anxiety or preventing dreaded event; however, not connected in a realistic way with what they are designed to prevent or are clearly excessive
Repetitive overt behaviors or covert mental acts
Goals are usually to “undo” obsession, to prevent harm associated with obsession, or to alleviate anxiety
‘Rituals’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the 3 different types of obsessions

A

Repugnant obsessions
Contamination obsessions
Doubting obsessions → me with locks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What arent obsessions?

A

Obsessions
Preoccupation
Sexual fantasies (recurrent)
Everyday worries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Explain the sandra case

A

Cant make tea
Thinks theres broken glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the prevalence of ocd?

A

2-3% lifetime prevalence,
F=M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the onset of ocd

A

mean age is 17 years old (international study by Brakoulias et al., 2014), but significant portion have childhood onset
May be important differences in childhood onset cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the ocd symptom dimensions?

A

Heterogeneous disorder → every obsession and compulsion is different
4 commonly replicable symptom dimensions:
Obsessions about contamination and washing compulsions
Obsessions about responsibility for causing harm/making mistakes and checking compulsions
Obsessions about symmetry and ordering compulsions
Repugnant obsessional thoughts concerning sex, religion and violence along with mental compulsions and other covert ne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Biological model of ocd

A

High reactivity in the cortical striatal thalamic circuit
This is the area related to filtering out irrelevant information and preservation of behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Psychological treatment for ocd exposure and response prevention (ERP)

A

Moderate symptom reduction between 55% and ⅔ of patients
Through repeated exposure to feared situations and thoughts without performing compulsions the pearson learns
Emotional response subsides
The feared event does not happen
It is safe and moral t let the thought go without responding with a compulsion

Pharmaco and erp: pre and post → the brain region activation changes in the cortical striatal thalamic circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are assessments of ocd?

A

Self-report measures
Padua Inventory (Burns et al., 1996) and Padua Inventory - Washington State University Revision (PI-WSUR)
Obsessive-Compulsive Inventory Revised (Foa et al., 2002)
Interviewer measure
Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (YBOCS; Goodman et al., 1989)
Identifying obsessions
situations (e.g., locking a door, driving over bumps)
thoughts, images, impulses, e.g., unlucky numbers, thoughts of being contaminated
what are the disastrous consequences? (e.g., disease from touching contaminated object)
Identify avoidance patterns
situations or objects that are avoided, e.g., using kitchen knives, driving on busy street
Identify rituals
washing, cleaning, checking, attend to subtle rituals such as using a hand sanitizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are treatments for ocd?

A

SSRIs (fluvoxamine, sertraline, fluoxetine etc) found to be useful in OCD
Significant average symptom reduction of approx 40% in 50-60% ofsubjects
Majority relapse after discontinuation of SSRIs – addition of behaviour therapy is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the basic cognitive behavioural model?

A

Obsessions, impulse, image, or doubt → maladaptive interpretation of intrusions → distress → compulsion, suppression, avoidance, reduced distress but no new learning → attentional bias toward OCD relevant stimuli → back to the start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

EXPOSURE AND RESPONSE PREVENTION (ERP)

A

Moderate symptom reduction between 55% and 2/3 of patients (Ost et al., 2015)
Drop out of 19% (Ost et al., 2015)
Through repeated exposure to feared situations and thoughts the person learns:
Emotional response subsides (this happens more quickly over trials)
The feared event does not happen
It is safe and moral to let the thought go without responding with a compulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

TIPS FOR EXPOSURE

A

Must experience anxiety/distress without seeking reassurance about obsessional concerns or doing compulsions
Patient should expect exposure to feel quite uncomfortable, and to accept it rather than fight it
Repeat exposure very soon
Massed exposure is much more effective than spaced
Intensive more effective than less intensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

THERAPIST BEHAVIOR DURING EXPOSURE TASKS PREDICTS HABITUATION AND CLINICAL OUTCOME (BENITO ET AL. 2021)

A

Pediatric OCD – 111 clients, 3 RCTs
Within exposure tasks, therapist behaviors and patient fear were coded continuously
More therapist behaviors that encourage approach—and less use of accommodation, unrelated talk, and externalizing language—predicted greater subsequent habituation during individual exposure tasks (exposurelevel), and also predicted improved patient clinical outcomes
Benito et al. (2021). Therapist Behavior During Exposure Tasks Predicts Habituation and Clinical Outcome in Three Randomized Controlled Trials for Pediatric OCD, Behavior Therapy,Volume 52, Issue 3, 2021, Pages 523- 538.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What three things are associated with motivation?

A

RATIONALE
Avoidance prevents expectancy violations Activate expectancies → short-term distress Goal is distress tolerance, not fear reduction Strengthen extinction learning & recall for long-term symptom remission
COLLABORATE
Collaboration is associated with better compliance with out-of- session exposures (Ong et al. 2022)
Use creativity & some modeling (banana in the hair)
VALUES
Link exposures explicitly w/ values. Why are you doing this exposure? What important thing will it allow you to do in your life?
(e.g., bookcase and daughter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Why is variable exposures more beneficial instead of a hierarchy?

A

More life like → element of surprise
The stronger the mismatch between expectation of an aversive outcome and actual outcome, the more expectancies that are violated, the stronger the inhibitory retrieval (Wannemueller et al., 2019)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

HOW TO DEEPEN EXTINCTION

A

Compound exposures:
Do exposures in as many places and contexts as possible (Craske et al., 2008, 2014)
Extinguish separately first then combine for additional trials (client in bar example, Lucifer tv example)
Variety of physical and psychological contexts (Craske et al., 2014, Jacoby & Abramowitz, 2016)

IMAGINAL EXPOSURE
When the obsession is a disturbing recurrent image, e.g., someone engaging in a repugnant sexual act
Ask client to write down everything about the image, with as much detail as possible
Ask him or her to re-read this script silently until emotion subsides, then read it aloud repeatedly
May be helpful for client to write key words over and over

TREATMENT OF OCD: COGNITIVE THERAPY
Rests on the cornerstone that 90+% of people experience intrusive thoughts
Interpretation of the intrusive thought is typically threatening (“I’m mad, bad, or dangerous”)
It is the anxiety from the appraisal that promotes compulsive behaviour

OCD-RELEVANT BELIEFS (OCCWG, 2005)
Over-importance of thoughts – This thought must mean I’m a violent person
Over-importance of thought control – I must be going crazy because I can’t control these thoughts
Overestimation of threat – I am more likely than other people to cause harm
Perfectionism- Even minor mistakes will lead to harm
Intolerance of Uncertainty – I need to be absolutely sure that I won’t hurt others

NORMALIZING ITS
Another quote from Turtles All The Way Down:
“Supposedly everyone has them,” she says. “You look out from over a
bridge or whatever and it occurs to you out of nowhere that you could just
jump. And then if you’re most people, you think, Well that was a weird
thought, and move on with your life. But some people the invasive can kind
of take over, crowding out all the other thoughts until it’s the only you’re
able to have, the thought you’re perpetually either thinking or distracting
yourself from.”
Foundation of treatment
Use intrusive thoughts reported by a non-clinical sample
Survey

CHALLENGING IMPORTANCE OF THOUGHTS
Behavioral experiment of alternating between letting thoughts ‘come and go’ vs. ‘fighting and dwelling’
Patients record overall anxiety and frequency of ITs
Patients predict results of experiment prior to beginning
Treating thoughts like pop up ads on the internet
Sushi train

THOUGHT ACTION FUSION (TAF; SHAFRAN & RACHMAN, 2004)
Likelihood - because I’ve had the thought it’s more likely to happen
Moral - the thought is as reprehensible as the action

CHALLENGING MORAL TAF
Continuum
normalization of ITs
List qualities of a good and bad person
Identification of a possible double standard
Any other ideas?

TARGET AND CONTENT OF THOUGHTS IS NOT RANDOM
Based on value system
Person/situation that is the most important to the individual
Intrusions become repetitive BECAUSE the person is sensitive, caring, etc.
And in the manifestation look for positive qualities– artist/vivid superstitious imagery example

FOCUS ON INTERPRETATION RATHER THAN CONTENT
In some cases, probability and cost may not be as useful
Sexual or Religious obsessions
People with OCD are less concerned about actual harm than about being RESPONSIBLE for harm (Mancini & Gangemi, 2004, 2011)
Challenging logic of obsession versus challenging patient’s beliefs about meaning of the obsessions - better to focus on meaning
Strangling children with cord
First try challenging the content – use probability and cost
Then try to challenge the meaning of obsession

ACCEPTANCE AND COMMITMENT THERAPY?
Twohig, Abramowitz et al., 2018, Behaviour Research and Therapy
ACT plus ERP and ERP alone were both highly effective for OCD with no difference in outcomes.
Metaphors: Swamp, passengers on the bus, chess board

ACT EXAMPLE (TWOHIG ET AL., 2015)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

3 core beliefs of cognitive model

A

Core beliefs
Beliefs about ourselves, others, and the future. Cognitive triad of negative beliefs (aaron beck) → when you have negative beliefs about all of these facets. Core beliefs are made from early life experiences and life stressors. This give way from intermediate beliefs and assumptions
Intermediate beliefs and assumptions
Rigid conditional ‘rules for living’ if then conditional statements and rules
Play a large role in how we respond to stressors and go about living life
Automatic thoughts and images
Spontaneous thoughts or images
Distorted and consistent with core belief
Distortion in thinking (cognitive distortions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Behavioural model
learning theory

A

Learning theory
Classical conditioning
Emotional responses can be classically conditioned in a similar way

Operant conditioning
A(antecedent) → b (behaviour) → c (consequence)
Negative reinforcement and the maintenance of anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Behvaioural model
Social learning theory

A

People learn from one another, via observation, imitation and modeling
CBT
Challenge established thought patterns
Break learned and conditional behaviours that are maladaptive

Formulation
Explanation and conceptualisation of how difficulties have developed and are maintained
Hypothesis of the causes, precipitants and maintaining factors of a person’s difficulties
Longitudinal
Earlier experiences contribute to the development core beliefs → lead to disruptive assumptions and roles
Cross sectional
Focuses on here and now
Showcases how our thoughts → emotion → physical sensations → behaviour → thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are personality disorders?

A

Enduring pattern of inner experience and behaviour that deviate markedly from the
expectations of the individual’s culture, is pervasive and inflexible, has an onset in
adolescence or early adulthood, is stable over time, and leads to distress or impairment.

  • 10% of population. 20-50% in clinical/mental health settings
  • High comorbidity with other mental disorders
  • Personality traits that deviate markedly from expectations of the individual’s culture, are pervasive and inflexible, has onset in adolescence or early adulthood, is stable over time, and leads to distress
    or impairment.
  • More stable over time comparative to other mental disorders
  • 10 Personality Disorders classified in the DSM-5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what approach is used to classify personality disorders?

A

currently the categorical approach is used however it is critised by its threesholds needed to meet the disorder. a new hybrid approach has been made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is a personality?

A

Personality
* Characteristic manner of thinking, feeling, behaving, and relating to others across situations and contexts, that is relatively stable over time.
* Self-report measures; e.g., Five Factor Model (OCEAN)
* Predictive of life outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

explain how the dsm5 categorises personality disorders

A

Categorical approach in main text
* Hybrid model included under “Emerging Measures and Models”
10 personality disorders, clustered into 3 group

DSM-5: Personality Disorders
DSM-5 Main Text (Section II)
Still classified using the Categorical approach
* Qualitatively distinct clinical syndromes
General Personality Disorder Criteria
Personality disorders are an enduring pattern of inner experience and behaviour that deviates markedly from the expectations of an individual’s culture. It is manifested in 2 or more of the following areas
Cognition
Affectivity
Interpersonal functioning
Impulse control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what are the 10 personality disorders?

A

Cluster a
Regarded as:
Odd
Eccentric
Paranoid → distrust
Schizoid →detachment from social relationships (lack of emotions)
Schizotypal →acute discomfort (close relationships, cognition, eccentric behaviour)

Cluster b
Regarded as:
Dramatic
Emotional
unpredictable
Antisocial →exploit, manipulate or violate the rights of others
Borderline → intense mood swings and feel uncertainty about how they see themselves
Histrionic →a chronic, enduring psychiatric condition characterized by a consistent pattern of pervasive attention-seeking behaviors and exaggerated emotional displays
Narcissistic →a mental health condition in which people have an unreasonably high sense of their own importance.

Cluster c
Regarded as:
Anxious
fearful
Avoidant →a mental health condition that involves chronic feelings of inadequacy and extreme sensitivity to criticism.
Dependent →a mental health condition that involves an excessive need to be taken care of by others
Obsessive compulsive →Be preoccupied with and insist on details, rules, lists, order and organization. Have perfectionism that interferes with completing tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is the hybrid model to classifying personality disorders and where can you find it?

