Legal Services Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 types of legal work defined as “reserved legal activities”?

A

(1) exercise of right of audience (i.e. appearing before and addressing a court)
(2) the conduct of litigation (e.g. issuing proceedings; commencing, prosecuting, defending those proceedings)
(3) reserved instrument activities (preparing and lodging formal legal documents dealing with transfer of land, relating to real or personal estate or an instrument relating to court proceedings)
*excludes wills or testamentary instruments, letter or power of attorney, transfer of stock containing no trust or limitation of the transfer
(4) probate activities
(5) notarial activities
(6) administration of oaths

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2
Q

Who can carry out reserved legal activities?

A

those who are authorised or exempt (for rights of audience: a person will be exempt if a court grants that person a right of audience in a particular case + for probate activities, employee can act under the supervision of an authorised person)
*carrying on a reserved legal activity when unauthorised and not exempt will lead to a criminal offence + punishable by up to 2 years’ imprisonment
*carrying on exercise of right of audience and conduct of litigation places individual in contempt of court

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3
Q

What is the Legal Services Board?

A

oversees the regulation of all lawyers in England and Wales + a body can only act as a regulator for reserved legal activities if approved by the Legal Services Board
*main function is to monitor the way in which regulators operate + make recommendations for improvement, impose penalties, withdraw approval where necessary

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4
Q

What are the regulatory objectives which the Legal Services Board (and its approved regulators - including SRA) are under a duty to promote?

A

*protect and promote the public interest
*support the constitutional principle of the rule of law
*improve access to justice
*protect and promote the interests of consumers
*promote competition in the provision of services in the legal sector
*encourage an independent, strong, diverse, and effective legal profession
*promote and maintain adherence to the professional principles of independence and integrity, proper standards of work, observing the best interests of the client and the duty to the court, and maintaining client confidentiality

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5
Q

What body is the approved regulator for barristers + what reserved legal activities can it authorise?

A

Bar Standards Board + cannot authorise notarial activities

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6
Q

What body is the approved regulator for chartered legal executives + what reserved legal activities can it authorise?

A

CILEx Regulation + cannot authorise notarial activities

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7
Q

What body is the approved regulator for licensed conveyancers + what reserved legal activities can it authorise?

A

Council for Licensed Conveyancers + can authorise to conduct reserved instrument activities, probate activities and the administration of oaths

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8
Q

What body is the approved regulator for patent & trademark attorneys + what reserved legal activities can it authorise?

A

IP Regulation Board + cannot authorise probate and notarial activities

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9
Q

What body is the approved regulator for cost lawyers + what reserved legal activities can it authorise?

A

Costs Lawyers Standards Board + can authorise rights of audience, conduct of litigation, and administration of oaths

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10
Q

What body is the approved regulator for notaries?

A

Master of the Faculties

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11
Q

What approach to regulation does the SRA take?

A

a risk-based approach - therefore SRA focuses on misconduct most likely to harm public interest
*when considering risk, SRA takes into account probability (likelihood of a negative impact occurring) and impact/potential harm caused

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12
Q

What is the SRA’s Risk Outlook?

A

annual publication by the SRA setting out its view of the most significant risks affecting the profession

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13
Q

What does the SRA expect firms to do in relation to risk management?

A

identify, monitor, and manage all material risks

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14
Q

When are you eligible to apply for SRA authorisation as a licensed body?

A

if you are a licensable body and have at least one manager that is an authorised person
*licensable body = a non-authorised person is a manager of the body or an interest holder (i.e. holds shares) and/or another body X is a manager of the body and non-authorised persons are entitled to exercise, or control the exercise of, at least 10% of voting rights in X

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15
Q

When are you eligible to apply for SRA authorisation as a a recognised sole practice?

A

if you are a solicitor who is the sole principal in practice

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16
Q

When are you eligible to apply for SRA authorisation as a recognised body?

A

if you are a legal services body in which all the managers and interest holders are legally qualified
*legal services body = where at least 75% of the body’s managers are legally qualified, the proportion of shares and voting rights held by legally qualified persons is at least 75% and managers who are not legally qualified are approved by the SRA (at least one manager must be a solicitor)
*can be partnership, LLP, company

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17
Q

What is the effect of SRA authorisation for recognised bodies?

A

they will be entitled to carry on all reserved legal activities (except notarial activities) and immigration work
*business of the recognised body will be limited to:
(a) professional services of the sort provided by individuals practising as solicitors and/or lawyers or other jurisdictions, and
(b) other services set out in annex 2 of the SRA Authorisation of Firms Rules: e.g. ADR, financial services, estate agency
*will need a Compliance Officer for Legal Practice and a Compliance Officer for Finance and Administration (approved by SRA)

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18
Q

What is the effect of SRA authorisation for licensed bodies?

