Property Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first thing you should do when your transaction appears to involve unregistered land?

A

check whether the land is already registered or is the subject of a pending application for first registration

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2
Q

What is a caution against first registration and how will this be dealt with?

A

*lodged by a third party as a warning to people attempting to deal with the land that they have an interest

(1) contact the cautioner and ask them to withdraw the caution against first registration
(2) when the application of first registration is lodged, the Land Registry will ‘warn off’ the cautioner, giving them a limited period to establish their rights over the land and if they cannot do so, the registration will proceed and the cautioner will lose their rights

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3
Q

How is title proved with unregistered land?

A

title deeds

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4
Q

What are the steps the seller’s solicitor should take upon receiving the title deeds?

A

1) consider whether any transaction in the property’s history should have triggered first registration and if so, seller will be required to register before any other transactions can proceed
2) find the ‘root of title’
3) prepare an ‘epitome of title’ (previously known as ‘abstract of title’)

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5
Q

What is the ‘root of title’? What are the requirements for a good ‘root of title’?

A

*the document which to begin the title investigation + to prove that the current owner has good title
1) should deal with or show who owns the entire interest (legal and equitable) that is being sold by the current owner
[key phrase: “whereas… (the vendor is) seised of the property… for an estate in fee simple and is selling the same to the purchaser” + vendor conveys the land “as beneficial owner… unto the purchaser”]
2) contain a recognisable description of the relevant land (e.g. reference to a plan or name of plot)
3) do nothing to cast doubt on the seller’s title - e.g. properly stamped
4) be at least 15-years old

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6
Q

What is the most acceptable form of ‘root of title’?

A

a conveyance > a mortgage - as effectively offers a double guarantee + conveyance more likely to contain a detailed description of the property and more details of the incumbrances affecting the property

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7
Q

Why are gifts/assents not the best form of ‘root of title’?

A

no double guarantee as title investigation is unlikely to have taken place

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8
Q

When may a buyer request for a document pre-dating the ‘root of title’?

A

usually once the ‘root of title’ is identified, any older documents can be ignored - unless root document refers back to a third party right created in an earlier conveynace [buyer is entitled to call for the earlier conveynace as the third party right will probably be binding and they will need details of it]

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9
Q

What should you check in each ‘link’ document and why?

A

*make sure that there is an unbroken chain of ownership from the owner indicated in the root of title up to the present seller
1) has the document been properly executed? - e.g. by deed (in writing, make it clear on the fact of it that it is a deed, be signed by the person granting the interest in the presence of a witness + delivered as a deed)
2) has the document been properly stamped? - check that each document has an ad valorem stamp (or a “certificate of value” stating the transaction is exempt/liable to a reduced rate) and a particulars delievered stamp
*duty was not payable on mortgages executed after 1971, or on deeds of gift and assents after 30 Apr 1987 provided the deed contained a certificate stating that the transaction fell within one of the categories of exempt documents
3) incumbrances
4) land searches against all names (for the period in which the person owned the land) to check whether any land charges (incumbrances) have been registered (thus would be binding) - if there is uncertainty about the years someone owned the land, search should be for any years that the individual might have done so (e.g. dating back to a previous sale date) or if in doubt, search back to 1926

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10
Q

What are the types of land charges?

A

C(i): pusine mortgage
C(iv): an estate contract [a contract to convey or create a legal estate in land or any option to purchase a legal estate or any right of pre-emption in respect of a legal estate]
D(ii): a restrictive covenant
D(iii): an equitable easement
F: a home right

these must be registered at the Land Charges Department at Plymouth for it to bind unregistered land

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11
Q

When can a buyer assume that joint tenancy (if stated in conveyance to joint buyers) has not been severed? (unregistered land) + therefore, surviving owner can transfer property alone

A

(1) there is no memorandum of severance endorsed on the conveyance of the property to the joint tenants
(2) there are no bankruptcy proceedings registered against either of the joint tenants at the Land Charges Registry
(3) the transfer by the surviving joint owner to the buyer contains a statement that the survivor is solely and beneficially entitled to the land

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12
Q

How are official copies set out in registeted land?

A

shows title number to the property and edition date (date on which the Land Registry last updated the title - e.g. previous sale or mortgage)
+ will also show search from date (the specific date of the official copies showing the entries subsisting on the register at a certain time)

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13
Q

What is included in the Property Register of the official copies?

A

a description of the land by reference to the postal address and title plan + indicate whether title is freehold or leasehold
*may indicate that there are easements or rights benefitting the land and that certain things one might usually expect come with land (rights of light and air over adjacent land) have been excluded from title

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14
Q

What does it mean if there is no easement or right of light/air?

A

development on neighbouring land could adversely block light/air to the property + solicitor should inform buyer and raise a requisition to assess the likelihood of future development

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15
Q

What is included in the Proprietorship Register of the official copies?

A

*identifies current owners and their address and class of title
*contains restrictions on the owners’ ability to sell
*may indicate the price paid for the land by the current owners (if land has been sold since 1 Apr 2000) and will show the owners gave an indemnity covenant when they bought the land

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16
Q

What does it mean the Proprietorship Register imposes a restriction on owners’ ability to sell? - e.g. no disposition by a sole proprietor is to be registered unless authorised by an order of the court

A

registered proprietors hold the beneficial interest of property as tenants in common + Land Registry will not register the buyer as the new owner of the property unless co-owners are party to contract/transfer or overreaching by appointment of a second trustee

*rebuts the assumption that equitable interest is held as a joint tenancy

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17
Q

What is absolute title?

A

best class
*signifies that the registered proprietor has vested in them the legal estate subject only to the entries on the register, overriding interests and where the proprietor is a trustee, minor interests of which they have notice

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18
Q

What is possessory title?

A

where the proprietor is in possession of the property but has lost the title deeds or is claimaing adverse possession = proprietor is subject to all adverse interests existing at the date of first registration

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19
Q

What is qualified title?

A

where there is a specific defect which the Registrar feels cannot be overlooked or cured by grant of absolute title

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20
Q

What is included in the Charges Register of the official copies?

A

identifies incumbrances

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21
Q

What does it mean when there is a mines and minerals exception?

A

seller does not own any mines or minerals underneath the surface of the property and cannot transfer them to the buyer - any encroachment by the buyer would constitute a trespass
*this entry could indicate that mining has taken place in the vicnity in the past, thus enquiries should be made as to the ground stability and whether property has been affected by subsidence
*could enquire who is the owner of the right and whether it has been exercised

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22
Q

What can a buyer’s solicitor do in relation to a restrictive or unknown covenant on conveyance (unregistered land) or Charges Register (registered land)?

A

(1) ask the seller if they know who currently owns the property with the benefit of the covenant + see if that owner is willing to come to some arrangement with the buyer: e.g. permanent release of covenant or one-off consent
(2) obtain a restrictive covenant insurance policy for the proposed breach of covenant (must be obtained before contacting the person with the benefit of the covenant)
*if seller has insurance, ask for it to be reassigned
(3) apply to the Upper Tribunal (Land Chamber) for modification or discharge of covenant on the grounds that the covenant is obsolete or confers no practical benefit of substantial value or advantage (or is contrary to public interest) - outcome at the discretion of the tribunal [may not be a quick and cost-effective option]

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23
Q

How should a buyer’s solicitor deal with unilateral notices on the Charges Register?

A

(1) ask individual with the benefit of the purported notice to withdraw
(2) if they refuse to withdraw, buyer should require the seller to get the notice cancelled by the Land Registry before exchange of contracts
*Land Registry will notify the individual with the benefit of the purported notice and they will have 15 business days to respond - failing to do so, Land Registry will cancel the notice

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24
Q

How should a buyer’s solicitor deal with home rights (in Charges Register for registered land and protected as a class F land charge for unregistered land)?

A

require seller to obtain from the non-owning occupier a release of all rights in the property and agreement to vacate on or prior to completion

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25
Q

When can you act for the buyer and seller?

A

usually not possible as it carries a high risk of conflict of interests where land is being transferred for value - this is particularly the case where the clients do not have equal bargaining power + Law Society specified that “substantially common interest” exception does not apply to property purchase

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26
Q

When can you act for joint buyers?

A

usually acceptable - but it may be necessary to advise residential buyers separately about how to hold equitable interest in property (esp if not married or in civil partnership)

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27
Q

When can you act for borrower and lender?

A

generally possible - there is only likely to be a high risk of conflict if:
*mortgage is not a standard mortgage
*mortgage is a standard mortgage but you do not use the approved certificate of title

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28
Q

What should a solicitor do during “contract races” - i.e. pre-contact package is sent to multiple buyers who compete to be ready to exchange contracts first?

A

seller’s solicitor must not mislead or attempt to mislead the buyers - i.e. must inform all buyers immediately of the sellers’ intention to deal with more than one buyer + will need seller’s consent to disclose or else breach of duty of confidentiality

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29
Q

What are repayment mortgages?

A

borrower will make monthly payments to the lender made up partly of instalments of original amount borrowed and partly of interest chargeable - this means that at the end of the mortgage term, the borrower will have paid off everything owed

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30
Q

What are interest-only mortgages?

A

borrower will make monthly payments to the lender + will only comprise interest chargeable on the loan
*monthly payments will be lower than in repayment mortgages, but at the end of the mortgage term, borrower will still owe lender the whole of the original amount borrowed

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31
Q

What SDLT relief is available to first-time buyers of residential property?

A

relief available if they intend to occupy property as their main residence and purchase price is no more than £625,000
*they do not pay anything on purchase up to £425,000 + pay 5% on portion from £425,001-£625,000

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32
Q

How is SDLT calculated for non-first time residential buyers?

A

SDLT is payable on land - which includes fixtures, but not chattels (possible to apportion + this must be a fair value)
up to £250,000 = 0%
exceeding £250,000 - £925,000 = 5%
exceeding £925,000 - £1,500,000 = 10%
remainder = 12%

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33
Q

How is SDLT calculated for non-residential or mixed-use freehold properties?

A

SDLT is payable on VAT-inclusive sum if charged
up to £150,000 = 0%
exceeding £150,000 - £250,000 = 2%
exceeding £250,000 = 5%

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34
Q

How is LTT calculated for residential buyers?

A

up to £225,000 = 0%
exceeding £225,000 - £400,000 = 6%
exceeding £400,000 - £750,000 = 7.5%
exceeding £750,000 - £1,500,000 = 10%
remainder = 12%

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35
Q

How is LTT calculated for non-residential buyers?

A

up to £225,000 = 0%
exceeding £225,000 - £250,000 = 1%
exceeding £250,000 - £1,000,000 = 5%
remainder = 6%

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36
Q

What is private residence relief for CGT purposes?