A
  • Hybrid model included under “Emerging Measures and Models”
    Hybrid (Dimensional-Categorical) Model
    A - Impairment in Personality functioning:
    Sense of self
  • Identity and Self-direction
    Interpersonal functioning
  • Empathy and Intimacy
    Level of Personality Functioning Scale
  • Moderate impairment required for diagnosis

B - Pathological Personality Traits:
* Negative affectivity
* Detachment
* Antagonism
* Disinhibition
* Psychoticism

Hybrid Model Personality Disorder
Diagnoses:
* Antisocial
* Avoidant
* Borderline
* Narcissistic
* Obsessive-compulsive
* Schizotypal
* Personality Disorder – Trait Specified

Studied in DSM-5 field trials –? Sowed good test retest reliability
Unanimously approved by DSM-5 task force
However, more evidence needed to validate proposed new personality disorder model and establish clinical utility
Included the hybrid model in Section III of DSM-5:
* “Emerging measures and models”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what are the 3 P’s of personality disorder?

A
  • Pervasive [inflexible]
  • Pathological [distress or impairment]
  • Persistent [stable]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what two categories can childhood disorders be broken down into?

A

internalising and externalising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

childhood disorders overlap substantially, what is this called?

A

comorbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

mental illnesses in adults usually start in

A

childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the statistics of adults with mental disorders preceded by childhood mental illness?

A

1 in 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the importance of the multi method assessment of children?

A

to establish persistence across time and pervasiveness across setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is externalising in childhood illness?

A

UNDERCONTROLLED → affects people around them → more prevalent in boys
DSM-5 Externalising Disorders
Disruptive, impulse control, and conduct disorders
– Oppositional defiant disorder
– Conduct disorder
– Intermittent explosive disorder
– Pyromania
– Kleptomania

DSM-5 Neurodevelopmental Disorders
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
Autism spectrum disorder
Communication disorders
Global developmental delay
Intellectual disability (Intellectual Developmental Disorder)
Motor disorders
Specific learning disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is internalising in childhood illness?

A

affects the child → more prevalent in girls

DSM-5 Internalising Disorders
Anxiety disorders
– Separation anxiety disorder
– Selective mutism
– Specific phobia
– Social anxiety disorder (social phobia)
– Panic disorder/ Panic attack
– Agoraphobia
– Generalised anxiety disorder
Depressive disorders
– Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder → anger outbursts
– Major depressive disorder
– Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what are the pathways to psychological services?

A

Observe problem behaviour
Discuss with GP/ specialist
Referral to mental health professional
Psychological assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what are the Assessment Methods for Children

A

Clinical interviews
– Clinical/ developmental history
– Diagnostic interview
Psychological tests (e.g., questionnaires, checklists)
– Self-report
– Rater measures
Behavioural observations (clinic, home, school)
– A-B-C analysis

Specialised testing
– IQ/ neuropsychological testing
– ASD, developmental delay
Third-Party Information
– Medical/school/legal records
– Prior psychological testing/reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what are the Important Considerations for Children

A

Comprehensive assessment essential
– Gain knowledge about multiple settings (home, school, peer, other)
* Multi-reporter (child, parent, teacher, others)
– Multi-method
– Relevant developmental information
For younger children, observation and rater measures especially important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the pathway to treatment?

A

Diagnose
Diagnose the problem
Report
Prepare report with recommendations
Recommend
Identify evidence-based intervention(s)
Treatment
Treat or refer to specialist MH professional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

3 core beliefs of cognitive model

A

Core beliefs
Beliefs about ourselves, others, and the future. Cognitive triad of negative beliefs (aaron beck) → when you have negative beliefs about all of these facets. Core beliefs are made from early life experiences and life stressors. This give way from intermediate beliefs and assumptions
Intermediate beliefs and assumptions
Rigid conditional ‘rules for living’ if then conditional statements and rules
Play a large role in how we respond to stressors and go about living life
Automatic thoughts and images
Spontaneous thoughts or images
Distorted and consistent with core belief
Distortion in thinking (cognitive distortions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the behavioural model in terms of learning theory

A

Classical conditioning
Emotional responses can be classically conditioned in a similar way

Operant conditioning
A(antecedent) → b (behaviour) → c (consequence)
Negative reinforcement and the maintenance of anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is the behavioural model in terms of the social learning theory

A

Social learning theory
People learn from one another, via observation, imitation and modeling
CBT
Challenge established thought patterns
Break learned and conditional behaviours that are maladaptive

Formulation
Explanation and conceptualisation of how difficulties have developed and are maintained
Hypothesis of the causes, precipitants and maintaining factors of a person’s difficulties
Longitudinal
Earlier experiences contribute to the development core beliefs → lead to disruptive assumptions and roles
Cross sectional
Focuses on here and now
Showcases how our thoughts → emotion → physical sensations → behaviour → thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what are personality disorders?

A

Personality
* Characteristic manner of thinking, feeling, behaving, and relating to others across situations and contexts, that is relatively stable over time.
* Self-report measures; e.g., Five Factor Model (OCEAN)
* Predictive of life outcomes

What is a Personality Disorder?
Personality Disorders
* Personality traits that deviate markedly from expectations of the individual’s culture, are pervasive and inflexible, has onset in adolescence or early adulthood, is stable over time, and leads to distress
or impairment.
* More stable over time comparative to other mental disorders
* 10 Personality Disorders classified in the DSM-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Classification of personality disorders

A

Classification of Personality Disorders
Categorical Approach
DSM-III (1980)
* Eleven Personality Disorders on Axis II
* Three cluster groups (A- eccentric, b-dramatic/emotional, C-anxious or fearful)
Later DSM Revisions
* Ten Personality Disorders
* Multi-axial system removed (DSM-5) → helped to remove some stigma (that personality disorders are lesser than clinical disorders)
Limitations
* Arbitrary diagnostic threshold
* Extensive heterogeneity
* Misses the relational context

How else can we classify Personality Disorders?
DSM-5 revisions:
“Well-informed clinicians and researchers have suggested that variation
in psychiatric symptomatology may be better represented by dimensions
than by a set of categories, especially in the area of personality traits”
A research agenda for DSM-V. Washington: American Psychiatric Association; 2002. pp. 12
Personality Disorders are a difference of degree rather than kind

How else can we classify Personality Disorders?
Work Group for Personality and Personality Disorders
* Reviewed literature to explore dimensional approach
Prototype model not workable
Made a hybrid model

Hybrid (Dimensional-Categorical) Model
A - Impairment in Personality functioning:
Sense of self
* Identity and Self-direction
Interpersonal functioning
* Empathy and Intimacy
Level of Personality Functioning Scale
* Moderate impairment required for diagnosis

B - Pathological Personality Traits:
* Negative affectivity
* Detachment
* Antagonism
* Disinhibition
* Psychoticism

Hybrid Model Personality Disorder
Diagnoses:
* Antisocial
* Avoidant
* Borderline
* Narcissistic
* Obsessive-compulsive
* Schizotypal
* Personality Disorder – Trait Specified

Studied in DSM-5 field trials –? Sowed good test retest reliability
Unanimously approved by DSM-5 task force
However, more evidence needed to validate proposed new personality disorder model and establish clinical utility
Included the hybrid model in Section III of DSM-5:
* “Emerging measures and models”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Current DSM5 personality disorder

A

DSM-5: Personality Disorders
DSM-5 Main Text (Section II)
Still classified using the Categorical approach
* Qualitatively distinct clinical syndromes
General Personality Disorder Criteria
Personality disorders are an enduring pattern of inner experience and behaviour that deviates markedly from the expectations of an individual’s culture. It is manifested in 2 or more of the following areas
Cognition
Affectivity
Interpersonal functioning
Impulse control

DSM-5 Main Text (Section II)
The 3 P’s:
* Pervasive [inflexible]
* Pathological [distress or impairment]
* Persistent [stable]

  • Late adolescence or early adulthood (cant diagnose until after 18)
  • 10 Personality Disorders organised into three clusters
    Cluster a
    Regarded as:
    Odd
    Eccentric
    Paranoid → distrust
    Schizoid →detachment from social relationships (lack of emotions)
    Schizotypal →acute discomfort (close relationships, cognition, eccentric behaviour)

Cluster b
Regarded as:
Dramatic
Emotional
unpredictable
Antisocial →exploit, manipulate or violate the rights of others
Borderline → intense mood swings and feel uncertainty about how they see themselves
Histrionic →a chronic, enduring psychiatric condition characterized by a consistent pattern of pervasive attention-seeking behaviors and exaggerated emotional displays
Narcissistic →a mental health condition in which people have an unreasonably high sense of their own importance.

Cluster c
Regarded as:
Anxious
fearful
Avoidant →a mental health condition that involves chronic feelings of inadequacy and extreme sensitivity to criticism.
Dependent →a mental health condition that involves an excessive need to be taken care of by others
Obsessive compulsive →Be preoccupied with and insist on details, rules, lists, order and organization. Have perfectionism that interferes with completing tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Why study childhood mental disorders?

A

Childhood disorders usually persist into adult disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the dimensions of child psychopathology?

A

EXTERNALISING/UNDERCONTROLLED → affects people around them → more prevalent in boys
INTERNALISING/ OVERCONTROLLED → affects the child → more prevalent in girls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are internalising disorders?

A

DSM-5 Internalising Disorders
Anxiety disorders
– Separation anxiety disorder
– Selective mutism
– Specific phobia
– Social anxiety disorder (social phobia)
– Panic disorder/ Panic attack
– Agoraphobia
– Generalised anxiety disorder
Depressive disorders
– Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder → anger outbursts
– Major depressive disorder
– Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are externalising disorders?

A

DSM-5 Externalising Disorders
Disruptive, impulse control, and conduct disorders
– Oppositional defiant disorder
– Conduct disorder
– Intermittent explosive disorder
– Pyromania
– Kleptomania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are dsm5 Neurodevelopmental Disorders?

A

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
Autism spectrum disorder
Communication disorders
Global developmental delay
Intellectual disability (Intellectual Developmental Disorder)
Motor disorders
Specific learning disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is assessment?

A
  • Also called psychological testing
    – Individualised
  • Used to measure and observe client’s behaviour
    – Gives full picture of person’s strengths/limitations
  • Used to test hypotheses about a patient
  • Wide variety of tests and assessments
  • Informs diagnosis and treatment planning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are assessment methods for children?

A

Clinical interviews
– Clinical/ developmental history
– Diagnostic interview
Psychological tests (e.g., questionnaires, checklists)
– Self-report
– Rater measures
Behavioural observations (clinic, home, school)
– A-B-C analysis

Assessment Methods (cont’d)
Specialised testing
– IQ/ neuropsychological testing
– ASD, developmental delay
Third-Party Information
– Medical/school/legal records
– Prior psychological testing/reports
Important Considerations for Children
Comprehensive assessment essential
– Gain knowledge about multiple settings (home, school, peer, other)
* Multi-reporter (child, parent, teacher, others)
– Multi-method
– Relevant developmental information
For younger children, observation and rater measures especially important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Draw the case conceptualisation diagram

A

Referral problem → initial working hypothesis → plan assessment based on hypothesis → conduct assessment → refine hypothesis and identify what additional info is needed → end of assessment: theory based on all data collected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the Pathway to Treatment?

A

Diagnose
Diagnose the problem
Report
Prepare report with recommendations
Recommend
Identify evidence-based intervention(s)
Treatment
Treat or refer to specialist MH professional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

do childhood disorders overlap? if so what is this called?

A

YES comorbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

how many adults with a diagnosable mental illness had a childhood mental illness?

A

1 in 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what is the importance of the multi method assessment of children?

A

Importance of multi-method assessment of children to establish persistence across time and pervasiveness across setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the key assumptions of personality?

A

Personality is stable over time
Personality influences behavior
There are a (finite) number of dimensions on which people can differ. These dimensions are referred as personality traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are hippocrates 4 humors?

A

Hippocrates’ 4 humors (temperaments)
Sanguine → blood → sociable, playful, carefree
Choleric → yellow bile → ambitious, restless, hot tempered
Melancholic → black bile → quiet, analytical, despondent
Phlegmatic → phlegm → calm, peaceful → lazy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

how many personality traits are there?

A

Raymond Cattell used factor analysis to identify 16 ‘personality factors’
Developed the 16PF questionnaire →
Reserved → outgoing
Less intelligent → more intelligent
Affected by feelings → emotionally stable
Submissive → dominant
Serious → happy go lucky
Expedient → conscientious
Timid → venturesome
Tough minded → open minded
Trusting → suspicious
Practical → imaginative
Forthright → shrewd
Self assured → apprehensive
Conservative → experimenting
Group dependent → self sufficient
Uncontrolled → controlled
Relaxed → tense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is Eysenck’s Personality Theory

A

Eysenck used factor analysis to reduce Cattell’s 16PF into 2 factors:
Extraversion/introversion
Emotionally unstable (neurotic) / Emotionally stable
Which mapped on to Hippocrates’ 4 humours →
Eysenck later included a 3rd factor: Psychoticism
Misnomer; refers to aggression, coldness, lack of empathy, manipulativeness
^^ meant to relate to psychopathy not psychoticism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the big 5 personality factors?