A

they become entitled to carry out the same range of activities as a recognised body in accordance with the terms of the licence granted by the SRA + they must have a Head of Finance and Administration, and a Head of Legal Practice

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19
Q

What does the SRA authorisation process for firms involve?

A

(1) SRA will check basic eligibility requirements are met
(2) an investigation into the firm will be carried out (so that the SRA is satisfied that the firm is suitable to carry out reserved legal activities - meeting a standard to maintain public confidence)
(3) SRA may grant blanket authorisation, authorise the provision of selected legal services, or refuse application

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20
Q

What does the SRA authorisation process of individuals involve?

A

(1) admission as a solicitor - e.g. accepted into the profession and name on roll of solicitors kept by the SRA
(2) obtain a practising certificate [practicing without a certificate is a criminal offence]

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21
Q

What does the SRA consider when deciding whether an individual is suitable for admission?

A

Assessment of Character and Suitability Rules + the overriding need to protect the public and the public interest, and maintain public trust/confidence in the solicitors’ profession
*likely to refuse if applicant has committed most serious conduct: e.g. criminal offence resulting in custodial or suspended sentence, involing dishonesty, fraud, perjury, bribery; offence of violent/sexual nature; associated with obstructing course of justice or with terrorism; demonstrating signs of discrimination towards others
*likely to refuse if applicant appears on the Violent and Sex Offender register (most serious conduct)
*may refuse if serious criminal conduct
*non-criminal conduct wil also be considered: e.g. plagiarism or cheating in assessment, evidence that applicant has sought to avoid responsibility for debts, dishonestly managed finances, been declared bankrupt

*applicant must disclose all matters, regardless of where it has taken place, which are relevant to the assessment of character and suitability, AND provide further information requested by the SRA

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22
Q

Who is eligible to apply for a practising certificate and what does the certificate entitle the solicitor to do?

A

an admitted solicitor if their name is on the roll, have sufficient knowledge or written and spoken English or Welsh, and are not suspended from practice as a solicitor
*certificate entitles them to carry on all reserved activities

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23
Q

For which courts do solicitors need extra qualifications to exercise rights of audience?

A

higher courts: Crown Court, High Court, Court of Appeal and Supreme Court
*will need Higher Courts (Civil Advocacy) Qualification or Higher Courts (Criminal Advocacy) Qualification

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24
Q

When must a solicitor renew their practising certificate?

A

annually - 31 Oct
*a fee is payable on renewal of certificate

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25
Q

Does the SRA have discretion when issuing practising certificates?

A

yes - can refuse applications or impose conditions (at any time) on an existing certificate - but a decision by the SRA to refuse an application or to impose conditions can be made the subject of an application for a review by the SRA or appealed to the High Court

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26
Q

How/when can a solicitor practice outside of authorised firms?

A

(1) as a freelance solicitor if:
*their practice consists entirely of carrying on activities which are not reserved legal activities (family, employment, personal injury, general legal advice), or
*any reserved legal activities are provided through an authorised body, or
*must have practised for a minimum of 3 years since admission, is self-employed and practise in their own name, takes out indemnity insurance, does not employ anyone in connection with services provided, holds limited categories of client money
(2) in-house solicitors (can deliver reserved legal activities to their employer, but not general public)
(3) non-commercial organisations - not-for-protfits, charities, community interest groups and independent trade unions: can provide reserved legal activities to the public on behalf of the organisation + will be covered by wider insurance arrangements that organisation has in palce

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27
Q

What is the purpose of professional indemnity insurance?

A

caters for the possibility that the insured may be guilty of a breach of professional duty which gives rise to financial loss or damage to a third party - therefore aims to protect public by ensuring they are not left without compensation

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28
Q

What does professional indemnity insurance cover for solicitors?

A

civil claims against a solicitor in the course of their practice

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29
Q

What must an SRA-authorised firm do in relation to indemnity insurance?

A

*must take out and maintain professional indemnity insurance that is adequate and appropriate for its practice and meets the specific requirements set out in the Rules [may need firm to go beyond minimum considering number and type of clients, history of claims, estimate of the level of claims that could be made]
*must be taken out with a participating insurer [regulated by FCA and have agreement with SRA]

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30
Q

What is the minimum figure for the sum insured as per SRA Rules?

A

*for recognised and licensed bodies, the sum insured for any one claim (exclusive of defence costs) must be at least £3million
*at least £2million in all other cases (sole practice)
*firm must not exclude or attempt to exclude liability below the minimum level of cover

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31
Q

What are the rules for professional indemnity insurance in relation to individual solicitors?