A

relief available where there is a sale of an individual’s dwelling house used as their only or main residence - to qualify, seller must have occupied the dwelling house as their main or only residence throughout period of ownership
*if seller has a garden of more than 0.5 hectares, gain on the excess is chargeable to CGT unless seller can demonstrate to HMRC that the extra garden was necessary for reasonable enjoyment of land
*relief may be lost on any part of the house used exclusively for business use

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37
Q

When is VAT payable on sale of property?

A

(1) sale of new build house by a developer is zero-rated
(2) sale of new commercial property (less than 3 years old): standard rated
(3) sale of old commercial property: exempt, subject to option to tax
*sale of a residential property by a private individual will not be in the course of business, therefore no VAT

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38
Q

Why is it important for the buyer’s solicitor to make the relevant searches/enquiries?

A

failure to carry out a relevant search can give rise to a claim of negligence from the buyer if the buyer suffers a loss + it may not be in a buyer’s interest for all searches to be carried out as costs could outweigh benefits

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39
Q

What are the types of searches that need to be carried out for all property?

A

1) survey and personal inspection - solicitor can advise on the most appropriate type of survey + if the buyer has concerns about the state of property or intends to carry out alterations to it after purchase, they may wish to consider a full structural survey
2) local search (LLC1, CON29, CON29O)
3) water and drainage search
4) pre-contract/preliminary enquiries of the seller (TA06 for residential or Commercial Property Standard Enquiries Form 1)
5) environmental searches - commonly desktop search + only when the desktop(/local) search identifies a risk that the land may be contaminated should the buyer consider commissioning a physical survey of the land to be carried out by a specialist environmental surveyor OR consider insurance against environmental liability
6) flood search

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40
Q

What kind of information would the local search reveal?

A

LLC1: details of any financial charges or restrictions on land that have been imposed by public authorities under statute
*tree preservation orders: buyer will need to be told about any TPO as it is a criminal offence to lop or fell a tree subject to a TPO without the consent of the local planning authority
*smoke control orders: might be a problem if the property has a open fireplace which the buyer intends to use
*planning consents + Art 4
*conservation area designation order
CON29: information such as whether the land has been designated as contaminated land, whether there is liability for road repair (rights of way), proposed road/railway/traffic schemes
*enquiries/searches only disclose the planning history of the property being searched (and pending applications) + if the buyer is concerned about future development in the area, more detailed planning information about the neighbourhood may be required - e.g. if the view is important to the buyer, they would want to know if there are any proposed developments on adjoining land that may interfere
CON29O (optional enquiries): covers environmental and pollution notices, rights over common land

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41
Q

What information is important in the water and drainage search?

A

1) whether foul water drains to a public sewer and the location of the nearest public foul water sewer: if not connected to a public foul sewer, property may be served by a septic tank or cesspit and further enquiries will need to be made
2) whether surface water drains to a public sewer and the location of the nearest public surface water sewer: if not, property may have a private connection to a watercourse or soakway
[adequate surface water drainage is important because surface water flooding is a common cause of flooding]
3) whether the property is connected to the water mains and the basis for charging for sewerage and water at the property and whether a water meter is fitted
4) whether the sewers are adopted or subject to a s.104 agreements - if not adopted, advise buyer (and lender) as private sewers can be v expensive to maintain

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42
Q

What searches need to be made for a transaction with unregistered land?

A

in addition to searches that apply to all land:
1) chancel repairs search (will also be needed if registered land has not been transferred since 13 Oct 2013 for valuable consideration + to find out liability [to contribute to the upkeep of the local parish church], also check whether chancel repair has been registered as registration can take place at any time after 13 Oct 2013 and before transfer of value)
2) Index Map search (reveals if land or any part of it has been registered)
3) Land Charges Department searches against seller and previous estate owners

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43
Q

What search should you make if your property is in a coal mining area and/or the property has a mines and minerals reservation in title?

A

mining searches - confirm if the property is in an area where mining has taken place in the past or is likely to take place in the future
+ the existence of underground workings which may cause problems with subsidence and whether any claims for subsidence damage have been paid in the past or are pending (payments for damages will be paid by the Coal Authority) [subsidence: when the ground under a building collapses, damaging the foundations and casuing cracks in the structure above]
+ should also carry out Index Map search

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44
Q

What search should be made if the property is adjacent to a river or canal?

A

canal and river trust search - reveal if the buyer has any liability for repairs to the maintenance of waterways, banks and tow paths, and whether the property has been affected by flooding

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45
Q

What search should be made if the property is adjacent to open land?

A

commons search - reveal if acquiring property is protected as common land or a town and village green (making development virtually impossible), and whether land being acquired is affected by common rights

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46
Q

What search should be made if the property adjoins a railway line?

A

railways search - reveal if there are any obligations to maintain the boundary features separating the property from the railway line, and whether there are any restrictions on carrying out building work next to the line

solicitor can also advise a buyer that an approach should be made to Network Rail on specific proposals

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47
Q

What are highway searches?

A

searches to show the extent of a highway maintainable at public expense
*these should be carried out to establish that the property directly adjoins the public highway and there is no other land belonging to a third party in between the property and public highway (ransom strip!) or that any rights benefitting the property connect to the public highway + whether any part of the property has been included as part of the public highway [you will not be permitted to interfere with the public right of way]

if it is revealed that verges/pavements are not publicly maintenable, there is no automatic right to use it and local authority is not paying for its maintenance - therefore buyer’s solicitor would need to establish how the buyer will have a right to use the road (e.g. express easement or easement by prescription)

*form CON29 is insufficient - will show whether highway is adopted but NOT extent to which it is [highway search will show whether highway immediately and directly abuts property] + a failure to make the local authority aware that an enquiry is being raised for a specific purpose (e.g. in connection with a proposed development or establishing the existence of a ransom strip) can mean that the buyer’s recourse against the local authority for a wrong answer will be limited to nominal damages

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48
Q

When is a company search appropriate?

A

where the seller is a company in order to confirm whether the seller has the capacity to enter into the contract, confirm the identity of current officers of the company, see if there are any fixed or floating charges secured on the property that will need to be discharged on completion

for unregistered land, company searches should be carried out against any corporate estate revealed in epitome of title

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49
Q

When is planning permission required?

A

for the carrying out of any development of land
*development is defined in s.55 Town and Country Planning Act 1990 as the carrying out of building, engineering, mining, or other operations (operational development) in, on, over or under land, or the making of any material change in the use of the buildings or other land

  • maintenance, improvement or other alteration of any building or works which affect only the interior of a building, or do not materially affect the external apeparance of a builing are excluded from the definition
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50
Q

What is class B2 in the Town and Country Planning (Use Classes) Order 1987?

A

general industrial

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51
Q

What is class B8 in the Town and Country Planning (Use Classes) Order 1987?

A

storage and distribution

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52
Q

What is class C in the Town and Country Planning (Use Classes) Order 1987?

A

residential use - C1: hotels; C3: dwelling houses; C4: houses in multiple occupation

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53
Q

What is class E in the Town and Country Planning (Use Classes) Order 1987?

A

commercial, business, and service - E(a): retail sale of goods, other than hot food; E(b): sale of food and drink for consumption on the premises; E(c): financial and professional services; E(g): uses which can be carried out in a residential area without detriment to its amenity, including offices to carry out any operational or administrative functions and research&development

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54
Q

What is class F in the Town and Country Planning (Use Classes) Order 1987?

A

local community and learning

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55
Q

What are sui generis uses?

A

uses which could potentially have adverse effects on their locality: entertainment establishments, drinking establishments, hot food takeaways + changes to and from a sui generis use will generally always require planning permission

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56
Q

What are the time limits with regards to implementing planning permission?

A

a planning permission will usually state that it has to be implemented within a certain time and will lapse if not (otherwise 3 years in England + 5 years in Wales) - once implemented, a planning permission runs with the land forever and any conditions attached to it will burden the relevant land

planning permissions do not generally impose a time limit by which the authorised development must be completed, but if the Local Planning Authority decides that completion will not take place within a reasonable time, it can serve a completion notice stating that the permission will cease to have effect if completion has not taken place by the expiration period stated in the notice (this is rare)

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57
Q

What should you do if you are satisfied that the changes fall within the definition of s.55 TCPA 1990?

A

check whether planning permission is automatically granted under the Town and Country Planning (General Pemitted Development) Order 2015: e.g. extensions below a certain size, minor operations (painting the exterior of a building or installing a CCTV camera), changes between certain use classes - these are permitted developments

+ ensure that no changes have been made to the Order by the Secretary of State through an Article 4 Direction (by carrying out a local search: LLC1), which suspends the automatic grant of planning permission for permitted developments

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58
Q

When might you apply for a lawful development certificate?

A

in cases of doubt + these are made under s.192 TCPA 1990 to the Local Planning Authority

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59
Q

How can a Local Planning Authority find out whether there has been development of property in contravention of planning control?

A

LPA can exercise a right of entry to the property or serve a planning contravention notice, which requires the recipient to provide information about operations, use, or activities being carried out on the land and any matter relating to the conditions attached to a planning permission

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60
Q

What can a Local Planning Authority do when someone develops property in contravention of planning control?

A

1) enforcement notice - served on owner, occupier, or any other person having an interest in land, and will become effective 28 days after notice + notice will specify alleged breach and steps to take/activities to be discontinued to remedy breach and timescale (can be appealed)
2) stop notice - must follow an enforcement notice (generally served to bring activities in breach of planning control to an end before enforcement notice takes effect) + LPA can serve a temporary stop notice effective for 28 days only which gives time for further investigation [failure to comply with a stop notice is a criminal offence] (no right to appeal)
3) breach of condition notice (no right of appeal) - will specify the steps which the council require to be taken to secure compliance with the condition in question
4) LPA can apply to the court for an injunction to restrain an actual or apprehended breach of contract

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61
Q

When must enforcement action be taken by the LPA?

A

for operational development without planning permission: 4 years (from when the develpment is substantially complete)
for unauthorised change of use to use as a single dwelling house: 4 years
for other breaches - e.g. other material change of use/breach of planning condition: 10 years

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62
Q

What are the consequences of failing to comply with a planning control notice?

A

punishable with a fine + current owner of the property is to be held responsible (not necessarily the person who obtained planning permission or failed to obtain or breach conditions) - buyer’s solicitor should make the necessary searches and enquiries pre-contract to discover planning history of property

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63
Q

When does building regulations consent need to be obtained?

A

whenever building works are to be undertaken irrespective of whether the works constitute development for the purpose of planning control

if not obtained, local authorities can issue an injunction (not time limited) if work is unsafe

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64
Q

What can local authorities do with regards to breach of building regulations control?

A

*prosecute for breach + proceedings must be brought within 2 years of relevant work being completed
*issue an enforcement notice within 1 year of work, requiring it to be altered or removed

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65
Q

What should a buyer do if a building was not granted building regulations consent?