A

Big 5 personality factors
The dominant model currently
The Big 5 personality factors are:
Openness to experience (O)
inventive/curious vs.consistent/cautious
Conscientiousness (C)
efficient/organized vs. easy-going/careless
Extraversion (E)
outgoing/energetic vs.solitary/reserved
Agreeableness (A)
friendly/compassionate vs. analytical/detached
Neuroticism (N)
sensitive/nervous vs.secure/confident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are Scales for measuring the Big 5

A

NEO-Personality Inventory Revised (NEO-PI-R)
240 questions (48 for each of the 5 factors)
5 point scale (Strongly Agree to Strongly Disagree)
Each factor is comprised of 6 ‘facets’ (sub-factors).
E.g., Extraversion is comprised of warmth, gregariousness, assertiveness, activity, excitement seeking, positive emotions
Reliability
Internal consistency ~ 0.9; Test-retest (1 week) ~ 0.9
Got good test retest reliability + split test reliability
Validity
Criterion validity: Conscientiousness predicts GPA of Uni students
Convergent validity: NEO-PI-R Extraversion score correlates highly
with Eysenck Extraversion score
Other scales are also used, e.g., Big Five Inventory; Five Factor PI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are personality changes?

A

Personality Changes
Maturity principle: Increase in agreeableness and conscientiousness, decrease in neuroticism, over young adulthood (Roberts et al., 2006)
Major life events can lead to changes in personality (Bleidorn, Hopwood & Lucas, 2018)
Changes in personality over Covid-19, young adults showed disrupted maturity (Sutin et al., 2022)
Neuroticism can reduce through therapeutic intervention (Roberts et al., 2017)

Extroversion can be split into social vitality and social dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the heritability of the big 5?

A

Jang et al., (1996), J Personality
Gave the NEO-PI-R to 123 MZ (identical) twins and 127 DZ twins
All Big 5 factors were heritable: Openness and Extraversion were most heritable, Agreeableness the least

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the Neurobiological correlates of the Big 5

A

De Young et al., (2010), Psychological Science
116 healthy adults underwent sMRI scanning
O → not significant
C → MFG (Middle frontal gyrus)
E → medial orbitofrontal (inhibition)
A → STS (superior temporal sulcus) (monitoring intentions of others)
N → lots, including amygdala (fear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the dark triad?

A

The Dark Triad
Subclinical set of negative personality traits
Narcissism
Attention-seeking, arrogant vain, entitled
Psychopathy
Callous, insensitive, lacking in remorse, cynical
Machiavellianism
Manipulative, strategic, will flatter and lie t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q
  • What are conduct disorders?
A

Conduct Disorder (CD), DSM-5 312.xx
* A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior involving (3 or more):
– Aggression to people and animals (e.g., bullying, physical fights, weapon use, cruelty, forced sexual activity)
– Destruction of property (e.g., fire setting, other vandalism)
– Deceitfulness/ Theft (e.g., B&E, conning, shoplifting, forgery)
– Serious violation of rules (e.g., run away, truancy)

Children usually start with ODD and then it develops into a conduct disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
  • What causes conduct disorders?
A

Gerald pattersons coercion theory
Parent instruction → child defiance and anger → parent gets louder → child gets louder
(usually the parent gives in) → reinforces the child behaviour → child realises that if the child makes a big enough of an argument, they get what they want
ABI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q
  • How can subtyping improve understanding of development course and prognosis?
A

Subtyping aims to achieve higher accuracy in the prediction of decisions that can improve the treatment

Subtypes include
Oppositional defiant disorder
Conduct disorder
Childhood onset subtype
Adolescent onset subtype
– Early onset (< age 10) is a risk factor for life-course persistent antisocial behaviour and impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is odd?

A

Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) DSM-5 313.81
* Pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness involving (4 or more):
– Often loses temper
– Touchy, easily annoyed
– Angry, resentful
– Argumentative
– Defiant and noncompliant
– Deliberately annoys others
– Blames others for mistakes
– Spitefulness/ vindictiveness
Symptoms in bold → kids with these symptoms go onto internalising disorders (depression, anxiety)
Symptoms italised → kids go onto developing conduct disorders
The last one goes onto developing more serious conduct disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is Antisocial Personality Disorder, DSM-5 301.7

A

Pervasive pattern of disregard for/ violation of others’ rights occurring since age 15 (3 or more):
– Repeated criminal behavior
– Repeated lying or conning of others
– Impulsivity or poor planning
– Irritability and aggressive behavior
– Reckless disregard for others’ safety
– Chronic Irresponsibility
– Lack of remorse
Evidence of CD (conduct disorder) before age 15 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are risk factors in the child?

A

Difficult temperament
Poor academic achievement
Genetic factors
Autonomic irregularities
Premature birth
Reward dominance
Thrill seeking
Low verbal intelligence
Cognitive biases
Impulsivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are risk factors in the environment?

A

Prenatal exposure to toxins
Poor neighbourhood quality
Violence exposure
Deviant peers
Family conflict
Dysfunctional parenting practices
Parental psychopathology
Low social support
Low socioeconomic status
Poor quality early childcare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Draw Patterson’s Coercive Cycle

A

Mother and child go to supermarket → child sees and asks for a lollipop → mum says no → child whinges → mum yells no → child yells back → mum gives in and buys the lollipop → child immediately quiets down
(negative reinforcement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is ABC analysis?

A

It is a direct observation tool
Antecedent
Behaviour
Consequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Antecedent

A

Refers to:
Prompts, cues, stimuli, events or interactions that precede or come before a behaviour

Antecedents can be thought of as ‘triggers’
Can include things that contribute to or cause a behaviour

Important to understand antecedent
Helps gather more information about factors that make a behaviour more or less likely to occur

Questions to consider when gathering information about antecedents
When / Where / With whom does the behaviour occur?
What activities/events come before the behaviour?
Are there any other behaviours occurring before the ‘target’ behaviour?
When, where, with whom and in what circumstances is the behaviour LEAST likely to occur?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Behaviour

A

Refers to:
Observed behaviours - must be clearly seen and able to be described

Important to understand the purpose or function of behaviours
Behaviours can express information about unmet needs

Identifying behaviours to target
Behaviours of concern are those that put an individual or those around them at risk of harm

Behvaiours can often occur:
To address or bring attention to a currently unmet need
To allow for escape from an activity or situation
To obtain tangible items
For self-stimulation purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Consequence

A

Refers to:
The responses to the behaviour - what happened after the behaviour occurred?

Different types of consequences
Can be naturally occurring consequences or deliberately put in place as a response to behaviours

Consequences can impact the likelihood of behaviours occurring in the future
Pleasant consequences increase the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again (reinforcement)
Unpleasant consequences decrease the likelihood of the behaviour occurring again (punishment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Understanding antecedents helps us to…

A

control behaviours and therefore consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Disruptive behaviours can be learnt

A

Children learn that certain behavours are followed by favourable consequences, while other behaviours are followed by unfavourable consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Reinforcement

A

When a behaviour is followed by a favourable consequence, it is more likely to happen again in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Punishment

A

When a behaviour is followed by an unfavourable consequence, it is less likely to occur again in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Reinforcement & Punishment can either be ‘Positive’ or ‘Negative’

A

Positive ADDING something to the situation
Negative REMOVING something from the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what is reinforcement?

A

can be used to increase behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what is positive and negative reinforcement

A

POSITIVE REINFORCEMENT means we are adding a pleasant
consequence to increase a behaviour
NEGATIVE REINFORCEMENT = taking away an unpleasant
consequence to increase a behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the coercive cycle?

A

Coercive Cycles reflects a push-pull between two parties (e.g., parent-child, teacherstudent)

Results in the escalation of behaviours before one party ‘gives in’ in some way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what is key to maintaining coercive cycles?

A

Negative Reinforcement Removing something unpleasant that increases the likelihood of a behaviour occurring again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q
  • What is psychopathy?
A
  • Psychopathy identifies special subpopulation of antisocial individuals at-risk for chronic, violent behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q
  • How is psychopathy assessed?
A
  • Extensive debate surrounds the core deficit and etiology of psychopathy
142
Q
  • What causes psychopathy?
A
  • Psychopathic individuals show pervasive emotional deficits attributed to brain differences, and thought to contribute to their chronic antisocial behaviour
143
Q
  • Can psychopathy be treated?
A
  • To date, treatment research poorly designed and carried out; evidence supports antisocial burnout in the absence of treatment
144
Q

who is hervey cleckley

A
  • The Mask of Sanity (1941)
  • Based on experiences with psychiatric patients
  • Narrowed psychopathy construct
  • Forms basis for modern conceptualisations
    Three main domains
    Positive Adjustment
    § Superficial charm and good “intelligence”
    § Absence of delusions/irrational thinking
    § Absence of nervousness or neuroses
    § Suicide rarely carried out
    Chronic Behavioral Deviance
    § Inadequately motivated antisocial behavior
    § Poor judgment / failure to learn from experience
    § Unreliability
    § Fantastic and uninviting behavior with/without drinking
    § Sex life impersonal, trivial, poorly integrated
    § Failure to follow any life plan
    Emotional-interpersonal deficits (THE MAIN ONE)
    – Untruthfulness and insincerity
    – Lack of remorse or shame
    – General poverty in major affective reactions
    – Pathological egocentricity and incapacity for love
    – Specific loss of insight
    – Unresponsiveness in general interpersonal relations
145
Q

How prevalent is psychopathy?

A

10% antisocial behaviour
1% psychopathic traits
These individuals cause the government $460 billion

146
Q

Psychopathy in offenders

A

Antisocial personality disorder (50-60%)
Psychopathy (16 - 25%)
White collar ‘successful psychopaths’ (4% of corporates)
1% general population

147
Q

what type of criminals are psychopaths

A

Psychopaths are opportunistic criminals → no plans for the future → doesnt stay in one place for too long

148
Q

DSM-5 Antisocial Personality Disorder, (categorical model) criteria

A

Pervasive pattern of disregard for/ violation of others’ rights occurring since age 15 (3 or more):
– Repeated criminal behavior
– Repeated lying or conning of others
– Impulsivity or poor planning
– Irritability and aggressive behavior
– Reckless disregard for others’ safety
– Chronic Irresponsibility
– Lack of remorse
Evidence of CD before age 15 year

149
Q

who is robert hare

A

Early empirical study of psychopathy
Developed the Psychopathy Checklist (PCL) and its derivatives
– Original version published in 1980 (revised in 1991)
– To address lack of objective psychopathy measures
– Intended to capture the psychopathy construct described by Cleckley
– Initially validated in relation to global and checklist measures of Cleckley psychopathy

150
Q

How is Psychopathy Assessed?

A

Hare’s Psychopathy Checklist- Revised
Semi-structured face-to-face interview covering education, employment, family, relationships, criminal history, substance use
Supplemented by detailed review of institutional file material (because psychopaths lie, need files to cross check)
Information used to score 20 items

151
Q

Basics of scoring the PCL-R

A

Each item scored on a 3-point scale
– 0 = item does not apply to individual
– 1 = item applies to individual but only somewhat, or mixed evidence
– 2 = item describes individual in most respects
Item scores summed to generate total and factor scores
– 30+ : psychopath
– 21-29 : intermediate
– < 20 : non-psychopath

152
Q

PCL-R: items and structure

A

psychopathy is split into 2 factors

factor 1: interpersonal/effective
1. interpersonal facet
- glibness/superficial charm
- grandiose sense of worth
pathological lying
- conning/manipulative
2. affective facet
- lack of remorse or guilt
- shallow effect
- callous/lack of empathy
- failure to accept responsibility for own actions

factor 2: chronic antisocial lifestyle
3. lifestyle facet
- need for stimulation/proneness to boredom
- parasitic lifestyle
- lack of realistic long term goals
- impulsivity
- irresponsibility

  1. antisocial facet
    - poor behavioural controls
    - early behavioural problems
    - juvenile delinquency
    - revocation of conditional release
    - criminal versatility
153
Q
A
154
Q

what is the Measuring Youth Psychopathy - 1st Gen. instrument: The Antisocial Process Screening Device

A

Used the prior test and revised it for children

155
Q

what are Callous-Unemotional (CU) Traits and conduct disorder traits?

A

CU Traits
Lack of remorse or guilt
Lack of concern for others’ feelings
Lack of concern over poor performance at school
Shallow or deficient emotions
Conduct Disorder
Aggression to people and animals (e.g., bullying, physical fights, weapon use, cruelty, forced sexual activity)
Destruction of property (e.g., fire setting, vandalism)
Deceitfulness/ Theft (e.g., B&E, conning, shoplifting, forgery)
Serious violation of rules (e.g., run away, truancy)

CU Traits & Outcomes
Take home message: Children with CU/CP present with a “special” kind of antisocial behavior

^^ increase chances of becoming a psychopathic adult

156
Q

What do we know about high PCL scorers?

A

Disproportionate criminal involvement
§ Versatile offenders
Most severe and violent offenders
§ Predatory aggression (proactive → seeking out victims)
Predictor of future violence and criminal involvement
§ General and violent recidivism
§ Nonviolent and violent infractions
Attributed to unique causal factors
Poor response to treatment

157
Q

Sex Differences: Female Psychopathy

A

Less prevalent in women than men
More sexual promiscuity (Grann, 2000), prostitution (Strachan, 1993), use of nonviolent sexual coercive tactics (Khan et al., 2017), & relational aggression
Overlap with somatization, histrionic PD, borderline PD (Cale & Lilienfeld, 2002; Lilienfeld et al., 1986)
Predictor of suicide-related behaviors (Kimonis et al., 2010)
Mixed findings for greater violent and non-violent crime and recidivism
Mixed findings for same causal factors as men
Higher rates of childhood abuse, neglect, and trauma (Moreira et al., 2020)
Research still lags far behind that on men and boys

158
Q

What Causes Conduct Disorders with Limited Prosocial Emotions?