A

take out and maintain professional indemnity insurance that provides adequate and appropriate cover in respect of services they provide
*freelance solicitors and solicitors in a non-commercial body (for latter, sufficient for the non-commercial body to have adequate/appropriate qualifying insurance) must comply with this requirement if they provide reserved legal services to the public
*however, adequate/appropriate requirements applies to all services that the solicitor provides
*freelance solicitors and solicitors in a non-commercial body can exclude/limit liability to clients below the minimum amount
*freelance solicitors providing reserved legal services to the public must inform their clients that they are not required to meet the SRA’s minimum T&Cs

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32
Q

What happens if a firm cannot effect qualifying insurance at the end of the policy period?

A

(1) minimum T&Cs will extend cover for a maximum of 90 days + firm must inform SRA that they have entered this extended priod
(2) after 30 days [extended policy periond], if no cover can be found, firm must notify SRA and cannot take on new work (the next 60 days is known as the cessation period)
(3) if at the end of the 90 days, insurance cover still cannot be secured, firm must cease practising

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33
Q

What are the transparency requirements (between solicitor and client) in relation to insurance?

A

*solicitors must be open with clients about their professional indemnity insurance - e.g. information to be made available includes details of the insurer, territorial coverage of insurance
*general rule to ensure that enough info is provided for the client to be put in a position to make informed decisions (e.g. esp if client’s claim exceeds amount of cover)

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34
Q

What is the continuing competence obligation?

A

all solicitors must maintain competence to carry out role - reflect, identify, plan and address, keep an up-to-date record of their learning and development activity, evaluate effectiveness of such activities

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35
Q

How is disability defined under Equality Act 2010?

A

person has a physical or mental impairment AND the impairment has a substantial and long-term adverse effect on their ability to carry out normal day-to-day activities
*e.g. HIV
generally, threshold for substantial + long-term is high

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36
Q

What conduct is prohibited under the Act?

A

(1) direct discrimination
(2) indirect discrimination
(3) disability discrimination
(4) victimisation
(5) harassment

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37
Q

What constitutes direct discrimination?

A

where an individual is treated less favourably than others [comparator can be real or hypothetical] because of a protected characteristic
*assumption that individual has the characteristic suffices
*perpetrator’s intention is irrelevant
*any disadvantageous treatment is sufficient (no tangible/material loss needed)
*protected characteristic does not need to be the sole/main reason so long as it was a cause/influence

can only be justified in the context of age

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38
Q

What constitutes indirect discrimination?

A

*where conditions imposed apply to everyone (has universal application), but have the effect of prejudicing members of a particular group (e.g. requirement to work full time could disadvantage women who tend to bear a greater part of domestic and childcare responsibilities than men)
*can be justified if condition is shown to be a proportionate means of achieving a legitimate aim
does not apply to pregnancy/maternity

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39
Q

What constitutes disability discrimination?

A

*disabled individual is treated unfavourably [no comparator] because of something arising in consequence of their disability
*can be justified if unfavourable treatment can be shown to be a proportionate means of achieving a legitimate aim
*perpetrator must have known, or reasonably be expected to have known, that the disabled person had a disability

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40
Q

What constitutes victimisation?

A

an individual is victimised if they are subject to a detriment because
*they do a protected act, or
*perpetrator believes that the individual has done, or may do, a protected act

protected act:
*bringing proceedings under the Act
*giving evidence or information in proceedings under the Act
*doing anything which related to the provisions of the Act
*making an allegation that another person has done something in breach of the Act

victim does not need to have a protected characteristic

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41
Q

What constitutes harassment?

A

when an individual is subjected to a specific form of unwanted conduct which has the effect of violating the individual’s dignity, or creating an intimidating, hostile, degrading, humiliating or offensive environment for the individual - unwanted conduct must:
*relate to a protected characteristic (except pregnancy/maternity & marriage/civil partnership)
*be of a sexual nature, or
*be of a sexual nature or related to gender reassignment or sex and result in less favourable treatment because of the individual’s rejection of or submission to the conduct

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42
Q

What is the duty imposed to make adjustments for disabled persons?

A

(1) where a provision, criterion, or practice puts a disabled person at a substantial disadvantage in relation to a relevant matter in comparison with persons who are not disabled, the requirement is that reasonable steps must be taken to avoid the disadvantage
(2) where a physical feature puts a disabled person at a subtantial disadvantage, the requirement is that reasonable steps must be taken to avoid the disadvantage
(3) where a disabled person would, but for, the provision of an auxiliary aid, be at a substantial disadvantage in comparison with persons who are not disabled, the requirement is that reasonable steps must be taken to provide the auxiliary aid
*substantial disadvantage: requires more than minor/trivial

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43
Q

What is a service provider (e.g. solicitor) prohibited from doing under the Act?