A

ask seller to obtain a regularisation certificate from the local authority which lists the work required to bring the building up to standard or obtain insurance

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66
Q

What steps need to be taken to demolish/alter/extend a listed building?

A

listed building consent in addition to planning permission

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67
Q

What are conservation areas and what protections are afforded to them?

A

areas that are of special architectural or historic interest + which should be preserved or enhanced - broader protection than the listing of individual buildings: changes to external appearance of a building in a conservation area may require planning permission that is not required elsewhere as some permitted development rights are curtailed + any work planned to a tree in a conservation area must be notified to the LPA 6 weeks in advance for them to determine whether and how the work should take place

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68
Q

Why might parties want to have a contract?

A

parties are satisfied with property’s title and information revealed in the searches/enquiries, but there will be delays before completion because of the buyer’s financial arrangements not being finalised/parties need more time to organise the practical aspects - rather than hoping the other party will not try change the price, parties fix terms

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69
Q

When are the Standard Conditions of Sale used?

A

residential transactions and some simple commercial transactions (e.g. low price + empty properties with a straightforward title)

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70
Q

When are the Standard Commercial Property Conditions used?

A

high value commercial properties

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71
Q

How is property identified in the contract - registered v unregistered land?

A

*for registered land, state title number and class of title (found in Proprietorship Register)
*for unregistered land, refer to root of title - e.g. 56 Blackhorse Drive… more particularly delineated and edged red on a plan annexed to the Conveyance dated…

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72
Q

What specified incumbrances should be listed on the contract?

A

all burdens (therefore NOT positive covenants) except seller’s mortgages
*standard conditions is that seller sells free from incumbrances other than those:
(a) specified in the contract
(b) discoverable by inspection of the property before the date of the contract
(c) that the seller does not and could not reasonably know about
(d) other mortgages, that the buyer knows about (SC) / disclosed or would be disclosed by searches made by a prudent buyer (SCPC)
(e) entries made on public registers other than those kept by the Land Registry, Land Charges Department, or Companies House (SC)
(f) public requirements
*good practice to include all regardless of whether SC/SCPC covers to avoid breach + non-disclosure could lead to buyer having a right to rescind contract and/or claim damages
- for drafting: “the mines and mienrals exception in entry X of the Property Register and the covenants in entry Y of the Charges Register”

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73
Q

If seller sells with full title guarantee, what will happen if they fail to disclose incumbrances which ought reasonably to have been known? What will happen if there is an incumbrance which the seller could not reasonably have known about?

A

(1) ought reasonably have known + no disclosure = seller will be liable under the title guarantee and under the standard conditions of incumbrances
(2) could not reasonably have been known = not liable under title guarantee or standard conditions on incumbrances, but buyer will take subject to the incumbrance

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74
Q

What does it mean if the seller sells with full title guarantee?

A

(1) seller has right to sell the property
(2) seller, at their own cost, will do all that they reasonably can to ensure the buyer will acquire a good title to property
(3) if property which is being sold is registered, it is presumed that the whole of that property in the registered title is being disposed of
(4) if unregistered, it is presumed that the interest being sold is the freehold
(5) seller is selling free from all mortgages and all other rights and interests which may be exercisable by a third party other than those which the seller does not and could not reasonably be expected to know about

*given when seller owns the entire legal and equitable title to property

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75
Q

What does it mean if the seller sells with limited title guarantee?

A

(5) covenant that seller has not incumbered the property and is not aware that anyone else has done so since the last disposition for value

*given when seller has limited knowledge of property
*likely to be suitable for an executor

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76
Q

What title guarantee would an appointed 2nd trustee give?

A

*could give limited title guarantee as second trustee, although has the right to dispose of land, does not own an equitable interest in the property
*could give no title guarantee

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77
Q

When might a seller insist to give a no title guarantee?

A

where seller is a person appointed following insolvency e.g. - essentially when they have no knowledge of property being sold
(will not eliminate seller of all liability under the contract)

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78
Q

What is the contract rate?

A

the rate of interest that will be charged if a party is late in completing
*rate must be high enough to incentivise a potentially defaulting party to complete on time
*common: Law Society’s interest rate from time to time in force (i.e 4% above the base lending rate of Barclays) - this is provided for in the SC and SCPC so default position

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79
Q

What is the deposit?

A

pre-payment of part of the purchase price by the buyer to seller + evidence of buyer’s commitment to the transaction
*standard: 10% of purchase price + seller’s solicitor takes as stakeholder, meaning that they cannot hand deposit over to the seller until completion

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80
Q

What special condition should be added if the parties agree to vary the standard arrangement for deposit - i.e. accept reduced deposit?

A

special condition requiring the buyer to top up the deposit to the full amount if completion is delayed - to ensure seller does not have less of a fund to forfeit

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81
Q

What does it mean if the parties vary the deposit arrangement so that the seller’s solicitor holds as an agent?

A

deposit can be released to the seller immediately after exchange and can be used by the seller for any purpose whatsoever (carries the risk that if there is no completion, seller may not be in a position to return deposit)

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82
Q

What do the standard conditions say in relation to the method of paying deposit?

A

SC: deposit paid by electronic means or by cheque drawn on the conveyancer’s client account
SCPC: payment by electronic means only
*this is DIFFERENT to Law Society Formulas for exchange over phone!
*sums must be paid from and into a clearing bank account held by a conveyancer

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83
Q

What matters do the special conditions cover?

A

those which relate to the individual characteristics of the property and the particular circumstances of the transaction - e.g. if the sale includes contents/excludes fixtures, dealing with appointment of 2nd trustee if applicable, payment of VAT, indemnity covenant, seller selling with limited or no title guarantee

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84
Q

When does the risk of damage pass to the buyer?

A

on exchange of contracts - therefore buyer must complete purchase even if the property is damaged or destroyed between exchange and completion

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85
Q

What should the parties do if they agree that risk remains with the seller?

A

require the seller to maintain the policy until completion and if property suffers damage prior, to hand the insurance proceeds to buyer or assign to the buyer all the seller’s rights under the policy

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86
Q

What is the default VAT position under SCPC? What type of client might rely on this?

A

purchase price is exclusive of VAT + VAT is payable
*appropriate for new property as seller has no choice to charge / old property where the seller needs to opt to tax to recover VAT paid on refurbishment and buyer is not VAT-sensitive

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87
Q

What is the default VAT position under SC?

A

purchase price is inclusive of VAT
*for commercial - special condition in SCPC: popular option for VAT-sensitive buyers, but seller may be at risk if law changes [not advisable for seller!]

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88
Q

What is the VAT position if the parties decide to incorporate SCPC Part 2, Condition A1?

A

purchase price is exclusive of VAT + VAT can be added on top in the unlikely event that the law changes to make an exempt supply chargeable at the standard rate, but seller is contractually obliged not to opt to tax

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89
Q

What is a mortgage offer / commitment letter from the lender and when would it be issued? What must the buyer’s solicitor do in relation to this document?

A

mortgage offer (for residential and simple commercial loans) + commitment letter (for complex loans): sets out the terms on which the lender is prepared to make the loan
*issued only when the lender is satisfied that the property is good security for the loan and buyer is creditworthy
*document may impose conditions / may allow the lender to withdraw offer even after exchange of contracts

buyer’s solicitor must ensure that the buyer has received, understood and, if required by the lender, accepted the mortgage offer prior to exchange of contracts

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90
Q

What must the buyer’s solicitor do in relation to the mortgage deed?

A

explain to the borrower as to its obligations under the deed, and advise on the consequences of defaulting on mortgage payments and powers of the lender if default

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91
Q

When can a solicitor act for the lender and borrower?

A

*usually only in residential conveyancing as more likely that mortgage will be on the standard terms - no risk of conflict of interest
*negotiations usually required for commercial mortgages

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92
Q

What is the certificate of title? Who prepares this?

A

confirmation that property has good and marketable title (i.e. there are no legal problems with the property) + prepared by the buyer’s solicitor to be given immediately prior to completion of the loan

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93
Q

What templates are used for the certificate of title?

A

*for residential transactions: form approved by the Law Society and UK Finance
*for commercial transactions: City of London Law Society Certificate of Title

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94
Q

How should the certificate of title be drafted? - consequences of wrong information?

A

for commercial transactions:
*CLLS is structured as a series of statements which cannot be altered - if a statement cannot be agreed with, solicitor makes a disclosure against the statement which sets out how the statement does not apply to the property
*often addressed to the buyer and the lender, sometimes just the lender

if information on the certificate is wrong, lender can sue the firm which gave the certificate as there are warranties as to the correctness of the information contained within it

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95
Q

What are the steps to be taken in preparation for exchange of contract?

A

(1) buyer’s solicitor to send to client a pre-contract report summing up results of searches and investigation of title, and explaining the terms of the contract and mortgage offer
(2) buyer’s solicitor to report to lender
(3) ensure deposit funds are available and ready to send to seller’s solicitor at exchange
(4) check mortgage offer is in place and buyer has complied with any conditions attached to the offer
(5) ensure insurance is in place as in most cases risk passes to the buyer on exchange
(6) both sides to sign their copy of the contract - in wet ink or electronic signature provided that the person signing the document intends to authenticate it and any execution formalities are satisfied
(7) solicitors to discuss completion date with client and the other side
(8) obtain client’s authority to exchange - in writing and make a note on file [client needs to be aware of the consequences of exchange]

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96
Q

How can exchange be done?

A

*in person
*by post
*over phone

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97
Q

What are the Law Society Formulas for exchange over phone?

A

Formula A:
*used when 1 solicitor holds both parts of the contract duly signed
*undertakings are that the solicitor holding both signed parts will, on the same day, send their client’s signed part to the other side by first class post, through DX, or by hand
*buyer’s solicitor also undertakes that, on the same day, will send to the other side a banker’s draft or client account cheque for the agreed deposit, with their client’s signed part of the contract if it is the buyer’s solicitor who holds both

Formula B:
*used where each solicitor holds their own client’s signed part of the contract
*undertakings that each solicitor will, on the same day, send the signed part of the contract that they are holding to the other side by first class post, through DX, or by hand duly dated
*buyer’s solicitor, together with the signed part of the contract, will that day also send the other side a banker’s draft or client account cheque for the agreed deposit

Formula C:
*mainly used when there is a chain transaction

  • if want to pay deposit by electronic means, Formula will need to be amended
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98
Q

What is the consequence of exchange of contracts?

A

seller retains legal title in the property until completion, but holds the beneficial interest on behalf of the buyer - therefore seller entited to remain in physical possession and must pay outogings until completion

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99
Q

What should the solicitors do immediately after exchange?

A

inform clients that exchange has taken place

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100
Q

What are the requirements for a valid transfer deed?