A

Take home message: Children with CU traits show severe CPs regardless of coercive/inconsistent parenting
Coercion cycle

159
Q

Developmental Psychopathology of CU Traits

A

^^ psychopaths dont have the negative emotional state
“Unempathetic brains”
Brain differences → amygdala (emotion)

Brain Differences in CU Subtype of CP
Amygdala → too active → conduct disorder → overreactive)

Violent Adult Psychopaths Show Low Amygdala Volume
Differences in how the brain acts and looks

160
Q

CU Traits and Punishment Learning

A

After learning a behaviour is rewarded, struggle to re-learn same behaviour is punished
PI (punishment insensitive → those in a healthy population) struggle to link consequence with own behaviour as the cause
* Punishment cues less aversive
People with psychopathy have a reduced startle response (dont respond to fear normally)

161
Q

CU Traits and Attention Deficits

A

bottle neck (attention) → all they see is what they want → cant see consequences
Goal driven behaviours

162
Q

how heritable are cu and conduct disorders?

A

80%

163
Q

how heritable are conduct disorders?

A

30%

164
Q

Can psychopathy be treated?

A
  • Strong pessimistic opinions
    – ‘‘No clinical intervention will ever be helpful’’ and ‘‘no effective interventions yet exist for psychopaths’’ (Harris & Rice, 2006)
    – Largely based on one unconventional study that made patients worse (Harris et al., 1991)
  • Mainly poorly designed and carried out studies
  • Treatment effective in reducing re-offending in psychopathic juvenile offenders
  • Early intervention with children with callous-unemotional conduct problems promising
165
Q

Intervening on the parent-child relationship
* Parent Child Interaction Therapy: Dos and Donts

A

Parent Management Training (PMT)
(AKA Behavioural Parent Training)
* The most successful interventions for conduct problems
* Based in social learning and behavior modification methods
* Therapist teaches caregiver(s) skills to manage child’s problem behaviours

Planned Ignoring
Rule:
Ignore minor misbehaviour. → behaviour gets worse before it gets better
Look away
Show no expression
Say nothing to or about the child
Catch the 1st positive child behaviour – use a “Do” skill.

Reason:
Helps child notice difference between your responses to positive and negative behaviour
Although the ignored behaviour may get worse at first, consistent ignoring reduces attention seeking behaviour

Examples:
Child: (crashing into parent’s tower with a plane) “I crashed yours”.
Parent: (looks away) “My plane flies in circles”.
Child: “My plane goes high”.
Parent: “Your plane flies really high. I love when you play gently with your toys.”

Behavioural Targets for Strategic Attention and Planned Ignoring
Praise when the child is doing the opposite of what you dont want them to do

STRATEGICALLY ATTEND TO …
Polite manners
Playing gently with the toys
Staying seated at the table
Asking nicely
Talking softly
Sharing toys
Trying even when it is hard

SELECTIVELY IGNORE … Bossiness, demandingness, Banging toys on the table, Leaving seat during play, Whinging , Yelling, Snatching, Giving up in frustration

Constance Hanf’s Intervention
Developed clinical intervention to strengthen the parent-child relationship and achieve authoritative and “good enough” parenting
* Teaching parents play therapy skills to build parentchild bond
* Teaching parents firm limit setting to manage disruptive child behaviors
Trained many leading world-scholars of parenting interventions

Parent-Child Interaction Therapy
* Behavioral family therapy focused on relationship building and establishing firm boundaries for children
Goals are to:
* Establish a more positive parent-child relationship
* Decrease child behaviour problems and increase prosocial behaviours
* Improve parenting skills
* Foster optimal “authoritative” parenting style

PCIT research outcomes:
* Reduces children’s oppositional, noncompliant, aggressive, destructive behaviour
* Calms children & improves selfregulation
* Improves children’s self-esteem
* Reduces parent’s stress levels
* Improves family functioning and emotional well-being
* Gains maintain years after PCIT ends
* The most effective psychological intervention

Who is PCIT for?
Odd
Cd
Adhd
Children from 2 - 7

PCIT as a Transdiagnostic Intervention
Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
Conduct Disorder (CD)
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
Anxiety Disorders
Developmental Disabilities
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
Depression
Selective Mutism
Social Inhibition
Child Maltreatment & Trauma
Foster Carers
Domestic Violence
Obesity

How Does PCIT Work?
Parent wearing bug-in ear device
Therapist behind one-way mirror providing in-vivo coaching to parent in play with child
Parent-child dyad involved in special therapeutic play

Phases of PCIT
Child Directed Interaction (CDI)
7+ weeks
Focuses on rebuilding the relationship between parents and children
Teaches parents to improve child behaviour using positive attention strategies
Parent Directed Interaction (PDI)
7+ weeks
Focuses on reducing ‘big’ behaviour problems like chronic non-compliance, aggression, and destructiveness
Teaches parents to use safe, consistent, and powerful discipline and reward strategies

“Do Skills” of Special Play
FUndamental Principle: Follow the children lead
DO
* Praise
* Reflect
* Imitate
* Describe
* Enjoy

Praise
What?
Complimenting child and their behaviours or creations

How?
* Labeled/specific (tell child exactly what you like) * Unlabeled * Enthusiastically

Why?
Increases self-esteem
* Teaches children what behaviours you like
* Increases behaviours you want to see again
* Fosters positive, warm parent-child relationship
* Makes parents & children feel good

When? Following:
Appropriate behaviour
* New skill you’re trying to build
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Reflect
What?
Repeating what child says

How?
Repeat, paraphrase, or elaborate on what the child says; can use synonyms of child’s
words
* Mustn’t change the meaning of what child said or interpret unstated ideas

Why?
* Increases self-esteem
* Shows you’re listening, understand, are interested and care about what child says
* Improves speech and conversational skills
* Fosters positive, warm parent-child relationship

When? Following:
Appropriate talk
* New verbal skill
* Any time, except after talk you don’t want to hear again

Imitate

What?
Copy what child is doing

How?
Follow the child’s lead

Why?
* Increases self-esteem
* Let’s child lead
* Communicates approval of child’s choices
* Helps parents play at child’s level
* Makes play more fun

When? Following:
Appropriate behaviour
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Describe

What?
Say what child is doing

How?
Child is the subject, not toys or parent
* Describes child’s ongoing or immediately completed (< 5 sec.) observable behaviour
* Uses an action verb

Why?
Increases attention and concentration
* Has a calming effect
* Helps organise child’s thoughts about play
* Shows child you’re interested; selfesteem
* Models speech

When? Following:
Appropriate behaviour
* New skill you want to encourage
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Enjoy

What?
Act warm and happy

How?
Smiling
* Laughing
* Enthusiastic talk
* Affectionate behaviour and talk
* Eye contact
* Facing, sitting close together

When? Following:
* Appropriate behaviour
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Why?
Increases self-esteem
* Let’s child know you enjoy spending time together
* Improves parent-child relationship
* Makes child feel loved

“Don’t Skills” during Special Play se
DON’T
* Give commands
* Ask unnecessary questions
* Criticise or be sarcastic

“Don’t skills”: Don’t ask questions (during Special Play)
Rule:
Avoid Questions
Questions call for your child to give an answer

Reason:
* Leads the conversation instead of following
* Many questions are commands
* Many questions require an answer
* May seem like you are not listening or you disagree with the child

Examples:
That’s a yellow one, right?
* What colour is this?
* Are you going to use the yellow crayon?
* Yellow?
* Do you really want to use yellow?
* Why are you drawing it all yellow?
* Are you having fun?

“Don’t skills”: Don’t criticise

Rule:
Avoid Criticism and Sarcasm (verbal and non-verbal)
Expresses disapproval of your child

Reason:
Gives attention to negative behaviour
* Causes angry feelings between parent and child
* May lower the child’s selfesteem
* Teaches child negative social behaviour

Examples:
“No” “Stop” “Don’t…”
* That’s wrong
* That wasn’t very smart
* Don’t colour the sky pink
* Stop it!
* Your tower isn’t straight enough
* No, sweetie, that’s not where it goes
* Can you do anything right?
* <rolling></rolling>

“Don’t skills”: Don’t give Commands (during Special Play)

Rule:
Avoid Commands
Commands tell the child to do something

Reason:
Takes the lead away from the child
* Can cause conflict
* “Machine-gun” commands frustrate children

Example:
Indirect
Will you hand me the paper?
Can you tell me what animal this is?
Direct
Look at this
Please tie your shoelace

Dangerous Behaviour
Rule:
Stop the play for aggressive and destructive behaviours

Reason:
Aggressive and destructive behaviours cannot be ignored as they can be dangerous. Teaches natural consequences.

Examples:
Child: (hits parent) * Parent: (gathers toys) “special play is over because you hit me. I bet you can play more gently tomorrow.”

Special Play: How Tos
Purpose
Strengthens caregiverchild relationship
Opportunity to practice modeling and reinforcing good behaviours
Planned ignoring addresses minor misbehaviour
Special Play Tips
Follow child’s lead
Imitate what child does
Reflect what child says
Use lots of genuine praise
Be enthusiastic and warm
Keep to five minutes
Practice daily => natural, effortless, automatic
Distraction-free setting

Examples of Activities
Lego
Blocks
Play sets (e.g., food, farm, train)
Dolls House
Colouring
Mr Potato Head
Arts &Crafts (older kids)

Lecture Summary
Baumrind’s authoritative parenting style linked with optimal child outcomes
Parent management training is most efficacious treatment for child conduct disorders, and is based in:
Social learning theory
Operant conditioning principles
Attachment theory (PCIT and its counterparts)
Key goal of behavior modification programs like PMT:
Extinguish conditioned problem behavior by altering consequences (reinforcement, punishment) and strengthen parent-child relationship

166
Q

How does child behaviour develop?

A

The power of caregiver modeling & responding
Albert Bandura
Managing Problem Behaviour Why do child behaviours happen?
Two key principles:
Parent MODELLING of behaviours
Parent REINFORCEMENT of behaviours

Key Principle #1
What is parent modelling?
Children imitate the behaviours they observe from important people in their lives
Children were presented with models that did certain behaviours (aggressive to a doll)
Children copied models
Exposure to aggressive modelling → children learn to be aggressive and extend on it to do worse

Key Principle #2 What is reinforcement?
→ increases the likelihood of behaviours (positive and negative)
Coercive cycle

167
Q

What does optimal parenting look like?

A

Diana Baumrind’s Parenting Styles
Authoratitative (high demand, high response) OPTIMAL
Authoritarian (high demand, low response)
Permissive (low demand, high response)
Uninvolved (low demand, low response)

Demandingness (obedience) → responsiveness (how much are parents responding to children’s needs)
If youre in the middle of these domains → ‘good enough’ parenting

Optimal Parenting Style:
”Warm but Firm”
* Improved social competence

168
Q

How does child behaviour develop?

A
  • The power of caregiver modeling & responding
    Albert Bandura
    Managing Problem Behaviour Why do child behaviours happen?
    Two key principles:
    Parent MODELLING of behaviours
    Parent REINFORCEMENT of behaviours

Key Principle #1
What is parent modelling?
Children imitate the behaviours they observe from important people in their lives
Children were presented with models that did certain behaviours (aggressive to a doll)
Children copied models
Exposure to aggressive modelling → children learn to be aggressive and extend on it to do worse

Key Principle #2 What is reinforcement?
→ increases the likelihood of behaviours (positive and negative)
Coercive cycle

169
Q

Intervening on the parent-child relationship
* Parent Child Interaction Therapy: Dos and Donts

A

Parent Management Training (PMT)
(AKA Behavioural Parent Training)
* The most successful interventions for conduct problems
* Based in social learning and behavior modification methods
* Therapist teaches caregiver(s) skills to manage child’s problem behaviours

Planned Ignoring
Rule:
Ignore minor misbehaviour. → behaviour gets worse before it gets better
Look away
Show no expression
Say nothing to or about the child
Catch the 1st positive child behaviour – use a “Do” skill.

Reason:
Helps child notice difference between your responses to positive and negative behaviour
Although the ignored behaviour may get worse at first, consistent ignoring reduces attention seeking behaviour

Examples:
Child: (crashing into parent’s tower with a plane) “I crashed yours”.
Parent: (looks away) “My plane flies in circles”.
Child: “My plane goes high”.
Parent: “Your plane flies really high. I love when you play gently with your toys.”

