PSY FINAL MODULES 6-11 Flashcards

1
Q

unconditioned stimulus

A

is a stimulus that leads to an automatic response. In Pavlov’s experiment, the food was the unconditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

unconditioned response

A

is an automatic response to a stimulus. The dogs salivating for food is the unconditioned response in Pavlov’s experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

neutral stimulus

A

is a stimulus that at first elicits no response. Pavlov introduced the ringing of the bell as a neutral stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

conditioned stimulus

A

is a stimulus that can eventually trigger a conditioned response. In the described experiment, the conditioned stimulus was the ringing of the bell, and the conditioned response was salivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

conditioned response

A

is a behavior that does not come naturally, but must be learned by the individual by pairing a neutral stimulus with a potent stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Factors that influence conditioning

A

(1) the number of pairings of the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus, (2) the intensity of the unconditioned stimulus
(3) how reliably the conditioned stimulus predicts the unconditioned stimulus
(4) the temporal relationship between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Principles of classical conditioning

A

Acquisition Extinction Spontaneous Recovery Stimulus Generalization Discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acquisition

A

is the initial stage of learning when a response is first established and gradually strengthened. During the acquisition phase of classical conditioning, a neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Spontaneous Recovery

A

is the reappearance of the conditioned response after a rest period or period of lessened response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stimulus Generalization

A

is the tendency for the conditioned stimulus to evoke similar responses after the response has been conditioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Discrimination

A

is the ability to differentiate between a conditioned stimulus and other stimuli that have not been paired with an unconditioned stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Operant/instrumental conditioning

A

Operant conditioning, sometimes referred to as instrumental conditioning, is a method of learning that uses rewards and punishment to modify behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Reinforcement

A

strengthen behavior/increase likelihood of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Punishment

A

weakens behavior/decreases likelihood of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

positive

A

adds something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

negative

A

takes away something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Schedules of reinforcement

A

are the rules that determine how often an organism is reinforced for a particular behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fixed-interval schedules

A

are those where the first response is rewarded only after a specified amount of time has elapsed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Variable-interval schedules

A

occur when a response is rewarded after an unpredictable amount of time has passed. This schedule produces a slow, steady rate of response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fixed-ratio schedules

A

are those in which a response is reinforced only after a specified number of responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Variable-ratio schedules

A

occur when a response is reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Shaping

A

is a form of behavior modification based on operant conditioning. Through the process of successive approximation, behaviors that are closer and closer to a target behavior are progressively rewarded with positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Extinction

A

refers to the gradual weakening of a conditioned response that results in the behavior decreasing or disappearing. In other words, the conditioned behavior eventually stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most effective schedules of reinforcement

A

VR - FR - VI - FI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Observational learning

A

The is the process of learning by watching the behaviors of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

four phases of observational learning

A

attentional, retention, motor reproduction, and motivational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bobo Doll experiments

A

proved that children can learn through observation and later imitating the same behaviors with a combination of environmental and cognitive processes. Its aim was to discover the extent of environmental influence on aggressive behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Atkinson-Shiffrin 3 memory systems model

A

Sensory memory, ST memory, LT memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sensory memory

A

Sensory memory is the perception of sight, hearing, smell, taste, and touch information entering through the sensory cortices of the brain and relaying through the thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Short-term memory

A

indicates different systems of memory involved in the retention of pieces of information (memory chunks) for a relatively short time (usually up to 30 seconds).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Long-term memory

A

Long-term memory refers to the transfer of information from short-term memory into long-term storage in order to create enduring memories. This type of memory is unlimited in capacity and stable—lasting for years or even a lifetime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Transfer from STM to LTM

A

Short-term memories can become long-term memories through a process known as consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

working memory

A

Working memory is one of the brain’s executive functions. It’s a skill that allows us to work with information without losing track of what we’re doing. Think of working memory as a temporary sticky note in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Elaborative rehearsal

A

Deep levels of encoding occur when information is encoded semantically, by relating it to other words, ideas, or previous knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Shallow processing