A

(1) clear on the face of it that it is a deed
(2) in writing
(3) signed
(4) witnessed by an independent witness
(5) delivered - if it is clear on the fact of it that the document is a deed, it will be presumed that it has been delivered on execution

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101
Q

How can a company execute a deed?

A

(a) using the company seal in accordance with the articles of association
(b) having it signed by a director and the secretary, or by 2 directors of the company, provided that the deed is expressed to be executed by the company - i.e. signatories are signing on company’s behalf
(c) having it signed by a single director in the presence of a witness who then attests that signature

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102
Q

When will the seller execute the deed?

A

always

103
Q

When will the buyer execute the deed?

A

if entering into an obligation or making a declaration in the TR1 - e.g. giving an indemnity covenant or declaring a beneficial interest under a trust

104
Q

How are the names of the transferors/transferees to be set out on the TR1 Form?

A

full names must be given for all parties

105
Q

When should the TR1 be dated?

A

upon completion

106
Q

What is the transferee’s intended address(es) for service?

A

where they want communications to be sent to - will be the property’s address if residential
*each transferee may give up to 3 addresses

107
Q

How should the purchase price be written on the TR1 Form?

A

words (numbers) + will need to include VAT where it is payable!

108
Q

What would be put in Panel 11 of the TR1 Form?

A

additional provisions - including to deal with positive covenants: e.g.transferee covenants to observe and perform covenants referred to in XXX and indemnify the transferor against any liability incurred for breach/non-observance of the covenants occuring after the date of this transfer
*essentially what the buyer would be executing

109
Q

What searches should be made pre-completion in relation to registered land?

A

(1) to make sure that seller has not further encumbered the title since investigation of title - Land Registry search against the title number made through Form OS1 if whole property sold or OS2 if sale is of part
*results will be set out in Form OS1R or OS2R and confers a priority period of 30 working days - giving protection to buyer (and lender where applicable) (they can take free from any subsequent entries made on the register provided they submit their application for registration by noon on the last day of the priority period)
*if buyer is financing purchase with mortgage, application for search should be in the name of the lender
(2) check financial circumstances of the borrower when acting for lender: Form K16, bankruptcy only search

110
Q

What searches should be made pre-completion in relation to unregistered land?

A

(1) to make sure that seller has not further encumbered since investigation - land charges search on form K15 against the current seller’s name (not necessary to go back and search all names as no entries can be registered against them after they parted with the property)
*results on Form K18 + confers a priority period of 15 working days
(2) check financial circumstances of the borrower when acting for lender: Form K15 search will reveal entries relating to bankruptcy, therefore add buyer’s name to search

111
Q

What searches should be done if the seller is a company?

A

company search to check that a seller company has not gone into liquidation before the balance of purchase price is paid over on completion - search will also reveal if company has created any fixed or floating charges
*no priority period
*should be done as close as possible to the date of completion
*for high value transactions or where there is reason to be concerned about the solvency of a corporate seller, possible to do a telephone search at the Registry of Winding Up Petitions at the Companies Court on day of completion

112
Q

Why is it generally unnecessary to do a bankruptcy search against a seller individual?

A

a buyer for value acting in good faith without notice of the bankruptcy petition or adjudication will take good title from the bankrupt seller, even though legal title to the land has vested in the trustee in bankruptcy
*if a search wants to be done (high value transfer or specific concern): Form K16

113
Q

What is the completion information form?

A

document in which agreed practical arrangements for completion are set out
*for residential properties: Form TA13 Completion information and undertakings - asks seller to confirm arrangements for handing over keys, place and method of completion, documents to be handed over at completion, exact amount payable by the buyer on completion (and details of seller’s solicitor’s bank account) + also deal with discharge/redemption of seller’s mortgage (list out and undertake)

114
Q

What is the completion statement?

A

bill that needs to be paid
*seller’s solicitor sends to buyer’s solicitor: setting out how much money is required to complete the purchase (sale price + price of any chattels - deposit)

115
Q

What would the buyer’s lender expect to receive before releasing mortgage advance?

A

(1) certificate of title to confirm that property is adequate security for loan being advanced
(2) solvency search against the borrowers
(3) clear OS1R in the name of the lender
(4) an executed but not completed mortgage deed

116
Q

What will the buyer’s solicitor send to its client in relation to finances?

A

a Financial Statement advising them of the funds needed to complete - i.e. amount to be forwarded by the buyer to its solicitor

117
Q

What is the procedure for sending balance of purchase price to the seller’s solicitor?

A

(1) buyer’s solicitor should ensure that they have received both the mortgage advance from lender and balance of the purchase price from the buyer - they can then send balance to seller
(2) notify the seller’s solicitor that money is on its way
(3) once money is received, seller’s solicitor will contact the buyer’s solicitor and completion with take place (date TR1 and lender’s solicitor can date mortgage deed)

118
Q

What are the methods of completion?

A

(1) in person
(2) by post

119
Q

What normally happens at an in-person completion?

A

*buyer’s solicitor will check any title documents against the evidence of title previously sent to them (unregistered land)
*in return for receiving completion money, seller’s solicitor will hand over title documents and other documents relating to the property - e.g. planning permission, guarantees, insurance policies
*seller’s solicitor to arrange for release of key

120
Q

How is completion done by post?

A

*can choose to use Law Society’s Code for Completion by Post - must be agreed by all the conveyancers concerned and preferably in writing
*seller’s solicitor will act as the agent of the buyer’s solicitor for the purpose of carrying out the completion procedure - therefore it is important that the buyer’s solicitor sets out in writing precisely what the seller’s solicitor is to do on their behalf [seller’s solicitor gives an implied and enforceable undertaking to carry out the buyer’s solicitor’s instructions] - acting without fee or disbursements unless otherwise agreed

instructions on:
*documents to be examined and marked
*memoranda to be endorsed on retained deeds
*documents to be sent to the buyers solicitor after completion - including authorities for release of keys

121
Q

What are the key undertakings given by the seller’s solicitor under the Law Society’s Code for Completion by Post?

A

(1) he has the seller’s authority to receive purchase money & authority of proprietor of each mortgage/charge/financial incumbrance which has not been redeemed, to receive sum intended to repay it
*if does not have necessary authorities, seller’s solicitor to advise the buyer’s solicitor no later than 4pm on the working day before completion date + not to complete without buyer’s solicitor’s instructions
(2) undertakes that he will comply with agreed completion arrangements
(3) undertakes to redeem/discharge mortgages + these have been identified by the seller’s solicitor to the extent necessary for the buyer’s conveyancer’s application to the Land Registry

after completion:
(4) undertakes to hold to the buyer’s solicitor’s order every document and NOT to exercise a lien over them
(5) confirm to the buyer’s solicitor by telephone, fax, or email the date and time at which completion took place
(6) notify the seller’s estate agent or other keyholder that completion has taken place and authorise them to make keys available to the buyer immediately
(7) send written confirmation that completion has taken place (by DX or first class post) - as soon as possible after completion and in any event at the end of the working date following completion
*and, at the risk of the buyer’s solicitor, the relevant documents referred to in the buyer’s solicitor’s instructions

122
Q

What is the effect of completion?

A

*unregistered land: legal title passes
*registered land: legal title does not pass until buyer is registered at the Land Registry

123
Q

How can the seller’s mortgage be discharged?

A

(1) buyer agrees to allow the seller’s solicitor to discharge the mortgage after completion using the money received at completion
(2) seller’s solicitor asks the buyer’s solicitor to send the amount required to redeem the mortgage direct to the lender on the day of competion
*method should be agreed upon before completion

124
Q

What will the seller’s lender do upon discharge of its mortgage and what steps should the seller’s solicitor take in response?

A

registered:
(a) complete Land Registry Form DS1 (whole) + Form DS3 (part) - will be sent to the seller who must forward this to the buyer’s solicitor,
(b) submit an e-DS1 through the Land Registry portal (only possible for discharging whole mortgage) - seller to send confirmation to buyer’s solicitor, or
(c) use the Electronic Discharge system, sending an electronic message to the Land Registry + in most cases, automatically removes the charge from the register - seller to send confirmation to buyer’s solicitor

unregistered: give a vacating receipt - a note to the mortgage deed itself to confirm that it has been repaid + it should be signed and/or sealed by lender

125
Q

When is SDLT payable and to whom? + What will be issued as proof of payment?

A

within 14 days of completion to HMRC
*HMRC will produce an SDLT5 form

126
Q

When is LTT payable and to whom? + What will be issued as proof of payment?

A

within 30 days of competion to Welsh Revenue Authority
*WRA will produce a WRA certificate

127
Q

What happens if SDLT/LTT are not paid?

A

fines and penalties + applications to the Land Registry to register the buyer as the new registered proprietor will be rejected without SDLT5 form/WRA certificate accompanying the application

128
Q

What needs to be registered if the buyer is a company and transaction is financed by a mortgage?

A

register chage within 21 days of completion at Companies House
*this gives constructive notice to other creditors of the company
*failure would render the charge void against a liquidator or administrator of the borrower and the brorower’s other creditors

129
Q

What will need to be submitted to the Land Registry for application to be made in relation to registered land? (transaction with and without mortgage)

A

all:
*Form AP1 used to register the buyer as the registered proprietor of land
*submit certified copy of transfer, fee, SDLT/LTT certificate
*if appointing 2nd trustee for overreaching: appointment deed and death certificate of previous owner
*if DS1 was used, buyer’s solicitor must apply for the mortgage to be discharged under Form AP1 - submit DS1

transaction with help of mortgage:
*certified copy of the mortgage deed + if buyer is a company, certified copy of the certificate of registration issued by Companies House and solicitor’s/lender’s written confirmation that the enclosed certified copy mortgage deed is the same as the one filed at Companies House and to which the certificate of registration relates

130
Q

What are the consequences of not submitting the Land Registry application before the expiry of the priority period granted from the OS1 search? (i.e. 30 working days)

A

buyer/lender will lose the benefit of the priority period and would take subject to matters registered during that period

131
Q

What should be submitted as part of the Land Registry application for unregistered land? When must this be submitted? - i.e. application of first registration

A

*within 2 months of completion
*Form FR1, fee
*Form DL: list of documents being supplied with registration application
*all documents which formed the evidence of title supplied by the seller’s solicitor
*the buyer’s pre-contract searches and enquiries relating to the title with their replies
*the contract
*requisitions on title with their replies
*all pre-completion search certificates
*transfer deed
*seller’s mortgage, duly receipted
*SDLT/LTT certificate
*Form DI (dislcosing disclosable overriding interests)

if there is a new mortgage: same additional documents as with registered land: copy of the certified mortgage deed + if Company: solicitor’s/lender’s written confirmation that the enclosed certified copy mortgage deed is the same as the one filed at Companies House and to which the certificate of registration relates, copy of certificate of registration

conveyancers have the option of lodging first registration applications made up entirely of certified copy deeds and documents, whereas non-conveyancers must submit original

132
Q

What will the Registrar do in relation to an application for first registration?

