Protocols Flashcards

1
Q

Whenever possible, what kind of consent should be received on all patients

A

verbal consent

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2
Q

Who is given the authority to deviate from ALS protocols as required

A

2 concurring paramedics

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3
Q

what must be considered when deviating from protocols

A

good judgement and the patients best interest

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4
Q

when possible, who should be contacted to provide input to this decision to deviate

A

EMS captain

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5
Q

No recovery shall be allowed in any court in this state against any EMT, medic, physician, ARNP, person acting under direct medical supervision of a physician, in an action brought for examining or treating a patient without his or her informed consent if

A

Pt is intoxicated, under the influence, would under surrounding circumstances reasonably undergo such examination, treatment or procedure if advised

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6
Q

Examination and treatment under this section is limited to

A

reasonable examination to determine condition and reasonable treatment necessary to alleviate and stabilize

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7
Q

OPQRSTA

A

onset
palliative
provoke
previous
quality
radiation
severity of pain
time
associated

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8
Q

What is the subjective of a SOAP

A

chief complaint, OPQRSTA, SAMPLE

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9
Q

What is included in the objective of a SOAP

A

Physical exam, vitals

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10
Q

What is included in the A and P of the SOAP

A

in narrative form summarize diagnosis, treatment and disposition

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11
Q

semi conscious patients with intact gag shall have

A

NPA inserted unless contraindicated

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12
Q

unresponsive patients without a gag reflex shall have an

A

OPA inserted unless contraindicated

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13
Q

if ventilation is required for longer than how many minutes an igel or ETT should be inserted

A

2 minutes

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14
Q

what is the preferred method for ventilating a pediatric patient

A

BVM in conjunction with an oral or nasal airway

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15
Q

children with an advanced airway placed during CPR should be ventilated at

A

1 breathe every 6 seconds

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16
Q

What pediatric patient should not have an NPA or OPA inserted

A

pt in respiratory distress accompanied by fever, drooling or stridor

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17
Q

what patients should be placed in recovery position

A

spontaneously breathing, ams, postictal, suspected drug overdose, if no suspected spinal cord injury

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18
Q

oxygen only administered to pt with O2 sats at

A

95 percent
90 percent for COPD and asthma

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19
Q

do not withhold oxygen if pt is

A

dyspneic, tachypneic, hypoxic

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20
Q

who receives O2 at 15 LMP via NRB

A

TBI and 3rd trimester trauma

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21
Q

Endotracheal intubation shall be confirmed by

A

visualization of ETT passing vocal chords, auscultation and continuous ETCO2 monitoring

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22
Q

vent rate of adults

A

1 every 6

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23
Q

vent rate of adults without a pulse

A

1 every 10

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24
Q

children vent rate

A

1 every 3 (20 bpm)

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25
Q

children vent rate without a pulse

A

1 every 6 (10 bpm)

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26
Q

neonate vent rate

A

40 bpm

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27
Q

All unconscious patients should have what applied

A

zoll

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28
Q

in peds after how long of BVM oxygenation and ventilation should chest compressions begin if hr remains below 60

A

1 minute

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29
Q

what lead should all ALS patients be continuously monitored in

A

lead II

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30
Q

what is a full set of vitals

A

bp hr rr skin temp 02 sat

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30
Q

If transporting pt to ed what should be done with the 12 lead cables

A

leave connected until turned over to ed staff

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30
Q

How frequently should 12 lead ekg be performed

A

every 5 minutes or upon ROSC

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30
Q

priority 3 patients get vitals every how many minutes

A

at least 2 sets every 15 minutes

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30
Q

priority 2 patients get vitals every how many minutes

A

every 5 minutes

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30
Q

adult hypotension is defined as

A

sbp less than 100

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30
Q

what is puberty defined as

A

breast development for females and underarm, chest or facial hair on males

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30
Q

medical ED

A

Pediatric is defined as 17 years old and younger

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31
Q

in peds and neonates after how long of oxygenation and ventilation do you begin chest compressions if hr remains below 60

A

1 min (peds)
30 seconds (neonates)

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31
Q

trauma alert

A

pediatric is defined as 15 years old and younger

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31
Q

priority 2 pt

A

unstable with life threats

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32
Q

priority 1 pt

A

cardiac and respiratory arrest

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33
Q

priority 3 pt

A

stable with no life threats

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34
Q

all intubated interfacility transfers must be both

A

paralyzed and sedated by sending facility

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35
Q

if sending facility physician refuses to paralyze who should be contacted

A

battalion or ems

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36
Q

what may cause air transport destinations to be altered

A

weather, wind direction, fuel load

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37
Q

pediatric stroke departments

A

BHMC JDCH

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38
Q

Stable pt over 40 weeks may go to the hospital (OB) of their choice within how many minutes