A

shallow processing involves cognitive processing of a stimulus that focuses on its superficial, perceptual characteristics rather than its meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Deep processing

A

deep processing entails elaboration rehearsal, including interaction with the information through meaningful analyses (associations, visualizations, critical thinking processes) of the information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mnemonics

A

the study and development of systems for improving and assisting the memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Schema

A

a mental framework that helps individuals organize, process, and store information about their environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Interference

A

occurs when some information makes it difficult to recall similar material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

types of interference

A

proactive interference, in which old memories disrupt the retrieval of new memories, and retroactive interference, in which new memories disrupt the retrieval and maintenance of old memories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

episodic memories

A

Memories whose contents pertain to specific event’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Semantic memories

A

Memories whose contents relate to specific facts and pieces of meaningful information not based on personal experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

encoding specificity principle

A

idea that retrieval cues are only useful as long as they match the original context of how the to be remembered information was originally learned

44
Q

amnesia

A

memory loss due to physical damage or problems in brain

45
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

loss of memories prior to specific traumatic event such as blow to the had or certain other conditions

46
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

inability to make new memories

47
Q

Latent learning

A

Learning that has occurred but hasn`t been demonstrated yet

48
Q

Attentional phase

A

A phase of social learning in which an observer watches a model doing something

49
Q

Retention phase

A

phase of social learning in which an observer remembers what the model did and can imitate that response later

50
Q

production phase

A

a phase of social learning in which an observer copies what the model demonstrated

51
Q

motivational phase

A

a phase of social learning in which the observer obtain the same outcome as the model for the same response

52
Q

learned helplessness

A

experiencing an aversive situation you cant control prevents you from learning to control other aversive situations

53
Q

emotions

A

short lived feelings we have towards an object or situational event - these feelings often correspond to specific facial expressions adaptive responses to aid survival

54
Q

motivation

A

the reason or reasons one has for acting or behaving in a particular way

55
Q

james-lange thoery of emotions

A

Perceive stimulus, express the emotion the stimulus evokes, identify their emotions (emotions stem from interpretation of the body)

56
Q

Cannon-Bard thalamic theory of emotions

A

perceive stimulus, simultaneously express emotion and identify emotion

57
Q

action unit

A

Each emotion has a specific facial expression that we can detect involving movement of eyebrows nose mouth cheeks and eyes

58
Q

2 factor theory

A

2 ingredients to emotion, arousal and cognitive appraisal

59
Q

4 universal emotions

A

happy, anxious, surprise, disgust

60
Q

Drive-reduction theory

A

need is determined by a combination of learning and a person physiology and need will intensity will be reflected in the intensity of responding

61
Q

Yerkes and Dodson

A

found that arousal was interchangeable with whatever happens due to stimulus intensity in other words performance increases with mental arousal or stress up to a certian point

62
Q

Darwin’s three principles

A

variation, heredity, and selection. These principles explain how species change over time

63
Q

Premack principle

A

highly desirable, more probable behaviors can be used to reinforce less desirable

64
Q

response deprivation hypothesis

A

restricting one behavior will cause a deprivation of that behavior, which can be used to create a scenario where the possibility of being allowed the deprived behavior can potentially reinforce another behavior

65
Q

establishing operations

A

Increase the effectiveness of reinforcers an evoke behavior related to them

66
Q

abolishing operations

A

Decrease the effectiveness of reinforcers and decrease behavior related to obtaining them

67
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory

A

a theory of motivation which states that five categories of human needs dictate an individual’s behavior

68
Q

order of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A

physiological > safety > love/belonging > self esteem > self actualization

69
Q

intrinsic motivation

A

ambitions stemmed from our own standards

70
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

ambitions/motivations imposed upon us

71
Q

The facial feedback hypothesis

A

individuals’ emotional experiences are influenced by their facial expressions example, smiling should typically make individuals feel happier

72
Q

2 types of motivating operations

A

establishing operations and abolishing operations

73
Q

Split brain

A

A type of surgery that cuts the connections between the two hemispheres of the brain to reduce frequency and severity of seizures