A

investigate title in order to decide which class of title can be allocated - copy of Form DL will be returned to applicant’s solicitor, giving an estimate of the likely time which the Land Registry expects to take to deal with application

133
Q

What additional information needs to be given where the property’s value exceeds £5,000?

A

*applicant must give details of the conveyancer acting for each party
where a party is not represented, provide evidence of that party’s identity

134
Q

What will the Land Registry send as evidence that the buyer is the new owner of the property (after processing applications)? - registered and unregistered land

A

Title Information Document

135
Q

When must completion take place if the exchanged contract is silent?

A

20 working days after the date of the contract
*money due must be paid before 2pm otherwise it will be treated as taking place on the next working day as a result of the buyer’s default

136
Q

Who can be obliged to pay contractual compensation?

A

*under SC: both buyer and seller
*under SCPC: only buyer

137
Q

How is contractual compensation payable calculated?

A

*calculated at the contract rate specified in the contract on the balance of the purchase price, less any deposit paid (if defaulting part was the buyer) for the period between contractual completion date and date of actual completion

([purchase price - deposit] x contract rate) / 365 = to find daily rate
multiply daily rate with number of days in default (e.g. completion meant to take place Friday, but happened on Tuesday: Fri, Sat, Sun, Mon (4 days))

138
Q

When may common law damages be awarded?

A

*for losses naturally flowing from breach as well as for any reasonably foreseeable consequential loss - e.g. wasted legal costs, putting furniture in storage, cost of renting another property, cost of bridging finance and any rebooking removal costs
*aims to put claimant in the position it would have been in had the contract been correctly performed

common law damages will be reduced by contractual compensation - no double recovery

139
Q

When can a notice to complete be served and what is the effect of serving this?

A

*can only be served after the contractual completion time on the contractual completion date
*once served, time is of the essence and other party is given 10 working days to complete
*failure to complete would enable the party who served the notice to rescind the contract (power to do so, not an obligation)

140
Q

What happens if the contract is rescinded?

A

*if defaulting party was buyer = seller is able to forfeit deposit
*if defaulting party was seller = they must repay the deposit to the buyer

non-defaulting party can claim damages for loss

141
Q

Besides post-service of a notice to complete, when else is rescission possible?

A

there has been a misrepresentation by the seller in the plan or statement in the contract, or in negotiations leading up to the contract
*error/omission must result from fraud or recklessness
*less serious misrepresentations would only entitle buyer to damages

142
Q

What are the requirements for a valid transfer deed?

A

(1) clear on the face of it that it is a deed
(2) in writing
(3) signed
(4) witnessed by an independent witness
(5) delivered - if it is clear on the fact of it that the document is a deed, it will be presumed that it has been delivered on execution

143
Q

How can a company execute a deed?

A

(a) using the company seal in accordance with the articles of association
(b) having it signed by a director and the secretary, or by 2 directors of the company, provided that the deed is expressed to be executed by the company - i.e. signatories are signing on company’s behalf
(c) having it signed by a single director in the presence of a witness who then attests that signature

144
Q

When will the seller execute the deed?

A

always

145
Q

When will the buyer execute the deed?

A

if entering into an obligation or making a declaration in the TR1 - e.g. giving an indemnity covenant or declaring a beneficial interest under a trust

146
Q

How are the names of the transferors/transferees to be set out on the TR1 Form?

A

full names must be given for all parties

147
Q

When should the TR1 be dated?

A

upon completion

148
Q

What is the transferee’s intended address(es) for service?

A

where they want communications to be sent to - will be the property’s address if residential
*each transferee may give up to 3 addresses

149
Q

How should the purchase price be written on the TR1 Form?

A

words (numbers) + will need to include VAT where it is payable!

150
Q

What would be put in Panel 11 of the TR1 Form?

A

additional provisions - including to deal with positive covenants: e.g.transferee covenants to observe and perform covenants referred to in XXX and indemnify the transferor against any liability incurred for breach/non-observance of the covenants occuring after the date of this transfer
*essentially what the buyer would be executing

151
Q

What searches should be made pre-completion in relation to registered land?

A

(1) to make sure that seller has not further encumbered the title since investigation of title - Land Registry search against the title number made through Form OS1 if whole property sold or OS2 if sale is of part
*results will be set out in Form OS1R or OS2R and confers a priority period of 30 working days - giving protection to buyer (and lender where applicable) (they can take free from any subsequent entries made on the register provided they submit their application for registration by noon on the last day of the priority period)
*if buyer is financing purchase with mortgage, application for search should be in the name of the lender
(2) check financial circumstances of the borrower when acting for lender: Form K16, bankruptcy only search

152
Q

What searches should be made pre-completion in relation to unregistered land?

A

(1) to make sure that seller has not further encumbered since investigation - land charges search on form K15 against the current seller’s name (not necessary to go back and search all names as no entries can be registered against them after they parted with the property)
*results on Form K18 + confers a priority period of 15 working days
(2) check financial circumstances of the borrower when acting for lender: Form K15 search will reveal entries relating to bankruptcy, therefore add buyer’s name to search

153
Q

What searches should be done if the seller is a company?

A

company search to check that a seller company has not gone into liquidation before the balance of purchase price is paid over on completion - search will also reveal if company has created any fixed or floating charges
*no priority period
*should be done as close as possible to the date of completion
*for high value transactions or where there is reason to be concerned about the solvency of a corporate seller, possible to do a telephone search at the Registry of Winding Up Petitions at the Companies Court on day of completion

154
Q

Why is it generally unnecessary to do a bankruptcy search against a seller individual?

A

a buyer for value acting in good faith without notice of the bankruptcy petition or adjudication will take good title from the bankrupt seller, even though legal title to the land has vested in the trustee in bankruptcy
*if a search wants to be done (high value transfer or specific concern): Form K16

155
Q

What is the completion information form?

A

document in which agreed practical arrangements for completion are set out
*for residential properties: Form TA13 Completion information and undertakings - asks seller to confirm arrangements for handing over keys, place and method of completion, documents to be handed over at completion, exact amount payable by the buyer on completion (and details of seller’s solicitor’s bank account) + also deal with discharge/redemption of seller’s mortgage (list out and undertake)

156
Q

What is the completion statement?

A

bill that needs to be paid
*seller’s solicitor sends to buyer’s solicitor: setting out how much money is required to complete the purchase (sale price + price of any chattels - deposit)

157
Q

What would the buyer’s lender expect to receive before releasing mortgage advance?

A

(1) certificate of title to confirm that property is adequate security for loan being advanced
(2) solvency search against the borrowers
(3) clear OS1R in the name of the lender
(4) an executed but not completed mortgage deed

158
Q

What will the buyer’s solicitor send to its client in relation to finances?

A

a Financial Statement advising them of the funds needed to complete - i.e. amount to be forwarded by the buyer to its solicitor

159
Q

What is the procedure for sending balance of purchase price to the seller’s solicitor?

A

(1) buyer’s solicitor should ensure that they have received both the mortgage advance from lender and balance of the purchase price from the buyer - they can then send balance to seller
(2) notify the seller’s solicitor that money is on its way
(3) once money is received, seller’s solicitor will contact the buyer’s solicitor and completion with take place (date TR1 and lender’s solicitor can date mortgage deed)

160
Q

What are the methods of completion?

A

(1) in person
(2) by post

161
Q

What normally happens at an in-person completion?

A

*buyer’s solicitor will check any title documents against the evidence of title previously sent to them (unregistered land)
*in return for receiving completion money, seller’s solicitor will hand over title documents and other documents relating to the property - e.g. planning permission, guarantees, insurance policies
*seller’s solicitor to arrange for release of key

162
Q

How is completion done by post?

A

*can choose to use Law Society’s Code for Completion by Post - must be agreed by all the conveyancers concerned and preferably in writing
*seller’s solicitor will act as the agent of the buyer’s solicitor for the purpose of carrying out the completion procedure - therefore it is important that the buyer’s solicitor sets out in writing precisely what the seller’s solicitor is to do on their behalf [seller’s solicitor gives an implied and enforceable undertaking to carry out the buyer’s solicitor’s instructions] - acting without fee or disbursements unless otherwise agreed

instructions on:
*documents to be examined and marked
*memoranda to be endorsed on retained deeds
*documents to be sent to the buyers solicitor after completion - including authorities for release of keys

163
Q

What are the key undertakings given by the seller’s solicitor under the Law Society’s Code for Completion by Post?

A

(1) he has the seller’s authority to receive purchase money & authority of proprietor of each mortgage/charge/financial incumbrance which has not been redeemed, to receive sum intended to repay it
*if does not have necessary authorities, seller’s solicitor to advise the buyer’s solicitor no later than 4pm on the working day before completion date + not to complete without buyer’s solicitor’s instructions
(2) undertakes that he will comply with agreed completion arrangements
(3) undertakes to redeem/discharge mortgages + these have been identified by the seller’s solicitor to the extent necessary for the buyer’s conveyancer’s application to the Land Registry

after completion:
(4) undertakes to hold to the buyer’s solicitor’s order every document and NOT to exercise a lien over them
(5) confirm to the buyer’s solicitor by telephone, fax, or email the date and time at which completion took place
(6) notify the seller’s estate agent or other keyholder that completion has taken place and authorise them to make keys available to the buyer immediately
(7) send written confirmation that completion has taken place (by DX or first class post) - as soon as possible after completion and in any event at the end of the working date following completion
*and, at the risk of the buyer’s solicitor, the relevant documents referred to in the buyer’s solicitor’s instructions

164
Q

What is the effect of completion?

A

*unregistered land: legal title passes
*registered land: legal title does not pass until buyer is registered at the Land Registry

165
Q

How can the seller’s mortgage be discharged?

A

(1) buyer agrees to allow the seller’s solicitor to discharge the mortgage after completion using the money received at completion
(2) seller’s solicitor asks the buyer’s solicitor to send the amount required to redeem the mortgage direct to the lender on the day of competion
*method should be agreed upon before completion

166
Q

What will the seller’s lender do upon discharge of its mortgage and what steps should the seller’s solicitor take in response?

A

registered:
(a) complete Land Registry Form DS1 (whole) + Form DS3 (part) - will be sent to the seller who must forward this to the buyer’s solicitor,
(b) submit an e-DS1 through the Land Registry portal (only possible for discharging whole mortgage) - seller to send confirmation to buyer’s solicitor, or
(c) use the Electronic Discharge system, sending an electronic message to the Land Registry + in most cases, automatically removes the charge from the register - seller to send confirmation to buyer’s solicitor

unregistered: give a vacating receipt - a note to the mortgage deed itself to confirm that it has been repaid + it should be signed and/or sealed by lender

167
Q

When is SDLT payable and to whom? + What will be issued as proof of payment?