Behavioural Targets for Strategic Attention and Planned Ignoring
Praise when the child is doing the opposite of what you dont want them to do

STRATEGICALLY ATTEND TO …
Polite manners
Playing gently with the toys
Staying seated at the table
Asking nicely
Talking softly
Sharing toys
Trying even when it is hard

SELECTIVELY IGNORE … Bossiness, demandingness, Banging toys on the table, Leaving seat during play, Whinging , Yelling, Snatching, Giving up in frustration

Constance Hanf’s Intervention
Developed clinical intervention to strengthen the parent-child relationship and achieve authoritative and “good enough” parenting
* Teaching parents play therapy skills to build parentchild bond
* Teaching parents firm limit setting to manage disruptive child behaviors
Trained many leading world-scholars of parenting interventions

Parent-Child Interaction Therapy
* Behavioral family therapy focused on relationship building and establishing firm boundaries for children
Goals are to:
* Establish a more positive parent-child relationship
* Decrease child behaviour problems and increase prosocial behaviours
* Improve parenting skills
* Foster optimal “authoritative” parenting style

PCIT research outcomes:
* Reduces children’s oppositional, noncompliant, aggressive, destructive behaviour
* Calms children & improves selfregulation
* Improves children’s self-esteem
* Reduces parent’s stress levels
* Improves family functioning and emotional well-being
* Gains maintain years after PCIT ends
* The most effective psychological intervention

Who is PCIT for?
Odd
Cd
Adhd
Children from 2 - 7

PCIT as a Transdiagnostic Intervention
Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
Conduct Disorder (CD)
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
Anxiety Disorders
Developmental Disabilities
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)
Depression
Selective Mutism
Social Inhibition
Child Maltreatment & Trauma
Foster Carers
Domestic Violence
Obesity

How Does PCIT Work?
Parent wearing bug-in ear device
Therapist behind one-way mirror providing in-vivo coaching to parent in play with child
Parent-child dyad involved in special therapeutic play

Phases of PCIT
Child Directed Interaction (CDI)
7+ weeks
Focuses on rebuilding the relationship between parents and children
Teaches parents to improve child behaviour using positive attention strategies
Parent Directed Interaction (PDI)
7+ weeks
Focuses on reducing ‘big’ behaviour problems like chronic non-compliance, aggression, and destructiveness
Teaches parents to use safe, consistent, and powerful discipline and reward strategies

“Do Skills” of Special Play
FUndamental Principle: Follow the children lead
DO
* Praise
* Reflect
* Imitate
* Describe
* Enjoy

Praise
What?
Complimenting child and their behaviours or creations

How?
* Labeled/specific (tell child exactly what you like) * Unlabeled * Enthusiastically

Why?
Increases self-esteem
* Teaches children what behaviours you like
* Increases behaviours you want to see again
* Fosters positive, warm parent-child relationship
* Makes parents & children feel good

When? Following:
Appropriate behaviour
* New skill you’re trying to build
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Reflect
What?
Repeating what child says

How?
Repeat, paraphrase, or elaborate on what the child says; can use synonyms of child’s
words
* Mustn’t change the meaning of what child said or interpret unstated ideas

Why?
* Increases self-esteem
* Shows you’re listening, understand, are interested and care about what child says
* Improves speech and conversational skills
* Fosters positive, warm parent-child relationship

When? Following:
Appropriate talk
* New verbal skill
* Any time, except after talk you don’t want to hear again

Imitate

What?
Copy what child is doing

How?
Follow the child’s lead

Why?
* Increases self-esteem
* Let’s child lead
* Communicates approval of child’s choices
* Helps parents play at child’s level
* Makes play more fun

When? Following:
Appropriate behaviour
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Describe

What?
Say what child is doing

How?
Child is the subject, not toys or parent
* Describes child’s ongoing or immediately completed (< 5 sec.) observable behaviour
* Uses an action verb

Why?
Increases attention and concentration
* Has a calming effect
* Helps organise child’s thoughts about play
* Shows child you’re interested; selfesteem
* Models speech

When? Following:
Appropriate behaviour
* New skill you want to encourage
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Enjoy

What?
Act warm and happy

How?
Smiling
* Laughing
* Enthusiastic talk
* Affectionate behaviour and talk
* Eye contact
* Facing, sitting close together

When? Following:
* Appropriate behaviour
* Any time, except after behaviour you don’t want to see again

Why?
Increases self-esteem
* Let’s child know you enjoy spending time together
* Improves parent-child relationship
* Makes child feel loved

“Don’t Skills” during Special Play se
DON’T
* Give commands
* Ask unnecessary questions
* Criticise or be sarcastic

“Don’t skills”: Don’t ask questions (during Special Play)
Rule:
Avoid Questions
Questions call for your child to give an answer

Reason:
* Leads the conversation instead of following
* Many questions are commands
* Many questions require an answer
* May seem like you are not listening or you disagree with the child

Examples:
That’s a yellow one, right?
* What colour is this?
* Are you going to use the yellow crayon?
* Yellow?
* Do you really want to use yellow?
* Why are you drawing it all yellow?
* Are you having fun?

“Don’t skills”: Don’t criticise

Rule:
Avoid Criticism and Sarcasm (verbal and non-verbal)
Expresses disapproval of your child

Reason:
Gives attention to negative behaviour
* Causes angry feelings between parent and child
* May lower the child’s selfesteem
* Teaches child negative social behaviour

Examples:
“No” “Stop” “Don’t…”
* That’s wrong
* That wasn’t very smart
* Don’t colour the sky pink
* Stop it!
* Your tower isn’t straight enough
* No, sweetie, that’s not where it goes
* Can you do anything right?
* <rolling></rolling>

“Don’t skills”: Don’t give Commands (during Special Play)

Rule:
Avoid Commands
Commands tell the child to do something

Reason:
Takes the lead away from the child
* Can cause conflict
* “Machine-gun” commands frustrate children

Example:
Indirect
Will you hand me the paper?
Can you tell me what animal this is?
Direct
Look at this
Please tie your shoelace

Dangerous Behaviour
Rule:
Stop the play for aggressive and destructive behaviours

Reason:
Aggressive and destructive behaviours cannot be ignored as they can be dangerous. Teaches natural consequences.

Examples:
Child: (hits parent) * Parent: (gathers toys) “special play is over because you hit me. I bet you can play more gently tomorrow.”

Special Play: How Tos
Purpose
Strengthens caregiverchild relationship
Opportunity to practice modeling and reinforcing good behaviours
Planned ignoring addresses minor misbehaviour
Special Play Tips
Follow child’s lead
Imitate what child does
Reflect what child says
Use lots of genuine praise
Be enthusiastic and warm
Keep to five minutes
Practice daily => natural, effortless, automatic
Distraction-free setting

Examples of Activities
Lego
Blocks
Play sets (e.g., food, farm, train)
Dolls House
Colouring
Mr Potato Head
Arts &Crafts (older kids)

170
Q
  1. What is psychopathy?
A

Answer: Psychopathy is a personality disorder characterized by antisocial behavior, emotional-interpersonal deficits, and a lack of empathy or remorse. It often leads to chronic, violent behavior.

171
Q
  1. How is psychopathy assessed?
A

Answer: Psychopathy is commonly assessed using Robert Hare’s Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R), which involves a semi-structured interview covering various aspects of life and a review of institutional records. The PCL-R includes 20 items scored on a scale from 0 to 2, with a score of 30+ indicating psychopathy.

172
Q
  1. What causes psychopathy?
A

Answer: The causes of psychopathy are not fully understood but involve a combination of genetic and neurobiological factors, particularly involving the amygdala, which affects emotional responses. Twin studies suggest a high heritability, especially in youth with callous-unemotional (CU) traits.

173
Q
  1. Can psychopathy be treated?
A

Answer: Treatment for psychopathy is challenging, with many experts pessimistic about its effectiveness. However, early intervention in children with CU traits shows promise in reducing re-offending, especially among juvenile offenders.

174
Q
  1. Who was Hervey Cleckley, and what was his contribution to understanding psychopathy?
A

Answer: Hervey Cleckley was a psychiatrist who published The Mask of Sanity (1941) based on his work with psychiatric patients. He narrowed the psychopathy construct and introduced core domains that influence modern understandings of psychopathy.

175
Q
  1. What are the three main domains in Cleckley’s description of psychopathy?
A

Answer: The three main domains are:
Positive Adjustment: Superficial charm, good intelligence, absence of delusions, low anxiety.
Chronic Behavioral Deviance: Antisocial behavior, poor judgment, impulsivity, unreliable.
Emotional-Interpersonal Deficits: Lack of empathy, remorse, or emotional depth—considered the core of psychopathy.

176
Q
  1. What is the “Emotional-Interpersonal Deficit”?
A

Answer: This core feature involves a lack of genuine emotional response, such as empathy or remorse, combined with egocentricity and shallow affect.

177
Q
  1. How common is psychopathy?
A

Answer: Approximately 1% of the general population shows psychopathic traits, with higher rates in certain groups like corporate executives (4%) and offenders (16–25%).

178
Q
  1. What is the difference between “successful” and “criminal” psychopaths?
A

Answer: Criminal psychopaths often engage in violent or impulsive crimes, while “successful” psychopaths (often found in corporate settings) display manipulative, non-violent traits that allow them to avoid detection.

179
Q
  1. What are the criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder (ASPD) in DSM-5?
A

Answer: ASPD requires a pervasive disregard for others’ rights since age 15, evidenced by behaviors like repeated criminal acts, lying, impulsivity, aggression, and a lack of remorse.

180
Q
  1. What are Callous-Unemotional (CU) traits, and why are they important?
A

Answer: CU traits, such as lack of remorse, empathy, and shallow emotions, are markers of severe antisocial behavior in youth. Children with CU traits are at higher risk for adult psychopathy.

181
Q
  1. What behavioral patterns are associated with CU traits?
A

Answer: CU traits are linked with early onset and severe conduct problems, proactive aggression, violent offending, and a high risk of recidivism.

182
Q
  1. How do CU traits affect punishment learning and attention?
A

Answer: Individuals with CU traits often struggle to associate consequences with their actions, showing reduced responsiveness to punishment and focused attention solely on goal-driven behaviors.

183
Q
  1. What are the brain differences associated with psychopathy?
A

Answer: Psychopaths often show abnormalities in the amygdala, which affects emotional processing, resulting in reduced emotional responses such as fear.

184
Q
  1. How does female psychopathy differ from male psychopathy?
A

Answer: Psychopathy is less prevalent in women and often includes relational aggression, somatization, and a history of trauma or abuse. There is mixed evidence on whether women with psychopathic traits engage in as much violent crime as men.

185
Q
  1. What is the difference between Conduct Disorder and Oppositional Defiant Disorder?
A

Answer: Conduct Disorder (CD) involves severe antisocial behaviors like aggression and theft, while Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) includes defiant, angry behavior without the same level of violation of others’ rights.

186
Q
  1. What does the term “Limited Prosocial Emotions” (LPE) refer to in the context of conduct disorders?
A

Answer: LPE is a subtype of CD in DSM-5, where individuals show traits like lack of empathy and shallow affect across multiple settings, making them more likely to develop severe conduct problems.

187
Q
  1. Why is there a pessimistic view toward psychopathy treatment?
A

Answer: This pessimism stems from studies showing limited effectiveness of treatment in adults with psychopathy, with some studies even suggesting that certain treatments can increase recidivism.

188
Q
  1. What is the potential role of early intervention in youth with CU traits?
A

Answer: Early intervention in children with CU traits has shown promise in reducing the development of full psychopathy and may prevent chronic offending.

189
Q
  1. What are the main takeaways regarding psychopathy?
A

Answer: Psychopathy is a unique subset of antisocial personality that poses significant challenges for treatment due to pervasive emotional deficits. There is ongoing debate about its causes and treatment, with some success seen in early interventions for at-risk youth.

190
Q
  1. How heritable is psychopathy?
A

Answer: Psychopathy is estimated to be 80% heritable, indicating a strong genetic component.

191
Q
  1. How does psychopathy differ in adults and children?
A

Answer: In adults, psychopathy is classified as a behavioral disorder, assessed by actions and past behaviors. In children, it is more affective, focusing on emotions and cognitive patterns.

192
Q
  1. What is considered the core deficit in psychopathy, and why is it controversial?
A

Answer: The core deficit in psychopathy is debated. Theories suggest it may involve:
Fearlessness and insensitivity to punishment
Limited emotional response to distressing cues
Attentional deficits
Atypical associative learning Efforts to unify these perspectives are still limited.

193
Q
  1. What is the Psychopathy Checklist and how is it used?
A

Answer: The Psychopathy Checklist (PCL-R) is a tool developed by Robert Hare to assess psychopathy. It includes a 60-90 minute interview plus file review, covering 20 traits across affective, interpersonal, and behavioral symptom clusters.

194
Q
  1. How is the Psychopathy Checklist scored?
A

Answer: Each trait is scored on a 3-point scale:
0: Trait does not apply
1: Trait applies somewhat
2: Trait definitely applies Scores range from 0 to 40, with a score of 30+ indicating psychopathy.

195
Q
  1. What qualifies as a traumatic event in PTSD?
A

Answer: Exposure to death, threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence, either directly, as a witness, or indirectly (e.g., learning about a close relative/friend experiencing a violent or accidental event), or through repeated exposure in a professional context.

196
Q
  1. What are the main criteria for diagnosing PTSD according to the DSM-5?
A

Answer: PTSD diagnosis requires:
Exposure to trauma.
Intrusion symptoms (e.g., intrusive memories, nightmares, flashbacks).
Avoidance of trauma-related stimuli.
Negative alterations in cognition/mood (e.g., negative beliefs, feelings of alienation).
Alterations in arousal or reactivity (e.g., irritability, hypervigilance).
Symptoms must persist for over a month, cause significant distress, and not be due to another condition.