A

*discriminate or victimise by not providing services as to the terms on which the service is provided, by terminating the provision of services, or by subjecting the user to any detriment
*harrasing the person to whom the service is provided
- e.g. refusing to act for a client, providing services on less advantageous terms, terminating retainer because of a protected characteristic [does not apply to marriage/civil partnership and age where the individual is under 18]

*as firm can be held vicariously liable for an employee’s acts, firm should take reasonable steps to prevent the particular act of discrimination or acts of that description [prior]

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44
Q

What is a service provider’s duty to make adjustments for disabled people?

A

take reasonable steps to avoid disadvantage or adopt a reasonable alternative method of providing service
*cost of making adjustments cannot be passed onto those using the service
*this is a general duty, therefore it does not matter whether the service provider is already providing services to disabled people - they must anticipate the possibility of disabled people using its services

in considering what is reasonable - take into account: cost of making the adjustment, nature of service provided, size of firm
*individual can only bring a claim if they are affected by failure to make adjustments

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45
Q

How can a client make a claim under the Equality Act 2010?

A

*claim will be made to County Court
*initial burden of proof is on the claimant to show a prima facie case of discrimination
*court can then make a finding that there has been a breach of the statute, unless the defendant is able to prove otherwise
*court can grant any remedy which the High Court could make in tort or judicial review cases - usually damages (if firm and employee are found liable, claimant does not receive double compensation)

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46
Q

What is an employer prohibited from doing under the Act?

A

*discriminate against or victimise a prospective employee - e.g. in the arrangements made for deciding to whom to offer employment, as to terms on which employment is offered, by not offering employment
*harass a person who has applied to it for employment
*discriminate against or victimise an employee - access to opportunities for promotion, transfer or trianing, or for receiving any other benefits, facility or service; by dismissing employee; by subjecting employee to any detriment [physical/financial consequences are not needed to prove detriment]
*harass an employee

exception: occupational requirements - employer can show that because of the nature of the job, only people with particular protected characteristics are able to do it [requierment must be proporionate to achieving a legitimate aim]

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47
Q

What is an employer’s duty to make adjustments for disabled employees/prospective employees?

A

requirement arises only if employer knows or ought reaosnably to know that the individual is disabled and likely to be disadvantaged = therefore not an anticipatory duty

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48
Q

How can an employee make a claim under the Equality Act 2010?

A

*at Employment Tribunal (can award unlimited compensation)
*tribunal can make declarations of the employee’s rights or make recommendations that the employer must take specified steps
*prospective employee can submit questions to the employer to help determine whether they have a claim
*employee must participate in a conciliation process through the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service to see if the claim can be settled

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49
Q

How are barristers protected under the Act?

A

(1) protected from discrimination by members of chambers or clerks of chambers in which they are tenant or pupils [those who have applied for tenancy or pupillage are also protected]
(2) protected from discriminatory treatment at the hands of solicitors instructing them - solicitors must not discriminate by subjecting them to a detriment, harass, or victimise them

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50
Q

What is positive action?

A

action taken to address the disadvantages suffered by those who share a protected characteristic that results in less favourable treatment of those who do not share that characteristic
*there is no requirement for positive action to be taken, but if it is, the following criteria must be met:
*(a) firm must reasonable think: person who share the PC suffer a disadvantage connected to the characteristics; persons who share the PC have needs that are different from the needs of those who do not share it; or, participation in an activity by persons who share a protected characteristic is disproportioantely low
*(b) action must be proportionate to achieving (i) enabling/encouraging persons who share the PC to overcome or minimise disadvantage, (ii) meeting those needs, or (iii) enabling/encouraging persons who share the PC to participate in that activity

in relation to recruitment and promotion, where the person with the PC is as qualified as the others - positive action can be used as a tie-breaker

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51
Q

When can you carry on a regulated activity in the UK? + what are the consequences of breach?

A

when authorised or exempt
*breach is a criminal offence and penalty is up to 2 years’ imprisonment or unlimited fine
*breach will also render unenforceable any resulting agreement

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52
Q

What is the test for a regulated activity?

A

(1) are you in business?
(2) is there a specified investment, or does the specified activity relate to information about a person’s financial standing or administering a benchmark?
(3) is there a specified activity?
(4) is there an exclusion?

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53
Q

What are specified investments?

A

*shares, stocks, debentures, loan stock, bonds, government securities, insurance contracts, regulated mortgage contracts, home reversion/home purchase plans/deposits, credit agreements

*key exclusions: interests in land, shares in the share capital of open-ended investment companies or building societies incorporated in the UK, National Savings products

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54
Q

What are the types of specified activities?