A

within 14 days of completion to HMRC
*HMRC will produce an SDLT5 form

168
Q

When is LTT payable and to whom? + What will be issued as proof of payment?

A

within 30 days of competion to Welsh Revenue Authority
*WRA will produce a WRA certificate

169
Q

What happens if SDLT/LTT are not paid?

A

fines and penalties + applications to the Land Registry to register the buyer as the new registered proprietor will be rejected without SDLT5 form/WRA certificate accompanying the application

170
Q

What needs to be registered if the buyer is a company and transaction is financed by a mortgage?

A

register chage within 21 days of completion at Companies House
*this gives constructive notice to other creditors of the company
*failure would render the charge void against a liquidator or administrator of the borrower and the brorower’s other creditors

171
Q

What will need to be submitted to the Land Registry for application to be made in relation to registered land? (transaction with and without mortgage)

A

all:
*Form AP1 used to register the buyer as the registered proprietor of land
*submit certified copy of transfer, fee, SDLT/LTT certificate
*if appointing 2nd trustee for overreaching: appointment deed and death certificate of previous owner
*if DS1 was used, buyer’s solicitor must apply for the mortgage to be discharged under Form AP1 - submit DS1

transaction with help of mortgage:
*certified copy of the mortgage deed + if buyer is a company, certified copy of the certificate of registration issued by Companies House and solicitor’s/lender’s written confirmation that the enclosed certified copy mortgage deed is the same as the one filed at Companies House and to which the certificate of registration relates

172
Q

What are the consequences of not submitting the Land Registry application before the expiry of the priority period granted from the OS1 search? (i.e. 30 working days)

A

buyer/lender will lose the benefit of the priority period and would take subject to matters registered during that period

173
Q

What should be submitted as part of the Land Registry application for unregistered land? When must this be submitted? - i.e. application of first registration

A

*within 2 months of completion
*Form FR1, fee
*Form DL: list of documents being supplied with registration application
*all documents which formed the evidence of title supplied by the seller’s solicitor
*the buyer’s pre-contract searches and enquiries relating to the title with their replies
*the contract
*requisitions on title with their replies
*all pre-completion search certificates
*transfer deed
*seller’s mortgage, duly receipted
*SDLT/LTT certificate
*Form DI (dislcosing disclosable overriding interests)

if there is a new mortgage: same additional documents as with registered land: copy of the certified mortgage deed + if Company: solicitor’s/lender’s written confirmation that the enclosed certified copy mortgage deed is the same as the one filed at Companies House and to which the certificate of registration relates, copy of certificate of registration

conveyancers have the option of lodging first registration applications made up entirely of certified copy deeds and documents, whereas non-conveyancers must submit original

174
Q

What will the Registrar do in relation to an application for first registration?

A

investigate title in order to decide which class of title can be allocated - copy of Form DL will be returned to applicant’s solicitor, giving an estimate of the likely time which the Land Registry expects to take to deal with application

175
Q

What additional information needs to be given where the property’s value exceeds £5,000?

A

*applicant must give details of the conveyancer acting for each party
where a party is not represented, provide evidence of that party’s identity

176
Q

What will the Land Registry send as evidence that the buyer is the new owner of the property (after processing applications)? - registered and unregistered land

A

Title Information Document

177
Q

When must completion take place if the exchanged contract is silent?

A

20 working days after the date of the contract
*money due must be paid before 2pm otherwise it will be treated as taking place on the next working day as a result of the buyer’s default

178
Q

Who can be obliged to pay contractual compensation?

A

*under SC: both buyer and seller
*under SCPC: only buyer

179
Q

How is contractual compensation payable calculated?

A

*calculated at the contract rate specified in the contract on the balance of the purchase price, less any deposit paid (if defaulting part was the buyer) for the period between contractual completion date and date of actual completion

([purchase price - deposit] x contract rate) / 365 = to find daily rate
multiply daily rate with number of days in default (e.g. completion meant to take place Friday, but happened on Tuesday: Fri, Sat, Sun, Mon (4 days))

180
Q

When may common law damages be awarded?

A

*for losses naturally flowing from breach as well as for any reasonably foreseeable consequential loss - e.g. wasted legal costs, putting furniture in storage, cost of renting another property, cost of bridging finance and any rebooking removal costs
*aims to put claimant in the position it would have been in had the contract been correctly performed

common law damages will be reduced by contractual compensation - no double recovery

181
Q

When can a notice to complete be served and what is the effect of serving this?

A

*can only be served after the contractual completion time on the contractual completion date
*once served, time is of the essence and other party is given 10 working days to complete
*failure to complete would enable the party who served the notice to rescind the contract (power to do so, not an obligation)

182
Q

What happens if the contract is rescinded?

A

*if defaulting party was buyer = seller is able to forfeit deposit
*if defaulting party was seller = they must repay the deposit to the buyer

non-defaulting party can claim damages for loss

183
Q

Besides post-service of a notice to complete, when else is rescission possible?

A

there has been a misrepresentation by the seller in the plan or statement in the contract, or in negotiations leading up to the contract
*error/omission must result from fraud or recklessness
*less serious misrepresentations would only entitle buyer to damages

184
Q

What is assignment?

A

transferring lease to someone else

185
Q

What is the procedure for giving consent when lease contains a qualified covenant against assigning?

A

[tenant will make a written application for consent]
*landlord may not withhold consent or delay giving consent unreasonably [what amounts to a reasonable time will depend on the circumstances of the transaction] (does not need to be justifiable or right)
*landlord must serve on the tenant written notice of their decision whether or not to grant consent, specifying in addition: if consent is given subject to conditions, the conditions + if consent is withheld, the reasons for withholding it
*landlord and tenant can agree in advance conditions and circumstances in which it would be unreasonable for the landlord to refuse consent

if landlord fails to deal with a tenant’s application appropriately, the tenant may apply to court for a declaration that consent has been unreasonably withheld or make a claim in damages against the landlord

186
Q

What would be considered unreasonably withholding consent?

A

*refusing on grounds which have nothing to do with the relationship of landlord and tenant in regard to the subject matter of the lease
it is a question of fact whether landlord’s consent is being withheld unreasonably
*minor breaches of repairing covenant
*refusing consent in an attempt to obtain some advantage for itself

187
Q

What are some reasonable grounds for withholding consent?

A

*proposed assignee’s references were unsatisfactory + concerns about the financial status of the proposed assignee
*there was a long-standing and extensive breach of the repairing covenant by the assignor and landlord could not be reasonably satisfied that the assignee would be in a position to remedy breach
*assignee would be in a position to compete with the landlord’s business
*assignment would reduce the value of the landlord’s reversion (only reasonable if landlord had intention of selling reversion)
*proposed assignee intends to carry on a use detrimental to the premises or use inconsistent with the landlord’s tenant mix policy (so long as the policy is known to the tenants and is a rational one)
*assignee would, unlike the assignor, acquire protection under Part 2 of Landlord and Tenant Act 1954

188
Q

Is withholding consent on the grounds that landlord anticipates a breach of user covenant by assignee reasonable?

A

not a reasonable standalone ground - you must examine what the reasonable landlord would do (consider whether the landlord’s position would be significantly altered by the assignment - to an extent, landlord would have the same powers to prevent or remedy a breach of the user covenant before and after the assignment + consider the detriment to the tenant by refusing consent and if that detriment would be extreme and disproportionate in relation to the benefit gained by the landlord)

189
Q

Who is responsible for obtaining landlord’s consent for assignment to take place?

A

assignor + they must use all reasonable endeavors to obtain it

190
Q

When is the licence to assign finalised?

A

at completion - but assignor will need to check pre-exchange that landlord will agree to the assignment in principle (ensure costs are not wasted)

191
Q

Who usually pays for the landlord’s fees/costs for considering the proposed assignment and licence to assign?

A

common for the landlord’s solicitor to require an undertaking from the assignor’s solicitors for payment
*assignor’s solicitor should seek assignor’s authority to give undertaking
*undertaking should be limited to reasonable costs + a cap could be sought

on completion of the licence, the Tenant shall pay the reasonable costs and disbursements of the Landlord, its solicitors and its managing agents in connection with this licence. This obligations extends to costs and disbursements assessed on a full indemnity basis and to any value added tax in respect of those costs and disbursements except to the extent the Landlord is able to recover such value added tax.

192
Q

What are some common conditions for providing consent for assignment?

A

*assignee to provide a guarantor
*assignor to enter into an AGA to guarantee the performance of the tenant’s covenants by the assignee (in absence of a provision in the lease, landlord can insist on the AGA only if it is reasonably to do so)
*landlord may require a premium to be paid by the assignor - but this must be specifically set out in the lease

193
Q

What happens under the Standard Conditions of Sale if landlord’s consent is not obtained?

A

either party may rescind the contract by notice if the consent has not been given 3 working days before the completion date or if, by that time, consent has been given subject to a condition to which the buyer reasonably objects

194
Q

What happens under the Standard Commercial Property Conditions if landlord’s consent is not obtained?

A

completion is postponed until 5 working days after the assignor notifies the buyer that consent has been given + contract may not be rescinded until 6 months have passed since the original completion date (contract can be rescinded by serving notice to the other party)

195
Q

Who prepares the draft licence to assign + in what form?

A

*landlord’s solicitor + this is sent to the assignor’s solicitor who coordinates with the assignee’s solicitor to amend/agree to draft
*usually in the form of a deed

196
Q

Why is the consent given by a landlord usually time-limited?

A

landlord has no control over when the assignment takes place and the assignee’s financial position can change in a short time

197
Q

What should a landlord seek if lease was granted on or after 1 Jan 1996?

A

*AGA from assignor: guaranteeing that assignee will perform the tenant covenants, promising to perform such covenants if the tenant does not, indemnifying the landlord for the assignee’s failure to pay rent or to observe other covenants, promising to take a new lease if the liability of the assignee is disclaimed on insolvency
*AGA should provide that the assignor’s liability does not extend beyond that of the assignee - therefore on the assignee being released from liability on a further assignment, so is the assignor

a direct covenant (w/assignee) is not necessary as it gives the landlord nothing more than what they enjoy under statute, but landlord may require one, albeit limited to the period during which the assignee is the tenant under the lease

198
Q

What should a landlord seek if lease was granted before 1 Jan 1996?

A

direct covenant by the assignee to observe and perform the covenants in the lease for the remainder of the term (not simply relying on privity of estate for covenants to be observed)

199
Q

What will the title investigation procedure involve if the assignor’s lease is registered with absolute title?

A

there would be no need for assignee to investigate title to the freehold
*can obtain official copies of the register and the title plan of the leasehold online

200
Q

What will the title investigation procedure involve if the assignor’s lease is registered with good leasehold title?