A

40 minutes

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39
Q

if hyperbaric chamber is unavailable what hospital shall decompression sickness and co poisoning be transported to

A

closest ED with helipad

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40
Q

what is the max height for air transport in decompression illness and co poisoning

A

500 ft

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41
Q

helicopter may be utilized for ground transport greater than

A

20 minutes

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42
Q

pre hospital extrication greater than

A

15 minutes

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43
Q

pre hospital response to scene greater than

A

10 minutes

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44
Q

DAN

A

8006623637

45
Q

florida abuse hotline

A

1866LEABUSE

46
Q

Who should you report any suspicion of abuse to whether the pt is transported or not

A

EMS cap
and receiving facility (if transported)

47
Q

document the call to the hotline in Epcr including

A

name of call taker
call takers ID
time call was placed

48
Q

once completed email should be sent to whom

A

bureau chief of rescue

49
Q

domestic violence hotline

A

8005001119

50
Q

Chapter 401.45 section 3a statute FS

A

Denial of emergency treatment civil liability

51
Q

DNRO is in force only when a pt is

A

in cardiac arrest (does not include a living will)

52
Q

what form do we as EMS providers accept

A

original yellow DNRO DH form 1896 with original signatures

53
Q

a copy on yellow paper or similar color is acceptable with

A

original signatures

54
Q

do LEO have the right to refuse resuscitative actions

55
Q

if any question exists on the validity of a DNRO

A

resuscitation efforts must commence

56
Q

if a witness is used to confirm the identity of the pt, what must be documented in the Epcr

A

full name of witness
address and phone number of witness
relationship of witness to pt

57
Q

proper receipt of DNRO should be documented by

A

taking a photo with the toughbook and attaching to Epcr

58
Q

how can a DNR be revoked

A

by pt or health care surrogate by physical destruction
failure to present it
orally or in writing or expressing contrary intent

59
Q

If dnr is from out of state

A

contact must be made to medical control to withhold efforts

60
Q

a patient is defined as

A

individual activates EMS for themselves
person familiar with pt advises of change in behavior or suspected medical issue
actual or suspected illness or injury
medical or traumatic complaint
new ams
emt or medic suspects injury due to mechanism
anytime assessment or procedure is performed

61
Q

what is an exemption from the above rule

A

public service programs offering routine vital sign checks

62
Q

what is decisional capacity

A

when the pt demonstrates the full ability to understand the benefits, risks and options regarding medical treatment

63
Q

what must the paramedic determine

A

that the patient has the capacity to make informed decisions

64
Q

is competency a legal or medical term

65
Q

who determines competency

66
Q

in implied consent what is assumed

A

it is reasonably assumed that an unconscious patient would want to receive medical assistance

67
Q

who is able to refuse care

A

those who are 18 or older and have decisional capacity, as well as emancipated minors, self sufficient minors or minors in the military

68
Q

who can not refuse care

A

minors, altered LOC, suicidal or homicidal. (verbal threat or attempt), cognitive deficiency, medical condition that would cause pt to not have decisional capacity

69
Q

what is our intent in determination and declination of care

A

transport all pt with implied or expressed consent, regardless of perceived urgency of the complaint

70
Q

shall fire rescue encourage a patient to decline care or transport

71
Q

in a pt refusal process paramedics should

A

express their concerns but respect the pt decision

72
Q

if a pt is initiating a declination process determine they are an adult that has decisional capacity by assuring they are

A

AA0x4
not under the influence
not suicidal or homicidal
understands and articulates risk/benefit of the decision

73
Q

what is the best way to assure that the patient/legal guardian understands what has been explained to them

A

have them repeat it back to the crew

74
Q

if a pt/legal guardian refuses to sign the refusal what should you do

A

clearly document why and if available, have the third party witness sign in witness signature section

75
Q

if a specific treatment modality is being refused but transport is agreed to what should you do

A

a refusal should be signed and noted for as being for that specific treatment

76
Q

patients cannot refuse transport if they have received any medication that would affect

A

mental status or respiratory drive

77
Q

do family members have the ability to refuse on behalf of a patient who would reasonably accept medical care if they were able

A

no, request law enforcement, EMS and online medical control

78
Q

if declination is obtained over the phone for a minor, the conversation must be documented and who must sign

A

a witness from law enforcement

79
Q

When LEO calls fire rescue for medical evaluation of a person in custody what will fire rescue do

A

transport for medical clearance

80
Q

does the pt in custody have the right to refuse medical treatment

A

yes but they do not have the right to refuse transport

81
Q

att language line

A

18772876794

82
Q

does use of this service violate HIPPA

A

no, as long as it does not occur in public

83
Q

documentation of refusals should include

A

subjective and objective info
pt found to have decisional capacity
minor left in care of capable adult/guardian
why the pt declined
info provided from FR to alleviate any concerns
risk and benefits explained and understood
third party witness signature (cannot be fire rescue personnel)