A

(1) dealing as agent [i.e. dealing on behalf of a client + committing the client to transactions]
(2) arranging [solicitor involved as the contact between client and life company/stockbroker]
(3) managing [active participation + applies only to discretionary management]
(4) safeguarding
(5) advising - on the specific investement (cf general advice on respective merits of investing in shares rather than making a deposit with the bank)
(6) lending money on/administering a regulated mortgage contract

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55
Q

What is the exclusion of introducing?

A

solicitor simply introduces client to an authorised person and has no further role in this aspect of the client’s matter - cannot act as a means of communication between client and ATP (this would be arranging)

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56
Q

What is the exclusion of using an authorised third party?

A

where transaction is to be entered into based on the advice of an ATP
*solicitor retains an ongoing role
exclusion not available if the solicitor receives from any person other than the client any pecuniary award or other advantage arising out of the client entering the transaction, for which the solicitor does not account to the client

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57
Q

What is the exclusion of execution-only?

A

advice has not been sought from the solicitor (negative requirement)
*e.g. client has a clear idea of what they want, does not ask for advice on merties - common: client is an investor
exclusion not available if the solicitor receives from any person other than the client any pecuniary award or other advantage arising out of the client entering the transaction, for which the solicitor does not account to the client

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58
Q

What is the exclusion of acting as trustee/personal representative?

A

*available when a member of the firm is a trustee/PR but activity is actually carried out by other members of the firm
*exclusion does not apply if solicitor is remunerated for what is done in addition to any remuenration received as trustee/PR - however remuneration calculated by reference to time spent is permitted

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59
Q

What is the professional/necessary exclusion?

A

*when it is not possible for the other services of the professional to be provided unless the regulated activity is also provided
*exclusion is not available if activity is remunerated separately

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60
Q

What is the take-over exclusion?

A

*concerned with a transaction to acquire or dispose of shares in a body corporate or for a transaction entered into for the purposes of such an acquisition/disposal:
(a) shares must consist of or include 50% or more of the voting shares in the body, and
(b) acquisition/disposal is between parties each of whom is a body corporate, a partnership, a single individual, or a group of connected individuals
*can meet 50% threshold by adding together shares already held and to be acquired
*even if the criteria has not been strictly met, exclusion can still apply if it is shown that the object of the transaction is reasonably regarded as being the acquisition of day-to-day control of the affairs of the body corporate

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61
Q

What are the applicable exclusions for dealing as agent?

A

ATP, execution-only, professional/necessary, takeover

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62
Q

What are the applicable exclusions for advising?

A

professional/necessary, acting as trustee/PR, takeover

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63
Q

What are the applicable exclusions for managing?

A

acting as trustee/PR [exclusion is not available if solicitor holds themselves out as providing a service comprising of managing]

64
Q

What are the applicable exclusions for safeguarding?

A

professional/necessary, acting as trustee/PR [latter exclusion is not available if solicitor holds themselves out as providing a service comprising safeguarding]

65
Q

What are the applicable exclusions for arranging?

A

introducing, ATP, execution-only, professional/necessary, acting as trustee/PR, takeover

66
Q

What exclusions can be applied in relation to insurance contracts/taking up or pursuing insurance distribution?

A

none

67
Q

What is the professional firms exemption under section 327 FSMA 2000?

A

firms that do not carry out mainstream financial services, but which undertake regulated activites in the course of other work, may be exempt from having to obtain authority from the Financial Conduct Authority where the firm is regulated and supervised by a designated professional body - e.g. SRA

68
Q

When will the professional exemption apply?

A

(1) firm must not receive from a person other than its client any pecuniary or other advantage arising out of the activity which it does not account to its client
(2) manner or providing any service in the course of carrying on the activities must be incidental to the provision
*specific incidental test: relevant regulated activity must arise out of, or be complimentary to, the provision of a particular professional service to a particular (same) client
*general incidental test: activities carried out by the firm which would otherwise be regulated cannot be a major part of the firm’s activities - consider proportion of firm’s income, advertisement by the firm, whether the exempted regulated activities are held out as separate services
(3) firm must only carry out regulated activities permitted by the designated professional body
(4) activities must not be prohibited by an order made by the Treasury
*recommending to a client to dispose of any rights the client has under a personal pension scheme, advising a client to become a member of a particular Lloyd’s syndicate, creating or underwriting a contract of insurance
(5) firm must not already be authorised by the FCA - e.g. concerning defined regulated activities

*exemption allows law firm to carry out work which fall under Part 20 FSMA

69
Q

What should a firm do if it wishes to undertake insurance distribution activities?

A

notify the SRA, be registered in the Financial Services Register and have an appointed insurance distribution officer who will be responsible for such activities

70
Q

What SRA Rules must be complied with by a firm seeking to use the professional firms exemption?

A

(1) SRA Code of Conduct
(2) SRA Financial Services (Scope) Rules

71
Q

In pursuant to SRA Financial Services (Scope) Rules, what information must a firm give to its clients?