A

[i.e. there is no guarantee of the soundness of the freehold title]
*under the general law, assignee is not entitled to insist on the deduction of the freehold title - but likely that assignee will try to insist (provision for deduction should be dealt with by special condition in the contract)

201
Q

What will the title investigation procedure involve if the assignor’s lease is unregistered?

A

*under the general law, the assignee is entitled to call for the lease and all assignments under which that lease has been held during the last 15 years, but NOT for evidence of the freehold title
*without deduction of freehold, unless freehold is already registered with absolute title, assignee will only obtain a good leasehold title on registration of the lease at the Land Registry following completion
*provision for deduction must be dealt with by special condition in the contract

202
Q

What searches should the assignee’s solicitor make?

A

same as those for the purchase of a freehold
*however, where lease has only a short period left unexpired, buyer may choose not to carry out some or all searches as the risk may not justify the cost involved

203
Q

What should the assignee’s solicitor ask to see as part of enquiries?

A

*insurance policy relating to the property and receipt of the last insurance premium due
*copy of the receipt for the last payment of annual rent due under the lease - to check that the assignor is not in breach of lease (if there are any outstanding breaches, landlord will be able to enforce breach against assignee)

204
Q

What form of transfer deed should be used for assignments?

A

*assignment of registered lease: TR1
*assignment of unregistered lease if lease has more than 7 years left to run at date of assignment: TR1
*assignment of unregistered lease if lease exceeds 7 years but less than 7 years left to run at date of assignment: TR1 or deed of assignment
*assignment of unregistered lease if lease is for 7 years or less: deed of assignment

205
Q

What provision can be added into the transfer deed to ensure that assignor escapes liability to assignee for breaches of a repairing covenant?

A

“the covenants set out in section 4 of LPMPA 1994 will not extend to any breach of the tenant’s covenants in the lease relating to the physical state of the property”
*this acts as a limitation to the extent of the title guarantee given in the TR1 + is in line with the principle of caveat emptor (buyer/assignee must satisfy itself as to the physical state of the property)

this is provided for in both sets of standard conditions - but needs to be set out expressly in transfer deed

206
Q

When is an indemnity covenant from the assignee to assignor implied on assignment?

A

for assignment of old leases, except where, for unregistered leases, value is not given by the assignee for the transaction

207
Q

When must an express indemnity covenant be inserted?

A

if required by contract for unregistered old leases and value is not given by the assignee for the transaction + where assignor remains liable after assignment of new leases (e.g. under AGA)
*this is provided for in both sets of standard conditions

208
Q

What pre-completion searches need to be carried out?

A

*OS1 for registered lease
*land charges search against the name of the assignor to check that no adverse entries have been made since pre-exchange land searches (unregistered land) - K15

potentially, company searches

209
Q

What happens if assignor paid rent in advance of assignment and completion does not fall on a date in which rent is due?

A

instalment paid in advance by assignor may be apportioned on completion so that the assignee reimburses the assignor for the period from completion until next rent day
*assignor should supply a completion statement which shows the amounts due and explain how they have been calculated

210
Q

What will the assignor give to the assignee on completion?

A

*lease
*transfer deed
*licence to assign executed by the landlord
*evidence of freehold title in accordance with the contract
*evidence of discharge of mortgage
*copies of duplicate notices served by the assignor and its predecessors on the landlord in accordance with a covenant in the lease requiring the landlord to be notified of any dispositions
*insurance policy and receipt relating to the last premium due
*receipt for rent [on production of the receipt of the last rent due under the lease, an assignee must assume, unless the contrary appears, that the rent has been paid and the covenants performed]

211
Q

What will the assignee give to the assignor on completion?

A

*duly executed counterpart licence to assign
*release of deposit where the assignee is paying a premium

212
Q

Is SDLT/LTT payable?

A

only on any purchase price charged by the assignor + due at the same rates using the same procedure as for the sale of freehold land (NOT charged on rent)

213
Q

What should be done if the lease provides that notice has to be given to the landlord of an assignment?

A

notice should be given in duplicate (i.e. give 2 copies), accompanied by the appropriate fee set out in the lease - landlord should be asked to sign one copy of notice as acknowledgement of receipt and return the receipted copy to the sender to be kept with the title deeds

214
Q

When is commercial rent usually payable?

A

on quarter days: 25 Mar, 24 June, 29 Sep, 25 Dec

215
Q

If lease is silent, is rent payable in advance or arrears?

A

arrears

216
Q

What must be included in the lease in order to change rent payable throughout term?

A

rent review clause - this can also solve any uncertainty as to rent

217
Q

What is fixed increase rent review?

A

*rent is to be increased to a set, pre-determined amount
*this has benefits of certainty and simplicity, but it is not often used because of difficulties in predicting with any certainty what rental levels are likely to be at a given point in the future

218
Q

What is index-linked rent review?

A

*links rent to an external index so that rent can be altered in line with inflation
*this does not track the property market specifically + there may be discrepancies between reviewed rent and actual rental values at the time of review

219
Q

What is tenant’s receipts-linked rent review?

A

*often linked to tenant’s turnover (but possible to be linked to e.g. profits)
*tracks the tenant’s actual financial health and ability to pay rent - this gives the landlord an incentive to do all it can to increase the tenant’s trade

220
Q

What is open market rent review?

A

*aims to determine rent which a tenant would be prepared to pay were the property to be let in the open market on the terms of the lease on the rent review date - therefore involves a hypothetical assessment
*there will be consideration of the physical property itself and the terms of the lease during review

221
Q

What are the main 2 forms of open market rent review?

A

(1) upwards only: the reviewed rent will be the higher of the rent currently being paid and the open market valuation (rental level will never go down - therefore favouring landlords / tenants will be unable to benefit from a fall in rental levels but is subject to any increases)
(2) upwards/downwards: revised rent will be the open market rent as determined in accordance with the lease (rent will reflect any increases or decreases in rental levels that have occurred since the start of the leases or the previous rent review)

222
Q

What happens if the parties fail to agree the revised rent during review?

A

lease should provide for independent determination - i.e. make provision for the matter to be referred to an independent third party, usually appointed through the Royal Institute of Chartered Surveyors

223
Q

What are some common (acceptable) assumptions to be made for rent review?

A

*there is a willing landlord and a willing tenant (accounts for if letting market is slow/dead)
*property is available to let in the open market with vacant possession (without, tenant would be unjustly benefitted as open market rent would be reduced)
*property is let without payment of a premium
*hypothetical let on the terms of this lease other than as to the amount of the annual rent but including the provisions for review of annual rent (exclusion of rent review would benefit landlord as a tenant would pay more for a lease without such a clause because of the certainty of rent which would not increase during its term)
*assumption that tenant has fully complied with their obligations under the lease - including repair covenant
*assumption that if the property has been destroyed or damaged, it has been fully restored
[could include how long the hypothetical lease may last - better unexpired residue of actual term as if specifying the full original term, this may inflate rent]

224
Q

What are some common (acceptable) disregards for rent review?

A

*any effect on rent of the fact that the tenant has been in occupation of the property (therefore landlord cannot argue that tenant would pay an inflated annual rent in order to avoid costs of relocation)
*any goodwill attached to the property by reason of any business carried out by the tenant
*any effect on rent attributable to any physical improvement to the property carried out by the tenant with all necessary consents and not pursuant to an obligation to the landlord (i.e. voluntary improvements)

225
Q

Who can the landlord sue for breach of leasehold covenant if lease was granted before 1 Jan 1996?

A

*original tenant - they remain liable for the full term of the lease through privity of contract
*current tenant (sued in privity of estate)
*landlord can only sue intervening tenants in privity of contract if the landlord required each incoming tenant to give a direct covenant on assignment

226
Q

Who can the landlord sue for breach of leasehold covenant if lease was granted on or after 1 Jan 1996?

A

*original tenant will be released from liability as soon as it assigns the lease to another - however, landlord may require tenant to give an authorised guarantee agreement (this acts as a promise by the outgoing tenant that it will be liable for any breaches of the covenants in the lease by the incoming tenant): AGA will only last for the duration of that assignee’s ownership of the lease + when the assignee assigns on, original tenant will be released
*current tenant in privity of estate

227
Q

What remedies are available for breach of the covenant to pay rent?

A

(1) action in debt (limitation period of 6 years)
(2) commercial rent arrears recovery
(3) pursue guarantors and/or rent deposit
(4) forfeiture - only remedy to bring lease to an end + enable landlord to gain vacant possession of property
(5) surrender

228
Q

What does commercial rent arrears recovery involve?

A

*landlord is permitted to enter the property, and seize and sell goods belonging to the current tenant (by public auction)
*landlord must give 7 days’ notice of intention to enter premises and must use an enforcement agency to enter the premises to remove goods
*goods necessay for the tenant’s business are exempt up to an aggregate value of £1,350
*landlord CANNOT take items which are leased or bought on hire purchase (landlord can only take items belonging to the tenant)
*tenant must be given at least 7 clear days’ notice of the sale
*CRAR only available where at least 7 days’ rent is outstanding

229
Q

How should a guarantee be given and what is its effect?

A

given in writing + it will oblige the guarantor to pay rent and other sums due under the lease if the tenant does not pay (essentially, guarantor of the current tenant may be sued in the same way as the current tenant)

230
Q

Can a landlord sue the guarantor of a former tenant?

A

yes
*under an old lease: liability of guarantor will likely extend through the duration of the lease regardless of an assignment
*under a new lease: guarantor is automatically released from liability on an assignment of the lease by the guaranteed tenant - however, landlord can require the guarantor of an outgoing tenant to guarantee the outgoing tenant’s obligations under the AGA (therefore, guarantor is indirectly guaranteeing the incoming tenant until a further assignment takes place)

231
Q

What is the procedure when landlord wishes to pursue a former tenant or the guarantor of a former tenant?

A

section 17 Landlord and Tenant (Covenants) Act 1995
(1) landlord must serve a default notice if they intend to recover a fixed charge from them
(2) default notice must be served within 6 months of the current tenant’s breach
(3) when default notice is served, the former tenant/guarantor may be able to regain some control over the property by paying the sum claimed under the default notice and calling for an “overriding lease” - this makes the former tenant/guarantor the immediate landlord of the defaulting tenant

232
Q

What are rent deposits?

A

where landlord required the tenant to deposit a cash sum as security for payment of the rent and performance of the tenant’s covenants contained in the lease
*amount of the deposit, circumstances which entitle the landlord to withdraw money from it, point at which it is repayable to the tenant will be set out in a rent deposit deed (+ deed will usually require the tenant to top the deposit up if landlord needs to withdraw money)
*as long as landlord has not breached terms in the rent deposit deed, it can draw money when tenant is in breach of a relevant covenant without taking court action for debt or exercising any other remedy

233
Q

When and how can landlord forfeit a lease as a result of non-payment of rent?