74
Q

Corpus callosum

A

large band of axons that connect the two hemispheres of the brain

75
Q

Hemispheric specialization

A

Refers to the idea that the two hemispheres in your brain (right and left) have differing functions

76
Q

Conscious content

A

The subjective experiences of your internal and external world

77
Q

States of consciousness

A

Refers to the different levels of arousal and attention an individual can experience

78
Q

Attention

A

The process of selecting information from the internal and external environments to prioritize for processing

79
Q

Passive attention

A

Occurs when the attentional priorities are set by bottom up information from the environment

80
Q

Active attention

A

Occurs when attentional priorities are set by the top down goals of an individual

81
Q

Selective attention

A

A form of attention that occurs when a person attends to some information while ignoring other information

82
Q

Cocktail party effect

A

Describes a situation with selective attention, at a party a person can be engaged in a conversation and supress and ignore all the other information and stimuli around them

83
Q

Dichotic listening task

A

An attention task where one stream of information is presented to one ear and a different message is played in the other, participant is asked to only attend one message and is later asked about the unattended message

84
Q

Divided attention

A

Occurs when a person engages in two or more tasks at once

85
Q

Inattentional blindness

A

Refers to the tendency to miss changes to some kins of information when your attention is engaged elsewhere

86
Q

Alpha waves

A

Occur when a person is quietly resting and not doing any rigorous thinking most common occurrence of alpha waves is when a person is relaxed

87
Q

Theta waves

A

The waves that appear on an EEG when a person is deeply relaxed or falling asleep

88
Q

Sleep Spindles

A

Brief bursts of activity that occur 2-5 times per minute occurring during non rem sleep

89
Q

K complexes

A

A pattern of neural excitation followed by neural inhibition occurring during stage 2 sleep. Often triggered by unexpected noises

90
Q

Delta wave

A

Brain waves that appear on an EEG when a person is deeply asleep these waves occur during stages 3-4 also known as slow wave sleep

91
Q

Slow wave sleep

A

A broader name for sleep occurring in stage 3-4 During this stage recordings on EEG show delta waves

92
Q

Rapid eye movement

A

A stage of sleep where narrative based dreaming occurs, during this stage EEG recordings become highly irregular and the sleeping persons eyes will move from side to side rapidly. Beta and theta waves are often common during this stage of sleep

93
Q

Waves associated with respective sleep stages (Stage 1, stage 2, slow wave sleep, REM)

A

Theta waves begin in Stage 1 as brain activity begins to synchronize, followed by sleep spindles and K-complexes in Stage 2. Delta activity is characteristic of slow-wave sleep, with REM returning to desynchronized theta activity with additional blood flow to the visual association cortex

94
Q

Name of two major sleep disorders

A

dyssomnias, refer to problems with the quality of sleep. Parasomnias, by contrast, are disturbances that occur during sleep.

95
Q

Insomnia

A

Inability to fall or stay asleep

96
Q

Biological clocks

A

internal clocks that prepare the body for daily seasonal and annual rhythms

97
Q

Circadian rhythms

A

Daily clocks that tell the body when to sleep and wake

98
Q

Depressants vs Stimulants

A

Depressants slow or depress arousal of CNS whereas stimulants increase activity of nervous system

99
Q

Glutamate

A

neurotransmitter that often creates excitatory effects in nervous system

100
Q

GABA

A

neurotransmitter that often creates inhibitory effects of nervous system

101
Q

barbiturates

A

group of drugs that cause sedation and induce sleep used historically to treat anxiety

102
Q

benzodiazepine

A

group of drugs primarily used for treating anxiety known for being fast acting and addictive

103
Q

Stimulants

A

drugs that increase activity of nervous system common stimulants include caffeine nicotine cocaine and amphetamines

104
Q

adenosine

A

inhibitory neurotransmitter that creates inhibitory effects on brain

105
Q

acetylcholine

A

neurotransmitter that often creates an excitatory effect in the brain

106
Q

synesthesia

A

side effect associated with the use of psychedelic drugs whereby patients report the merging of sences