A

*information concerning status: that it is not authorised by the FCA
*explain that complaints and redress mechanisms are procided through the SRA and Legal Ombudsman
*information must be clear, fair, and not misleading

72
Q

What is the rule on best execution?

A

to act in the client’s best interest and carry out transactions as soon as possible

73
Q

What records must the firm keep to comply with the rules?

A

*instructions from clients to carry out transactions and instructions to third parties to carry them out
*records of commissions received relating to regulated activities + how those commissions were dealt with

74
Q

What specific obligations are imposed on firms acting for an execution-only client and investment concerns a retail investment product?

A

*send a letter to the client confirming that the client is not relying on the solicitor’s advice + firm must keep a copy of this letter
products = life policies, unit trusts, stakeholder, personal pension schemes, contract for insurance

75
Q

What is consumer credit activity and when will these arrangements be regarded as exempt under RAO 2001?

A

*new type of regulated activity
*e.g. credit brokerage, debt collecting under a consumer credit or hire agreement, debt advice and debt management or administration
*for arrangement to be exempt: number of repayments cannot exceed 12, payment term cannot exceed 12 months + credit is provided without interests or other charges

76
Q

What is the test for financial promotion?

A

(1) are you in business?
(2) are you making an invitation or inducement?
(3) in connection with an investment?
(4) in connection with an investment activity? [THIS IS NOT SPECIFIED ACTIVITY]
*e.g. advising PR to sell deceased’s assets could be an invitation to deal in investments if the estate includes shares

v easily caught! - solicitor communicates an invitation/inducement to engage in investment activity

77
Q

What are the types of communication?

A

real-time [meeting or over phone] + non-real-time [email, letters, brochure]

78
Q

What general exemptions can be applied?

A

*trustee/PR
*takeover of body corporate

79
Q

What is the exemption for exempt professional firms? [real-time promotion]

A

permitted if:
(a) client has, prior to communication being made, engaged the solicitor to provide professional services
(b) where the controlled activity to which the communication relates is exempt because of the exemption for professional firms, or is excluded form being a regulated activity by the necessary exclusion, and [activity of introducing]
(c) the activity to which the financial promotion relates would be undertaken for the purposes of, and be incidental to, the provision of professional services to or at the request of the recipient [investment activity]

80
Q

What is the exemption for exempt professional firms? [non-real-time promotion]

A

include following statement in communication: “this [firm/company] is not authorised under FSMA 2000 but we are able in certain circumstances to offer a limited range of investment services to clients because we are members of [relevant designated professional body]. We can provide these investment services if they are an incidental part of the professional services we have been engaged to provide”

81
Q

What is the exemption for one-off promotions?

A

non-real time or solicited real-time communications exempt if solicitor has reasonable grounds to believe:
(a) client understands the risks associated with engaging in the investment activity to which the financial promotion relates, and
(b) at the time of communication, client would expect to be contacted by the solicitor in relation to that investment
*solicited = communication initiated by the client or takes place in response to an express request from the recipient of the communication

82
Q

What is the exemption for introducers?

A

(1) ATP being introduced is not a close relative of the solicitor
(2) solicitor does not receive other than from the client any pecuniary reward or other advantage arising out of making the introduction
(3) client is not seeking and has not sought advice from the solicitor as to the merits of engaging in the investment activity - or when they have, solicitor declined to give advice

83
Q

Who is subject to the 2017 Money Laundering Regulations?

A

persons acting in the course of businesses carried out in the UK, including independent legal professions: “a firm or sole practitioner who by way of business provides legal or notarial services to other persons, when particiapting in financial or real property transactions”

84
Q

What must a beneficial owner, officer, or manager of a firm do in respect of the Regulations and SRA’s supervisory role?

A

apply for approval - i.e. firm undertakes to be subject to money laundering regulations
*approval must be granted unless applicant has been convicted of a “relevant offence”: i.e. offences under previous money laundering legislation, Terrorism Act, any offence which has deception or dishonesty as one of its components

acting without approval is a criminal offence and may reuslt in imprisonment and/or fine

85
Q

What is a firm required to do under Regulation 18 on risk assessments?

A

a firm is required to take appropriate steps to identify and assess the risk of the firm being used for money laundering
*SRA may ask to see a firm’s risk assessment + SRA takes a proactive approach and has indicated its determination to take enforcement action against a firm where the risk assessment is inadequate or where firm does not have a risk assessment in place at all
*risk assessment on services offered, how they are delivered, nature of firm’s clients, industries which they operate in

86
Q

What is a firm required to do on AML policies?