A

*lease must contain a forfeiture clause (may be labelled as “provisos” or “re-entry”)
- common law requires a formal demand to be made before landlord can proceed to forfeit, but this can be dispensed with by the lease + lease can vary how many days the rent must have been outstanding before forfeiture can take place
*landlord can forfeit by taking possession through peaceful re-entry (which must be unequivocal) or by obtaining a court order
*landlord would have waive its right to forfeit if carried out an act demonstrating an intention to continue the relationship of landlord and tenant

tenant can apply to the court for relief from forfeiture - court’s discretion to allow lease to continue

234
Q

What are the remedies available for breach of the repairing covenant?

A

(1) damages
(2) forfeiture
(3) self-help (Jervis v Harris clause)
(4) specific performance
(5) pursue former tenant under AGA
(6) rent deposit
(7) surrender

235
Q

What is the procedure for bringing a claim in damages for repairing covenant breach?

A

*action would lie for breach of contract (whether this course of action is appropriate would depend on if the tenant is solvent)
*section 18 LTA 1927: damages for breach of repair covenants are limited to the diminution in value of the landlord’s reversion - so may not cover full cost of reinstating the property
*if lease was granted for 7 years or more and has at least 3 years left to run, landlord must comply with Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938, which provides that tenant has a right to serve a counter-notice within 28 days of landlord serving notice + this will prevent the landlord from proceeding further with the claim without leave of court

236
Q

What is the procedure for forfeiture where there has been a breach of the repairing covenant?

A

*landlord must serve a section 146 notice (LPA 1925), specifying breach, requiring breach to be remedied within a reasonable time if it is capable of remedy, require tenant to pay compensation for breach
*if tenant does not comply with this, landlord can forfeit by peaceful re-entry or by court order + tenant can apply for relief form forfeiture
*if Leasehold Property (Repairs) Act 1938 applies, section 146 notice must include notification of the tenant’s right to serve a counter notice within 28 days + if this is served, landlord can only proceed to forfeit with leave of court

237
Q

What is a self-help remedy?

A

*helpful for landlord due to restrictions in LTA 1927 and LP(R)A 1938
lease must contain a “Jervis v Harris” clause - which typically:
(1) allows landlord to enter to check tenant’s compliance with repair covenant
(2) if there is a breach, landlord can serve a notice specifying works required to remedy breach
(3) if tenant fails to start work within a specified period after service of notice or is not proceeding diligently, landlord may enter, carry out works and recover costs from the tenant as debt

238
Q

What is specific performance?

A

*an equitable remedy - therefore available at the court’s discretion
*will only be granted where other remedies are not available + in exceptional circumstances:
(a) there is no forfeiture or self-help clause
(b) damages are not an adequate remedy - e.g. condition of property was deteriorating
(c) court is sure that the order was not sought by the landlord simply to harass or otherwise put pressure on the tenant

239
Q

What is the procedure of surrendering a lease?

A

*requires a mutual and unequivocal act by both parties treating the lease as no longer being in existence (e.g. handing keys back + acceptance by landlord or formal deed of surrender) - vacating premises is generally not sufficient to establish intention
*potentially quicker and cheaper than forfeiture (practically sound), but requires cooperation between parties

240
Q

What are the common law methods of terminating a lease?

A

(1) effluxion of time for fixed-term tenancy
(2) notice to quit for periodic tenancy
*there must be one full period’s notice [will terminate at the end of the full period] - except yearly tenancy where at least 1/2 years’ notice is sufficient
(3) surrender
(4) merger - tenant acquires the immediate reversion to the lease (i.e. acquires the landlord’s estate in land)

241
Q

When does the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 apply?

A

applies to any tenancy where the property comprised in the tenancy is or includes premises which are (1) occupied by the tenant and are (2) so occupied for the purposes of a business carried on by him or for those and other purposes
*business: includes trade, profession, or employment and in the case of a body of persons, any activity carried on by them (activity does not need to be a business or commercial activity - e.g. running a tennis club)

242
Q

What business tenancies are excluded, thus not protected by the 1954 Act?

A

(1) tenancies at wills (can be terminated by either party)
(2) fixed-term tenancies not exceeding 6 months
*but, landlord cannot circumvent the Act by granting a succession of 6- months tenancies - e.g. if tenancy does not exceed 6 months but contains a provision allowing renewal or extension of the term beyond 6 months, tenancy will be protected + if tenant or predecessor in same business has already been in occupation for 12 months when another lease is granted, new lease will be protected even if it is for 6 months or less
(3) tenancies of agricultural holdings, farm business tenancies, mining leases
(4) fixed-term tenancies that are “contracted out” of the Act

243
Q

How can you “contract out” of the 1954 Act?

A

(1) landlord must give tenant notice in a prescribed form warning tenant that they are agreeing to a lease without security of tenure + advise them to obtain professional advice
(2) tenant must make a declaration in a prescribed form that they have received notice and agree that the lease should be contracted out
*if the tenant is given notice less than 14 days before grant of lease, tenant’s declaration must be in the form of a statutory declaration before an independent solicitor
(3) a reference to the service of notice and tenant’s declaration must be contained or endorsed on the lease

244
Q

What is the effect of the 1954 Act?

A

tenancy will continue until terminated in accordance with Act (common law methods do NOT apply) + even where tenancy is terminated, tenant has a right to apply to court for a new tenancy which can only be opposed by the landlord on one of the 7 statutory grounds in section 30 of the Act

245
Q

How can a landlord terminate a fixed term or periodic tenancy under the 1954 Act?

A

(1) landlord must serve a section 25 notice on the tenant regardless of whether it wants the property back or wants to grant a new lease (will need to make clear in the notice whether landlord oppose the grant of a new tenancy + if so, state section 30 ground(s) of opposition / if willing to grant, landlord must indicate its proposals as to the terms of the new lease)
(2) section 25 notice must state the date upon which the landlord wants the tenancy to end - this cannot be earlier than the date the tenancy could have been terminated under common law
(3) notice must be served no less than 6 months and no more than 12 months before the termination date specified in the notice

if landlord indicated that they oppose grant of new lease, can pre-empt any applications to court by tenant by applying for an order to terminate the lease on the grounds stated in its notice

246
Q

What should a tenant do after receiving a section 25 notice?

A

*if landlord indicates that it will oppose the grant of a new lease, tenant must apply to the court before the expiry of the section 25 notice or they will lose their rights under the Act
*even if landlord indicates that it does not oppose new tenancy, tenant should still apply to safeguard position

247
Q

How can a tenant terminate a fixed term or periodic tenancy under the 1954 Act?

A

*cease to occupy for business purposes on or before term date (section 27(1A)) - tenancy will still end on contractual expiry date
*serve a section 27 notice 3 months’ prior (notice must not expire before contractual expiry date)
if section 27 is used, tenant will have lost all statutory renewal rights and cannot later serve a section 26 request

248
Q

What can a tenant do if it wishes to remain in the property after the contractural expiry date?

A

(1) do nothing and wait until landlord serves a section 25 notice
(2) serve a section 26 notice - this will bring the current tenancy to an end and constitutes a request for a new tenancy
*notice must state the date on which the tenant wants the new tenancy to begin and must contain the tenant’s proposals for the new tenancy
*notice must be served between 6 and 12 months’ before date tenant wants the new tenancy to start (+ this cannot be earlier than the contractual expiry date)

249
Q

What should a landlord do after receiving a section 26 notice?

A

*if landlord wishes to oppose the grant of a new tenancy, serve a counter-notice within 2 months stating the section 30 ground(s) of opposition
- tenant must then apply to court for a new lease or they will lose rights + appliation must be made before the commencement date of the new tenancy specified in the tenant’s section 26 request unless landlord agrees to an extension
*if landlord does not oppose, need not serve a counter-notice + parties to negotiate (tenant should still make an application to court to safeguard position)

250
Q

What are the discretionary grounds of opposition?

A

(a) tenant’s failure to repair
(b) tenant’s persistent delay in paying rent
(c) tenant’s substantial breach of other obligations
(e) tenancy is an underletting of part

court will decide whether or not to allow the tenant a new lease + there will be a court hearing on the ground(s) the landlord is relying on

251
Q

What are the mandatory grounds of opposition?

A

(d) landlord has offered alternative accommodation - must be suitable to the tenant’s needs and on reasonable terms [landlord does not need to own the alternative accommodation]
(f) landlord intends to demolish or reconstruct and could not reasonably do so without obtaining possession
*landlord must show that, on the termination of the tenancy, it has a firm and settled intention to carry out the relevant work (e.g. obtained necessary planning permsision and financial arrangements in place)
*landlord will not succeed under this ground if the tenant agrees to allow the landlord access to carry out the work, which can then be reasonably carried out without obtaining possession and without substantially interfering with the tenant’s use
(g) landlord intends to occupy the holding for its own business or as a residence
*this ground can only be used where landlord has owned their interest for at least 5 years before the ending of the current tenancy - exception: if landlord bought property with vacant possession
*not a requirement to show that landlord’s business will be a success - all that needs to be shown is that landlord has taken practical steps to occupy the property/have reasonable prospect of achieving its intention

252
Q

What tenancy is the tenant entitled to?

A

tenancy of the “holding” - i.e. part of the property it actually occupies for business purposes / the property comprised in the current tenancy, excluding any part not occupied by the tenant (but landlord can insist that new tenancy is a tenancy of the whole of the originally demised property)

253
Q

What may the court order the terms of the lease to be?

A

*terms must be reasonable
*tenancy cannot exceed 15 years
*term will not commence until 3 months after the proceedings are “finally disposed of” (i.e. 4 weeks after order as the time limit for appeal has elapsed) - therefore in total, 3 months and 4 weeks after the order
*rent is open market rent having regard to the other terms of the tenancy, but court must disregard:
(a) the fact that tenant and their predecessors have been in occupation
(b) any goodwill attached
(c) any effect on rent of any voluntary improvements by tenant
(d) in the case of licensed premises, any addition in value due to the tenant’s licence
*court can insert a rent review clause in the lease even if there wasn’t one in the original/previous lease

if tenant finds the terms of the new lease ordered by the court unacceptable, they may apply for the order to be revoked (landlord has no right, but can appeal)

254
Q

When would a tenant be entitled to compensation if a landlord is successful in opposing the grant of a new lease?

A

landlord relied on grounds (e), (f), (g) - i.e. tenant not at fault
*amount of compensation will be equivalent to the rateable value of the holding - unless the tenant and their predecessors in the same business have been in occupation for at least 14 years (it will be twice the rateable value)
*payment cannot be restricted or excluded if the tenant or their predecessors in the same business have been in occupation for at least 5 years