197
Q
  1. How common is PTSD in the general population?
A

Answer: Lifetime prevalence is 7-8% in the general population, with higher rates in trauma-exposed individuals: 20.4% in women and 8.2% in men.

198
Q
  1. What is Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?
A

Answer: ASD occurs within 3 days to 1 month post-trauma, requiring 9 out of 14 symptoms across five categories (intrusions, mood, dissociation, avoidance, arousal). It is a controversial diagnosis with limited predictive accuracy for long-term PTSD.

199
Q
  1. What are some risk factors for developing PTSD?
A

Vulnerability factors: Gender, prior trauma, past psychiatric illness, history of abuse.
Peritraumatic factors: Severity, type, life threat, proximity, and dissociation during trauma.
Posttraumatic factors: Level of social support and safety post-trauma.

200
Q
  1. What is Mowrer’s Two-Factor Theory?
A

Answer: This theory (1947) explains PTSD symptoms through classical conditioning (association of trauma with fear) and operant conditioning (avoidance behaviors to reduce anxiety).

201
Q
  1. What is Lang’s Information Processing Theory?
A

Answer: Proposed by Lang (1977) and adapted by Foa, Steketee, and Rothbaum, this theory suggests PTSD is linked to a “fear network” that is stable, broadly generalized, and easily triggered, causing conscious intrusions.

202
Q
  1. What is Ehlers and Clark’s Cognitive Model of PTSD?
A

Answer: This model posits that trauma memories are poorly integrated, making them both difficult to recall and easily triggered, with negative appraisals of self, world, and trauma being central.

203
Q
  1. What is Psychological Debriefing, and why is it controversial?
A

Answer: Psychological Debriefing is a single-session intervention originally for emergency personnel. It’s controversial because meta-analyses suggest it may hinder natural recovery and potentially worsen PTSD symptoms.

204
Q
  1. What are the principles of Psychological First Aid?
A

Answer: Psychological First Aid aims to enhance safety, calming, connectedness, self-efficacy, and hopefulness immediately after trauma. It is supported by limited research.

205
Q
  1. What role do pharmacological interventions play in PTSD?
A

Answer: Pharmacological treatments are not first-line but include:
Propranolol in the first few hours post-trauma, potentially reducing PTSD risk.
Benzodiazepines, which may increase PTSD risk.
Tricyclic antidepressants may help reduce arousal.

206
Q
  1. What are the main trauma-focused therapies for PTSD?
A

Prolonged Exposure Therapy: Encourages “reliving” traumatic events to reduce fear.
Cognitive Processing Therapy: Focuses on changing unhelpful beliefs related to trauma.
Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR): Combines exposure with eye movement to process trauma.
Narrative Exposure Therapy: Involves creating a coherent trauma narrative.

207
Q
  1. What techniques are used in Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for PTSD?
A

Answer: Techniques include psychoeducation, imaginal exposure, in vivo exposure, cognitive restructuring, and relapse prevention.

208
Q
  1. What is imaginal exposure, and why is it used?
A

Answer: Imaginal exposure involves “reliving” the trauma through memory to facilitate habituation, emotional processing, and cognitive change. It requires client consent, as symptoms may increase initially.

209
Q
  1. What is the purpose of in vivo exposure in PTSD treatment?
A

Answer: In vivo exposure gradually exposes the client to feared situations, helping reduce avoidance and facilitate cognitive changes.

210
Q
  1. How does cognitive therapy help with PTSD?
A

Answer: Cognitive therapy identifies and challenges maladaptive thoughts related to trauma (e.g., “The world is dangerous”), helping to develop healthier beliefs.

211
Q
  1. What does relapse prevention entail in PTSD treatment?
A

Answer: Relapse prevention includes revisiting the intervention, preparing for future challenges, understanding the difference between lapse and relapse, and creating a plan for managing potential setbacks.

212
Q
  1. When were eating disorders first formally acknowledged in the DSM?
A

Answer: DSM-III, though many cases were classified as “not otherwise specified” (NOS) due to diagnostic limitations. Later DSM revisions aimed to reduce NOS diagnoses by revising criteria and identifying new disorders.

213
Q
  1. DSM-IV vs. DSM-5 Anorexia Nervosa (AN): Key Differences
A

DSM-IV criteria included:
Refusal to maintain minimally normal body weight (85% expected, BMI 17.5).
Intense fear of gaining weight.
Body image disturbance.
Amenorrhea (absence of menstruation), which only applied to women.
Subtypes: Restricting and binge-eating/purging types.
DSM-5 removed amenorrhea and specified weight severity thresholds.

214
Q
  1. DSM-IV vs. DSM-5 Bulimia Nervosa (BN): Key Differences
A

DSM-IV criteria:
Binge eating (large amount in a short time) with lack of control.
Inappropriate compensatory behaviors.
Binge/compensatory behavior 2X/week for 3 months.
Self-evaluation heavily influenced by weight/shape.
DSM-5 adjusted the frequency of binging/compensatory behavior to 1X/week.

215
Q
  1. DSM-5 Binge Eating Disorder (BED)
A

Binge eating episodes involve:
Eating large amounts in a discrete period with loss of control.
Associated symptoms (e.g., rapid eating, eating when not hungry, feeling guilty).
Bingeing 1X/week for 3 months, without compensatory behaviors.

216
Q
  1. Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder (OSFED)
A

For individuals not meeting full criteria for AN, BN, or BED, includes conditions like purging disorder and night eating syndrome.

217
Q
  1. Prevalence Types
A

Point prevalence: Cases at a given time.
Lifetime prevalence: Cases at any time in life (most commonly reported).
Incidence: New cases over a specific time period.
Prevalence Order: Higher in binge eating, followed by bulimia, then anorexia.

218
Q

Causes of Eating Disorders
7. Social and Cultural Influences

A

Social comparison:
Upward: Comparing to someone “better” (often worsens self-view).
Downward: Comparing to someone “worse” (may boost self-esteem).
Media Influence: Media alone isn’t solely responsible. Other factors like peer influences (body-type idealization, “fat talk”) and family pressures (parents’ weight concerns) are significant.
Cultural Variations: Different cultures value different body types; for instance, African American and Hispanic Americans may internalize the thin ideal less, while in some Chinese cultures, there is a form of non-fat-phobic AN.

219
Q
  1. Psychological Factors

of eating disorders

A

Issues with self-esteem, identity, and perfectionism are common, with eating disorders often reflecting attempts at control.
Escape Theory: Eating disorders may serve as a way to escape aversive self-awareness.

220
Q
  1. Biological Factors

of eating disorders

A

Genetics: Higher risk if a family member has an ED, with stronger concordance in MZ twins.
Neuroendocrine Dysfunction: The hypothalamus regulates hunger, while serotonin imbalances can link to impulsivity and binge eating.

221
Q

Bulimia Nervosa (BN) Treatments

A
  1. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for BN

Stage 1: Introduce CBT model, stabilize eating behaviors.
Stage 2: Eliminate dieting behaviors and confront fear foods.
Stage 3: Focus on maintenance and relapse prevention.
Success rate: 60%, effective for 5-6 years, and works quickly.
11. Interpersonal Psychotherapy (IPT) for BN

Focuses on interpersonal relationships rather than ED symptoms.
Areas addressed: Interpersonal disputes, role transitions, grief, deficits.
Success rate: 70% over 12 months but slower improvement.
CBT vs. IPT: CBT is often preferred for severe cases due to faster symptom reduction, while IPT may be effective for less severe cases.

222
Q

Anorexia Nervosa (AN) Treatments

A
  1. Initial Goal: Weight restoration.
  2. Family-Based Therapy (FBT) – “Maudsley Approach”

Phase 1: Parents lead weight restoration.
Phase 2: Gradual return of eating control to the child.
Phase 3: Help child establish a healthy identity.
15-20 sessions over a year, outpatient.
14. Other Approaches

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy for AN involves addressing ambivalence or resistance.
Motivational Interviewing: Helps clients recognize the need for change.

223
Q

Pharmacological Treatments
of eating disorders

A
  1. Effectiveness of Medications

SSRIs may help in bulimia but not particularly effective for anorexia.
Pharmacotherapy generally not successful as standalone treatment for EDs; usually, medication is combined with other therapeutic methods.

224
Q
  1. How is intelligence defined by Binet and Simon (1905)?
A

Answer: Binet and Simon (1905) defined intelligence as the ability to judge well, understand well, and reason well.

225
Q
  1. What was Wechsler’s (1939) definition of intelligence?
A

Answer: Wechsler (1939) defined intelligence as the aggregate capacity of the individual to act purposefully, think rationally, and deal effectively with the environment.

226
Q
  1. What is Linda Gottfredson & 51 other intelligence experts’ (1997) definition of intelligence?
A

Answer: Linda Gottfredson and other experts (1997) described intelligence as the ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly, and learn from experience. It is broader than academic skills, reflecting a deeper capability to understand and make sense of the surroundings.

227
Q
  1. Who is considered the father of intelligence testing and what contribution did he make?
A

Answer: Alfred Binet is considered the father of intelligence testing. He created the Binet-Simon test, which was designed to measure a person’s cognitive abilities and identify children who might need special education.

228
Q
  1. What is Lewis Terman known for in the context of intelligence assessment?
A

Answer: Lewis Terman adapted the Binet-Simon test for use in America and invented the concept of the Intelligence Quotient (IQ).

229
Q
  1. What were Charles Spearman’s contributions to intelligence theory?
A

Answer: Charles Spearman contributed to intelligence theory by using statistics to measure intelligence in terms of general intelligence (g) and specific intelligences (s). His work laid the foundation for modern IQ tests.

230
Q
  1. How did David Wechsler contribute to intelligence testing?
A

Answer: David Wechsler attempted to create an intelligence scale that could provide the best estimate of an individual’s intelligence, focusing on a more comprehensive assessment of intellectual functioning.

231
Q
  1. What is Raymond Cattell’s theory of intelligence?
A

Answer: Raymond Cattell differentiated between fluid intelligence (the ability to process information) and crystallized intelligence (the facts we know). He argued that fluid intelligence declines with age, while crystallized intelligence remains stable.

232
Q
  1. What was Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence?
A

Answer: Howard Gardner proposed the theory of multiple intelligences, emphasizing that intelligence includes a variety of types such as musical, linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic intelligences.

233
Q
  1. What is Robert Sternberg’s theory of intelligence?
A

Answer: Robert Sternberg introduced the concept of successful intelligence, which includes problem-solving ability, and practical intelligence, which refers to “street smarts” or the ability to navigate real-world challenges.

234
Q
  1. What is Carol Dweck known for in the study of intelligence?
A

Answer: Carol Dweck is known for her research on growth mindset vs fixed mindset, emphasizing how individuals’ beliefs about their intelligence can influence their motivation and achievement.

235
Q
  1. What did Alan and Nadeen Kaufman contribute to intelligence testing?
A

Answer: Alan and Nadeen Kaufman focused on intelligence testing that considers the broader social context and the individual undergoing the test, emphasizing the importance of the testing environment.

236
Q
  1. What is emotional intelligence and who are the key figures behind this theory?
A

Answer: Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to recognize, understand, and manage emotions. It was developed by Peter Salovey and John Mayer.

237
Q
  1. What are the two popular intelligence tests mentioned in the lesson?
A

Answer: The two popular intelligence tests are the Stanford-Binet 5 (SB-5) and the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale IV (WAIS-IV).

238
Q
  1. How are intelligence test scores standardized?
A

Answer: Intelligence test scores are standardized with a mean score of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. This means that 68% of people score between 85 and 115, and 95% score between 70 and 130.

239
Q
  1. What is the difference between reliability and validity in intelligence testing?
A

Answer: Reliability refers to the consistency of the test results across different times and raters. Validity refers to the accuracy of the test, specifically whether it measures what it purports to measure.

240
Q
  1. How reliable and valid are intelligence tests?
A

Answer: Intelligence tests are generally highly reliable, with high concurrent validity (the ability to correlate with other measures of intelligence), but they often have poor predictive validity (the ability to predict future success or outcomes).

241
Q
  1. What are some controversies surrounding intelligence assessment?
A

Answer: Controversies include the limited scope of IQ tests, which fail to measure multiple intelligences such as emotional, creative, and practical intelligences. There are also concerns about the misuse of IQ tests in educational, forensic, and employment settings, as well as their use to justify claims about genetic differences between groups.

242
Q
  1. What are the promises of intelligence assessment?
A

Answer: Intelligence tests can help identify children who may benefit from extra education, track efforts to address social disadvantages, and assist in selecting candidates for employment, especially when used as part of a broader evaluation.

243
Q
  1. What is test bias in the context of intelligence assessment?
A

Answer: Test bias refers to the unfairness or prejudice in an intelligence test that results in a disproportionate effect on one group compared to another, potentially leading to inaccurate or misleading conclusions about intelligence.

244
Q
  1. What is the key question when discussing test bias?

Intelligence

A

Answer: The key question is whether the differences in test scores reflect true differences in intelligence or are simply due to biased testing.