A

a firm is required to establish and maintain anti-money laundering policies, controls, and procedures to mitigate and manage effectively the money laundering and terrorist financing risks identified in its risk assessment
*policies, controls, and procedures must be proportionate to the firm’s size and nature and approved by its senior management
*controls established and maintained must enable the firm to respond fully and rapidly to enquiries from law enforcement as to whether it maintains or has maintained during the past 5 years, a business relationship with any person and the nature of that relationship

+ a firm must establish an independent audit function to examine, evaluate, make recommendations, and monitor the firm’s policies, controls, and procedures adopted to comply with Regulations

87
Q

What officers must/may a firm appoint under Regulation 21?

A

*all firms must appoint a nominated officer (often referred to Money Laundering Reporting Officer) - they will receive reports from the firm concerning any instances of suspected money laundering and liaise with the National Crime Agency when necessary
*position of MLRO may be accepted by anyone who possess experience and understanding of financial crime [no seniority requirements per se, but they should be sufficiently senior in the firm to have a voice of authority and the final say on whether a report should be made to the NCA]
*SRA must be informed when the holders of the MLRO role changes within 14 days of new appointment

*firms must appoint a Money Laundering Compliance Officer if this is appropriate having regard to the size and nature of the firm + they will act as SRA’s main point of contact on anti-money laundering issues
*MLCO must be a member of the board of directors or, if there is no board, of its senior management - e.g. partner, director, LLP member, an individual who has sufficient authority to take decisions and exercise control over the management of the business
*SRA must be informed when the holders of the MLCO role changes within 14 days of new appointment

88
Q

What is a firm required to do in relation to screening of employees?

A

there must be screening of relevant employees prior to and during the course of their employment to assess their skills, knowledge, conduct, and integrity
*relevant employees = those whose work in the firm is relevant to compliance with Regulations, or otherwise contribute towards identification, prevention, and detection of money laundering and terrorist financing

89
Q

When must customer due diligence measures be applied?

A

*client and solicitor agree to form a business relationship
*when carrying out an occasional transaction (i.e. not as part of business relationship) that amounts to a transfer of funds exceeding €1,000
*when carrying out an occassional transaction that amounts to €15,000 or more whether the transaction is exectued in a single operation or in several operations which appear to be linked
*where solicitor suspects money laundering or terrorist financing
*where solicitor doubts the veracity or adequacy of documents or information supplied to verify the client’s identity

90
Q

When must a firm obtain verification of client’s identity if customer due diligence measures are applicable?

A

verification is required as soon as possible after first contact and make take place before a business relationship is established or the carrying out of the transaction

a solicitor may verify identity during establishment of business relationship if:
(a) there is little risk of any money laundering or terrorist financing occuring,
(b) it is necessary not to interrupt the normal conduct of business, and
(c) the identity is verified as soon as practicable after contact is first established

*if solicitor is unable to complete verification in time, they cannot carry out transaction with or for the client through a bank account, establish a business relationship, or carry out a transaction otherwise than through a bank account - must termiante business relationship and consider making disclosure to NCA

91
Q

What does standard due diligence involve where client is a natural person?

A

*verify identify of client on the basis of documents or information obtained from a reliable source which is independent of the person whose identity is being verified
*guidance approved by HM Treasury - good practice to have either (1) one gov document which verifies either person’s name and address, or person’s name and DOB or (2) a gov document which verifies full name, plus another supporting document verifying person’s name and either address or DOB
*ideally have sight of original documents, but permissible to rely on copies when this can be justified based on risk assessment

92
Q

What does standard due diligence involve where client is a non-limited liability partnership?

A

*obtain information on the constituent individuals who make up the partnership
but, if partnership is well-known and reputable with long histories and substantial public information about them, it should be sufficient to obtain name, registered or trading address, and nature of business

93
Q

What does standard due diligence involve where client is a company?

A

*verify existence: name, company number or other registration, registered office and principal place of business
*reasonable measures are to be taken to obtain and verify the law to which the company is subject to, its constitution and other governing documents, and name of directors and senior persons
proof of registration must be collected before establishing business relationship (an excerpt may suffice) + there is an obligation placed on UK body corporate to provide the above information on request when it forms a business relationship with a firm (but you should consider whether the person providing information on behalf of company has authority to do so)
*need to ascertain identity of beneficial owners: any individual who exercises ultimate control over the management of the body corporate, any individual who holds more than 25% of shares/voting rights, any individual who controls the body corporate

if there is a parent company, a risk-based decision should be taken as to whether to make further enquiries, but common for law firms to seek to identify the beneficial owners of any parent company up to and including the ultimate parent entity

94
Q

What does simplified due diligence involve?