84
Q

when using physician orders what should you do if you feel the order is harmful

A

decline and follow up a report to the EMS captain. This report will then be forwarded to the medical director via the battalion chief

85
Q

EMS or fire rescue services provided by a county, municipality or special district is responsible for the care of what kind of pt when nobody is present to refuse and volunteer services arrive simultaneously

A

unconscious

86
Q

OPM
fire rescue personnel may except patient belongings when it has been determined that

A

it is in the patients best interest
it is not likely to disrupt or compromise normal operations concerning safety
reasonable efforts to secure items were made
patient is not capable of being responsible and no family members or designees are available to take custody

87
Q

what should be included on the PCR when pt belongings are taken custody of

A

all items listed and inventoried
clearly state that property has been transferred to “hospitals name” and handed to “name of the person”
careful attention should be placed on generic naming

88
Q

pepper spray
oleoriesin capsicum OC spray

A

a lachrymatory agent that stimulates the corneal nerves to cause tears, pain, and temporary blindness
lasts around 30-45 minutes with diminished effects lasting for hours.
closing of the eyes, difficulty breathing, runny nose, coughing
increased risk w asthma, certain prescriptions, or subject to restraining techniques which restrict the breathing passages

89
Q

Mace
chloracetophenone CN gas

A

non lethal irritant containing purified tear gas and chemical solvents to temporarily incapacitate by causing eye and skin irritations.
burning sensation on affected area and feeling of suffocation if inhaled
can be minimal on those under influence of drugs and alcohol
30 min up to 2 hours

90
Q

Tear gas

A

non specific term for any chemical used to cause temporary incapacitation through irritation of the eyes and/or respiratory system

91
Q

excited delirium

A

psychotic and extremely agitated state caused by
OD on stimulant or hallucinogenic
drug withdrawal
non medicated psychiatric patients
head trauma
diabetic emergency

92
Q

does fire rescue remove probes

93
Q

how should ECD wires be cut

A

trauma shears

94
Q

what temp should medications be stored at

A

55-85 degrees F

95
Q

what are obvious signs of exposure to temperature extremes

A

changes in color and clarityw

96
Q

hen should medication thermometer be checked

A

twice a day at 0800 and 1600

97
Q

ho should initial temperature check sheet

A

crew member

98
Q

medication that has been exposed to extreme temperatures or shows signs of contamination should be

A

removed from service and forwarded to the EMS division for disposal and replacement

99
Q

where should med/iv boxes and bags be housed in

A

climate controlled portions of EMS vehicles (patient module)

100
Q

whenever possible units should be

A

parked in shady areas

101
Q

temp check sheet are to be completed and sent by

A

inter office mail monthly to logistics along with controlled substance log sheets

102
Q

clear decontamination and disinfection in the workplace in accordance with

A

OSHA health standard 1910.1030

103
Q

workplace includes any area where employees or substance can

A

cause risk of contamination
readiness areas, dorms, kitchen, offices, inclusive of vehicles and equipment

104
Q

Decontamination is the process of cleaning an object, surface or substance to remove

A

soiled contaminants such as body fluids and biological substances

105
Q

During decon PPE shall be used at all times, at a minimum

A

gloves and eye protection

106
Q

biological materials involved in decon shall be placed in

A

approved red bags or puncture resistant containers

107
Q

disinfection is the method used to

A

destroy and prevent growth of disease carrying microorganisms

108
Q

PPE chem protection should be used at all times, at aminimum

A

N95 mask, gloves and eye protection with maximum ventilation to area

109
Q

exposures during decon and disinfection should follow

A

OPM 401.01

110
Q

equipment contaminated by blood or OPIM should be

A

decon and disinfected or disposed of as contaminated waste

111
Q

surfaces contaminated by blood or OPIM

A

decon using one step germicidal detergent

112
Q

what is the final disinfection step

113
Q

contact who to seek byoplant training

A

EMS captain

114
Q

as a general rule the application rate is 1 min of spray per

A

500 square feet of area

115
Q

objective is to apply sufficient product to achieve a

A

wet sheen not a saturation, soaking or running

116
Q

at a minimum

A

weekly with the use of byoplanet on supply day or after suspected contamination of blood or OPIM

117
Q

routine disinfection of stations will occur

A

quarterly or after suspected contamination of blood or OPIM

118
Q

Who can provide access to byoplanet

A

battalion chief or EMS captain

119
Q

staffing of EMS standby shall be left to the sole discretion of the

A

fire chief

120
Q

minimum of how many personnel should utilized at EMS standby