245
Q
  1. Why is test bias a significant concern in intelligence testing?
A

Answer: Test bias is a concern because many assessments influence important decisions, such as entry into gifted programs, job placements, and forensic evaluations, and bias could unfairly disadvantage one group over another.

246
Q
  1. How is test bias related to validity in intelligence testing?
A

Answer: Test bias is related to validity (accuracy of measurement) because a biased test may not measure intelligence equally across different groups, leading to differential validity (inconsistent accuracy across groups).

247
Q
  1. What is differential validity in the context of test bias?
A

Answer: Differential validity occurs when a test or assessment is valid for one subgroup (e.g., middle-class individuals) but not for another subgroup (e.g., lower-class individuals), resulting in unfair conclusions.

248
Q
  1. How can bias be assessed in intelligence testing?
A

Answer: Bias can be assessed in terms of:
Predictive validity: Does the test predict future performance differently for different groups?
Construct validity: Does the test measure the same construct for all groups?

249
Q
  1. What is predictive validity in relation to test bias?
A

Answer: Predictive validity refers to whether a test accurately predicts future outcomes (e.g., academic or career success) for different groups. Bias is present if the test leads to incorrect predictions for a particular group.

250
Q
  1. What is construct validity in relation to test bias?
A

Answer: Construct validity concerns whether the test measures the same underlying construct (e.g., intelligence) in the same way for different groups. Bias in construct validity occurs if the test measures different things for different groups.

251
Q
  1. What are some methods for measuring bias in construct validity?
A

Answer: Methods to measure bias in construct validity include:
(In)consistency in factor analysis: Whether different groups group variables the same way.
(In)consistency in rank ordering of difficulty: Whether the difficulty ranking of items differs between groups.
(In)consistency of convergent/discriminant validity: Whether the test correlates appropriately with related measures and does not correlate with unrelated measures.

252
Q
  1. What is factor analysis, and how does it relate to measuring construct validity?
A

Answer: Factor analysis is a statistical method used to identify the underlying dimensions (factors) that explain the interrelationships among variables. Bias may be indicated if different groups group variables differently during factor analysis.

253
Q
  1. What is rank ordering of difficulty, and how does it help assess bias in construct validity?
A

Answer: Rank ordering of difficulty refers to arranging test items based on their average difficulty. If different groups rank the items differently, it suggests a bias in the test for those groups.

254
Q
  1. What is convergent validity, and how does it relate to bias in construct validity?
A

Answer: Convergent validity refers to the degree to which a test correlates with other measures of the same construct. Inconsistent convergent validity across groups can indicate construct bias.

255
Q
  1. How does The Bell Curve (1994) argue about IQ testing and its implications for racial differences?
A

Answer: The Bell Curve argues that IQ tests are an accurate measure of intelligence, predicting school and career success, and that racial differences in IQ are likely due to genetics rather than environmental factors. It claims that educational interventions have little effect on IQ or racial differences.

256
Q
  1. What are the two main explanations for IQ differences between groups like African Americans and White Americans?
A

Answer: The two main explanations are:
Differences are due to a gene-environment interaction (e.g., access to education and socioeconomic status).
Differences are due to biased tests.

257
Q
  1. What is the concept of “culture-free” intelligence tests, and why is it controversial?
A

Answer: “Culture-free” intelligence tests aim to eliminate cultural biases, often using nonverbal tests like Raven’s Matrices. However, they are controversial because they may still be culturally biased, as some logical patterns used in these tests may be more familiar to certain cultures than others.

258
Q
  1. Why might nonverbal tests like Raven’s Matrices still be culture-bound?
A

Answer: Nonverbal tests like Raven’s Matrices rely on matrix logic, which may be familiar in some cultures but not in others, making them not truly culture-free.

259
Q
  1. What is the problem with seeking a culture-free IQ test?
A

Answer: The problem is that intelligence is often defined in terms of adaptive behavior within a particular culture. Therefore, a test that is free from cultural influence may no longer be an accurate measure of intelligence, as it might not predict intelligence well in any culture.

260
Q
  1. How do different cultures conceptualize intelligence?
A

Answer:
Western cultures tend to view intelligence as a means for individuals to categorize and rationally debate.
Eastern cultures see intelligence as recognizing contradictions, understanding complexity, and playing social roles.
African cultures combine cognitive skills with social responsibility, emphasizing qualities like respect and responsibility.

261
Q
  1. How do Luo people in Kenya conceptualize intelligence?
A

Answer: Among the Luo people, intelligence includes:
Rieko (academic intelligence),
Luoro (social qualities like respect and responsibility),
Paro (practical thinking), and
Winjo (comprehension).

262
Q
  1. What does Elena Grigorenko argue about comparing intelligence across cultures?
A

Answer: Elena Grigorenko notes that while mindlessly applying the same tests across cultures is undesirable, there is still a desire to compare intelligence across cultures using a standard measure, which must be balanced with assessing people within their own cultural context.

263
Q
  1. What is the challenge in creating culture-free IQ tests?
A

Answer: The challenge is that intelligence, when defined as adaptive behavior, is influenced by culture. Therefore, a truly culture-free test would likely fail to predict intelligence in any culture effectively.

264
Q
  1. What is the intelligence heritability debate?
A

Answer: The intelligence heritability debate concerns the relative contribution of genetic versus environmental factors in determining intelligence. It questions whether intelligence is primarily inherited (genetics) or shaped by environmental influences such as education and socio-economic status.

265
Q
  1. What do twin studies reveal about the heritability of intelligence?
A

Answer: Twin studies traditionally concluded that about 70% of the variance in intelligence is heritable. However, newer studies show that in high socio-economic status (SES) contexts, this figure holds, but in low SES contexts, genetics accounts for only 8% of the variance, suggesting a stronger role for the environment in lower SES groups.

266
Q
  1. How do genetic sequencing studies relate to intelligence heritability?
A

Answer: Genetic sequencing studies have found that genome-wide sequences explain about 4% of the variance in intelligence. This figure increases to 10% when years of education are also considered, indicating that both genetic factors and educational experiences contribute to intelligence.

267
Q
  1. What is the role of nature and nurture in intelligence?
A

Answer: Both nature (genetics) and nurture (environmental factors like education and socio-economic status) play important roles in shaping intelligence. The balance between these factors is central to understanding individual differences in intelligence.

268
Q
  1. What is the Mozart Effect, and how does it relate to improving intelligence?
A

Answer: The Mozart Effect suggests that listening to classical music can temporarily boost performance on certain tasks. However, research shows that this effect is not long-lasting, and there is no evidence that it leads to long-term improvements in intelligence.

269
Q
  1. What does research say about the impact of music training on intelligence?
A

Answer: Research, including a study by Sala and Gobet (2017), indicates that music training does not improve cognitive skills such as fluid intelligence, memory, phonological processing, spatial ability, or cognitive control. Additionally, it has no significant impact on academic achievement.

270
Q
  1. What does research say about the impact of chess on intelligence?
A

Answer: Studies show that chess training improves memory skills in chess players, but these benefits do not transfer to other areas of cognitive functioning. Additionally, there is a lack of appropriate control groups in many studies, making it difficult to draw firm conclusions about its impact on intelligence.

271
Q
  1. What is working memory training (WMT), and how does it relate to intelligence?
A

Answer: Working memory training (WMT) involves exercises designed to improve the capacity of working memory. Some studies, such as Jaeggi et al. (2008), suggest that training can improve performance on working memory tasks, which may translate to improvements in fluid intelligence. However, other studies, such as Chein and Morrison (2010) and Redick et al. (2013), found no significant improvements in fluid intelligence as a result of WMT.

272
Q
  1. What did Jaeggi et al. (2008) find regarding working memory training?
A

Answer: Jaeggi et al. (2008) found that participants who underwent dual n-back training showed improvement in n-back task performance, and their fluid intelligence scores also increased after training, suggesting a positive effect of working memory training on intelligence.

273
Q
  1. What did Chein and Morrison (2010) find regarding working memory training?
A

Answer: Chein and Morrison (2010) found that although working memory training led to improvements in working memory performance, it did not result in any significant changes in fluid intelligence, suggesting that working memory training may not transfer to broader cognitive abilities.

274
Q
  1. What did Redick et al. (2013) find regarding working memory training?
A

Answer: Redick et al. (2013) found that while participants improved in the tasks directly related to the training (like dual n-back and visual search tasks), there was no improvement in fluid intelligence or other cognitive abilities after three weeks of working memory training.

275
Q
  1. What did Harrison et al. (2013) find regarding different types of working memory training?
A

Answer: Harrison et al. (2013) found that working memory training (whether complex-span, simple-span, or visual search training) improved performance on the trained tasks, but it did not lead to substantial improvements in broader cognitive abilities or intelligence.

276
Q
  1. What is the conclusion about the effectiveness of “brain training” for improving intelligence?
A

Answer: According to Simons et al. (2016), “brain training” interventions improve performance on the trained tasks, but there is limited evidence that such training improves related tasks or transfers to other areas of cognitive functioning. Furthermore, little evidence exists to suggest that brain training improves real-world cognitive performance.

277
Q
  1. How does physical exercise affect cognitive abilities?
A

Answer: Physical exercise has been shown to positively influence cognitive abilities in both children and adults. A meta-analysis published in 2012 found that a single bout of intense exercise, particularly if followed by a short delay before cognitive tests, has a small but reliable positive effect on cognitive performance.

278
Q
  1. What did Hogan et al. (2013) find regarding exercise and cognitive performance?
A

Answer: Hogan et al. (2013) found that performing moderate-intensity exercise for 15 minutes before completing a 2-back task resulted in quicker reaction times, especially for older adults, compared to a control group that did not exercise.

279
Q
  1. What does the meta-analysis of 80 studies published in 2012 reveal about exercise and cognitive performance?
A

Answer: The meta-analysis showed that short bouts of intense exercise can improve cognitive performance, with the strongest effects occurring when there is a short delay before cognitive testing. However, exercise lasting less than 20 minutes may have a negative effect, while exercise lasting longer than 20 minutes generally yields positive results.

280
Q
  1. Based on the research, what advice would you give to someone who wants to improve their intelligence?
A

Answer: Based on current research, the most promising advice would be to engage in regular physical exercise, as it has been shown to have a positive impact on cognitive performance. While other interventions like working memory training or music training have limited evidence for improving general intelligence, exercise is a well-supported method for enhancing cognitive abilities. Additionally, a balanced environment that promotes both genetic and environmental factors, such as a high-quality education, can contribute to better cognitive outcomes.

281
Q

Q1. What is dementia, and how does it impact individuals over time?

A

A1. Dementia is a progressive disorder that affects cognitive functioning and worsens over time, impacting daily activities. It is not considered a normal part of aging.

282
Q

Q2. How does dementia differ in terms of onset based on age?

A

A2. Dementia can have a young onset (typically in a person’s 40s or 50s), often influenced by genetic factors. Late-onset dementia usually occurs after age 65 and has some genetic influence but not necessarily a requirement.

283
Q

Q3. Describe the continuum of cognitive impairment leading to dementia.

A

A3. Cognitive decline progresses along a continuum: cognitively normal → mild cognitive impairment (MCI) → major neurocognitive disorder (dementia). This progression can vary by individual and may stabilize temporarily.

284
Q

Q4. What distinguishes mild cognitive impairment from dementia?

A

A4. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) involves a modest cognitive decline without interfering with complex daily activities. In contrast, dementia involves significant cognitive decline that impairs daily functioning.

285
Q

Q5. How does the DSM-5-TR differentiate between mild and major neurocognitive disorders?

A

A5. Mild neurocognitive disorder (NCD) involves modest cognitive decline without impacting independence in daily activities, while major NCD (dementia) involves substantial cognitive decline that requires assistance with daily activities.

286
Q

Q6. What are the primary diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer’s Disease according to DSM-5-TR?

A

A6. Diagnosis requires meeting the criteria for major or mild NCD, with an insidious onset and gradual progression of cognitive impairment in one or more domains. Genetic evidence of Alzheimer’s, either through family history or testing, is also a factor, with no mixed etiology.

287
Q

Q7. What are the diagnostic tools commonly used for assessing cognitive function in dementia?

A

A7. Diagnostic tools include neuropsychological tests (e.g., MMSE, MoCA), medical history, physical and neurological assessments, psychiatric evaluations, blood tests, and brain imaging.

288
Q

Q8. What are some common dementia types and their prevalence?

A

A8. Dementia types include Alzheimer’s (60-80%), Lewy body dementia (5-10%), vascular dementia (5-10%), and frontotemporal dementia (5-10%). Mixed dementia can also occur from multiple causes.

289
Q

Q9. List three lifestyle risk factors and three protective factors for dementia.

A

A9.

Risk Factors: Smoking, sedentary lifestyle, poor sleep quality.
Protective Factors: Cognitive engagement, social engagement, regular exercise.

290
Q

Q10. How does high blood pressure impact the risk of developing dementia?

A

A10. High blood pressure, especially in midlife, is a significant risk factor for later dementia. It can lead to vascular damage, affecting brain health and contributing to cognitive decline.

291
Q

Q11. Summarize the findings of the meta-analysis on antihypertensives and dementia risk.

A

A11. The meta-analysis, with over 28,000 participants, showed that antihypertensive treatment reduced the odds of dementia by around 13% compared to placebo, particularly for those with elevated baseline blood pressure.

292
Q

Q12. What did the FINGER trial reveal about dementia prevention?

A

A12. The FINGER trial showed that a 2-year multidomain intervention (diet, exercise, cognitive training, vascular risk monitoring) could reduce cognitive decline compared to general health advice, suggesting lifestyle interventions can help prevent dementia.

293
Q

Q13. What is the projected increase in dementia cases in Australia by 2058?

A

A13. In Australia, it is estimated that the number of people with dementia will increase to over 1 million by 2058.

294
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing a Major Depressive Episode in MDD?

A

Answer: Five or more symptoms must be present within a two-week period, representing a change from previous functioning. At least one symptom is either a depressed mood most of the day or markedly decreased interest in almost all activities (anhedonia).

295
Q

What are some of the main symptoms of a Major Depressive Episode?

A

Answer: Symptoms include:
Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day.
Decreased interest or pleasure in activities.
Significant weight change or change in appetite.
Insomnia or hypersomnia.
Psychomotor agitation or retardation.
Fatigue or loss of energy.
Feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt.
Diminished ability to think or concentrate.
Suicidal ideation or plans.

296
Q

What conditions exclude an MDD diagnosis?

A

Answer: The symptoms must not be due to the effects of a substance or another medical condition.

297
Q

What is the 12-month prevalence of MDD in the United States?

A

Answer: The 12-month prevalence is 10%. Lifetime prevalence is 22.9% for females and 15.1% for males.

298
Q

How does age impact MDD prevalence?

A

Answer: MDD is less prevalent in individuals aged 60 and over.

299
Q

What is the mean age of onset for MDD, and what trends have been observed?

A

Answer: The mean age of onset is 26.2 years, with data suggesting that the onset age is decreasing. Early onset is associated with more frequent, but shorter, depressive episodes.

300
Q

What distinguishes Persistent Depressive Disorder from MDD?

A

Answer: PDD involves a depressed mood for most of the day, more days than not, for at least two years, with symptoms generally being less severe but more chronic than MDD.

301
Q

What is the 12-month prevalence of PDD?

A

Answer: It is 0.5% for PDD and 1.5% for chronic major depressive disorder in the U.S.

302
Q

What genetic factors are associated with depression?

A

Answer: Family studies show that relatives of patients with mood disorders often have earlier onset and recurrent episodes. Twin studies indicate a higher likelihood of depression in identical twins than fraternal twins, with higher heritability in women.

303
Q

How does serotonin affect mood regulation in depression?

A

Answer: Lower levels of serotonin are implicated in mood disorders, as serotonin helps regulate emotional responses. The “permissive hypothesis” suggests that when serotonin is low, other neurotransmitters may become dysregulated, contributing to mood disturbances.

304
Q

What is the learned helplessness model of depression?

A

Answer: This theory suggests that depression may develop when people believe they have no control over reinforcements in their life, leading to learned helplessness. This concept was originally based on animal studies by Seligman in the 1970s.

305
Q

Describe the cognitive model’s ABC approach in cognitive therapy.

A

Answer: The ABC model stands for Activating event, Belief/interpretation, and Consequential emotion. The model helps clients understand the relationship between events and their emotions by examining and modifying their thoughts.

306
Q

What are the primary treatments for mild to moderate depression?

A

Answer: Evidence-based psychotherapy, such as Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), is the first-line treatment for mild to moderate depression.

307
Q

How do Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) work, and why are they preferred?

A

Answer: SSRIs specifically inhibit serotonin reuptake, increasing its availability in the brain. They are preferred due to similar efficacy as older drugs but with fewer side effects.

308
Q

What is the goal of Behavioral Activation in depression treatment?

A

Answer: Behavioral Activation aims to increase positive reinforcement and activity levels by scheduling pleasurable and mastery-related activities, addressing the inactivity cycle that can maintain depression.

309
Q

What is the ‘prodrome’ stage, and how might it present in mental disorders?

A

Answer: The prodrome, or ‘ultra-high risk’ phase, is an early stage where a person can feel an episode beginning internally but shows no external signs. Examples include heightened anxiety before a panic attack or subtle auditory experiences like whispers before a psychotic break.

310
Q

What are the main symptom clusters of schizophrenia?

A

Answer: Schizophrenia symptoms are grouped into:
Positive symptoms: delusions and hallucinations.
Disorganized symptoms: disorganized speech, affect, and behavior.
Negative symptoms: avolition, alogia, and anhedonia.

311
Q

Provide an example of each type of schizophrenia symptom: positive, disorganized, and negative.

A

Answer:
Positive: Hearing voices (hallucinations).
Disorganized: Speaking in fragmented or incoherent sentences.
Negative: Loss of motivation (avolition).

312
Q

What are “first-rank symptoms” of schizophrenia? List at least three examples.

A

Answer: First-rank symptoms are distinctive signs commonly associated with schizophrenia. Examples include:
Third-person auditory hallucinations.
Audible thoughts (hearing one’s thoughts spoken aloud).
Delusions of thought broadcast (belief that others can hear one’s thoughts).

313
Q

How does high dopamine activity contribute to delusions of reference?

A

Answer: Increased dopamine can enhance the sense of reward from minor stimuli, making insignificant details (e.g., birds chirping, numbers, or the time) appear highly relevant. This can lead to delusions of reference, where individuals believe these stimuli hold a special, personal significance.

314
Q

What is a delusion of reference? Provide an example.

A

Answer: A delusion of reference is the false belief that everyday events or objects have a special significance directed at the person. For example, someone might believe a song on the radio is specifically conveying a message to them.

315
Q

Question: How does dopamine contribute to schizophrenia?

A

Answer: Schizophrenic individuals typically have increased dopamine production and dopamine receptors. This excess can contribute to symptoms like delusions, hallucinations, and aberrant salience. Dopamine is involved in rewarding experiences and prediction errors, and its hyperactivity can lead to abnormal significance being assigned to neutral or irrelevant events.

316
Q

Question: How do amphetamines relate to schizophrenia symptoms?

A

Answer: Amphetamines are dopamine agonists, meaning they increase dopamine levels. Studies show that amphetamines can increase the risk of developing schizophrenia and can produce psychotic symptoms similar to those found in schizophrenia, such as paranoid delusions.

317
Q

Question: What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?

A

Answer: The dopamine hypothesis suggests that psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia are caused by hyperactivity in the dopaminergic system. Evidence for this includes the fact that antipsychotic medications block dopamine (D2) receptors, and dopamine agonists (e.g., amphetamines) can induce psychosis-like symptoms.

318
Q

Question: What are first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia and their connection to dopamine?

A

Answer: First-rank symptoms (FRS) include experiences like audible thoughts, voices commenting on actions, and delusions of control. These symptoms are considered characteristic of schizophrenia. A hyperactive dopamine system may contribute to these symptoms, with the brain misattributing internal thoughts or actions as external influences due to dopamine’s role in salience detection.

319
Q

Question: How does the concept of “aberrant salience” explain psychotic symptoms?

A

Answer: “Aberrant salience” refers to the hyperactive dopamine system assigning disproportionate importance to neutral events or self-generated actions. This results in seemingly ordinary things becoming highly significant, contributing to delusions of reference or control, and misperceptions of one’s own thoughts or actions as being externally controlled.

320
Q

Question: How do typical and atypical antipsychotics work to treat schizophrenia?

A

Answer: Typical antipsychotics, such as chlorpromazine, block dopamine receptors to alleviate psychotic symptoms. Atypical antipsychotics, like clozapine, also block dopamine receptors but additionally act on serotonin receptors. Atypicals are more effective in treating negative symptoms but have side effects such as weight gain and sedation.

321
Q

Question: What are the side effects of antipsychotic medications?

A

Answer: Side effects include extra-pyramidal symptoms (e.g., tardive dyskinesia), agranulocytosis (a dangerous loss of white blood cells), weight gain, and sedative effects. Long-term use can worsen negative symptoms like anhedonia or cognitive dysfunction.

322
Q

Question: How is CBT used to treat negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Answer: CBT for negative symptoms focuses on behavioral activation and scheduling activities to enhance engagement in life. Techniques like thought challenging are used to help patients cope with apathy and lack of motivation.

323
Q

Question: How does CBT help patients cope with psychotic symptoms such as auditory hallucinations?

A

Answer: CBT for auditory hallucinations aims to reduce distress by altering the patient’s response to the voices. It doesn’t deny the presence of the voices but teaches patients how to manage their emotional reactions and avoid triggers that exacerbate hallucinations.

324
Q

Question: How effective is CBT for command hallucinations in schizophrenia?

A

Answer: CBT has been shown to reduce compliance with command hallucinations, decrease distress, and lower levels of depression by challenging beliefs about the absolute power of the voices.

325
Q

How do psychodynamic therapy and cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) differ in terms of the therapist’s role?

A

In psychodynamic therapy, the therapist takes a back seat, asking questions that help the patient reach conclusions independently. In contrast, CBT is very direct; the therapist is in control, guiding the patient through specific tasks without room for disagreement.

326
Q

What is the primary focus of psychodynamic therapy?

A

It focuses on tapping into the unconscious to address unresolved conflicts.

327
Q

What does CBT emphasize during therapy sessions?

A

CBT emphasizes structure and control, with the therapist directly guiding the patient and ensuring they understand their actions and goals.

328
Q

What are the underlying assumptions of each major psychological therapy approach?

A

Psychoanalytic: Unconscious conflicts cause psychopathology.
Humanistic: Conditions of worth impact mental health.
Family Therapy: Family dysfunction leads to psychopathology.
Behavioral: Learned responses to stimuli cause issues.
Cognitive: Thoughts influence emotions and behavior.

329
Q

How does each assumption impact therapy methods?

A

The theoretical cause of psychopathology (e.g., unconscious conflicts, learned behaviors) influences therapy techniques and therapist-patient dynamics.

330
Q

According to psychoanalytic theory, what causes mental disorders?

A

Mental disorders result from unresolved unconscious conflicts between the Id, Ego, and Superego.

331
Q

Name and define four defense mechanisms in psychoanalytic theory.

A

Denial: Refusing to accept reality.
Dissociation: Removing oneself from reality.
Projection: Attributing unacceptable qualities to others.
Reaction Formation: Acting opposite to unacceptable feelings

332
Q

What is the goal of psychoanalytic therapy, and what techniques are commonly used?

A

The goal is to reduce defenses and gain insight into hidden intrapsychic conflicts using techniques like free association and dream analysis.

333
Q

What is the primary cause of psychological problems according to behavior therapy?

A

Psychological problems arise from faulty learning.

334
Q

What are the main techniques used in behavior therapy?

A

Behavior modification and exposure therapy are commonly used, based on principles of operant and classical conditioning.

335
Q

Explain the principles of operant conditioning as used in behavior modification.

A

Behavior increases if it is rewarded or helps escape a negative consequence and decreases if punished or positive consequences are removed.

336
Q

What is exposure therapy, and what types are there?

A

Exposure therapy involves gradually exposing clients to feared stimuli to reduce fear. Types include in vivo exposure, imaginal exposure, flooding, and graded exposure.

337
Q

Give an example of how exposure therapy might be used for a specific disorder.

A

For social anxiety, exposure therapy could involve placing the client in social situations to reduce anxiety over time.

338
Q

What is the primary cause of psychological distress according to cognitive therapy?

A

Distress results from maladaptive thought patterns and automatic negative thoughts.

339
Q

What is the goal of cognitive therapy?

A

The goal is to reduce distress by helping patients adopt more realistic and helpful thoughts.

340
Q

What are some key techniques in cognitive therapy?

A

Techniques include collaborative empiricism, Socratic questioning, and cognitive restructuring.

341
Q

How does CBT integrate cognitive and behavioral techniques?

A

CBT combines cognitive restructuring with behavioral techniques, such as exposure, to facilitate cognitive change through experience.

342
Q

Describe a behavioral experiment example used in CBT.

A

For social anxiety, a client may test the belief that people will notice and react to their blushing by observing reactions when their therapist wears noticeable blush.

343
Q

What does humanistic therapy assume about human nature?

A

It assumes humans have an inherent drive for self-actualization and are inherently good.

344
Q

What are the necessary conditions for change in humanistic therapy?

A

Conditions include empathic understanding, unconditional positive regard, and congruence.

345
Q

What is the scientist-practitioner model?

A

It combines research and clinical practice, with clinical psychologists using scientific evidence to inform treatment.

346
Q

Why is evidence-based treatment important in psychology?

A

It ensures treatments are effective, ethical, and up-to-date, based on empirical evidence rather than solely on clinical opinion.

347
Q

What is the difference between efficacy and effectiveness research?

A

Efficacy research tests interventions under controlled conditions, while effectiveness research assesses how interventions work in real-world settings.

348
Q

What factors impact the dissemination potential of a treatment?

A

Factors include treatment complexity, training needs, cost, time commitment, and safety, all of which affect how widely a treatment can be implemented.

349
Q

How do clinicians keep up with treatment research?

A

Clinicians use meta-analyses and expert reviews, such as those from the APA Division 12 Task Force, to stay informed on effective treatments.

350
Q
A