A

*solicitor may not need to obtain information on beneficial owners - but exact verification depends on the identity of the client
*simplified DD is permitted where it is determined that the business relationship or transaction presents a low risk of money laundering or terrorist financing - consider e.g. whether client is a company listed on a regulated market and the location of the regulated market, geographical risk factors, whether the client is a credit institution or financial institution which is subject to requirements in national legislation implementing 4th money laundering directive as an obliged entity and supervised for compliance [none of the factors are conclusive]
*solicitor must obtain evidence that the transaction and client are eligible for simplified due diligence

95
Q

When should enhanced due diligence take place and what does it involve?

A

when there is something about an arrangement or transaction which creates a high risk of money laundering:
*case has been identified as one where there is a high risk in firm’s risk assessment or in the information made available by SRA/Law Society
*client or counterpart to transaction is in a high-risk third county as defined in 2017 Regulations
*client has provided false or stolen identification documentation or information and the solicitor has decided to continue dealing with client
*client is a potentially exposed person or a family member or known close associate of PEP - these are individuals entrusted with prominent public functions (excludes middle-ranking or junior officials): Heads of State, head of government, ministers and deputy/assistant ministers, members of Parliament, members of supreme/constitutional courts or other high-level judicial bodies whose decisions are not generally subject to further appeal, members of courts of auditors or of the boards of central banks, ambassadors, high-ranking officers in armed forces, members of administrative/management/supervisory bodies in State-owned enterprises + family members: spouse, civil partner, children, children’s spouses/civil partners
*a transaction is complex or unusually large, or there is an unusual pattern of transactions, or the transaction has no apparent economic/legal purpose
*other situations of higher risk: e.g. where business relationship is conducted in unusual circumstances (not face-to-face) or payments will be received from unknown or associated third parties

solicitor must take measures to examine the background and purpose of the transaction + consider whether it is appropriate to obtain further independent verification of the client’s or beneficial owner’s identity or more details on ownership, control structure, and financial situation of client + ongoing enhanced monitoring

96
Q

What steps need to be taken before acting where there is a money laundering risk due to a PEP?

A

need approval of senior management to act + take adequate measures to establish source of wealth and funds + conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring

97
Q

What is the purpose of the obligation of ongoing monitoring?

A

ensure transactions are consistent with solicitor’s knowledge of client

98
Q

What are the training obligations imposed on firms under Regulation 24?

A

firms are obliged to provide and maintain a record of training to their employees in respect of money laundering:
*employees to be aware of the law relating to money laundering and terrorist financing + to the requirements of data protection relating to them
*employees should be given regular training on how to recognise and deal with transactions that potentially involve money laundering
*appropriate methods of delivering training include face-to-face learning or e-learning + legal sector guidance recommends the use of a staff manual on money laundering issues

99
Q

What record-keeping obligations are imposed on firms?

A

firms to keep any documents and information obtained by solicitor to satisfy customer DD requirement + supporting documents in respect of a transaction which is the subject of DD measures or ongoing monitoring - these must be kept for at least 5 years from end of business relationship/occasional transaction

100
Q

What are the elements and consequences of a finding of the corporate offence of failure to prevent the criminal facilitation of tax evasion?

A

*strict liability: no knowledge or intention is required on the part of the firm or its senior management
*only defence available is that firm had in place reasonable prevention procedures or is able to show that it was reasonable not to have procedures in place
*penalty for breach is unlimited fines + confiscation of assets may be ordered

101
Q

What should a firm do if it is known or reasonably suspected that a person is a designated person or has committed offences under financial sanctions and asset freezing regimes?

A

inform the Office of Financial Sanctions Implementation
+ if the firm wants to act for such a person, it must obtain a licence to receive reasonable fees for provision of legal advice

102
Q

What is the offence of arranging under POCA 2002?

A

a person commits an offence if he (a) enters into or becomes concerned in an arrangement which (b) he knows or suspects facilitates the acquisition, retention, use, or control of (c) criminal property by or on behalf of another person
*v wide - encompasses virtually any act which assists in the process of money laundering by another person
*“know or suspect”: test is subjective - suspecting means defendant thinks there is a possiblity, which is more than fanciful, that the relevant facts exist (vague feeling of unease will not suffice, but there is no requirement that suspicion be grounded/targeted on specific facts)
*criminal property: person’s direct or indirect benefit from criminal conduct + proceeds of criminal conduct committed abroad will come within the definition of criminal property if the conduct would have been criminal if it occured in the UK
*taking steps in litigation are excluded, unless litigation was a sham created for the purposes of money laundering

an individual convicted for arranging may receive a max sentence of 14 years’ imprisonment

103
Q

What defences are available to escape liability for arranging?

A

authorised disclosure
*disclosure must be made by the person who, but for the disclosure, would be committing an offence
*disclosure must be made to a constable, an officer of HMRC or a nominated officer (MLRO) - it is for the nominated officer to exercise their own judgment in deciding whether the matter should be passed on to the NCA (through a suspicious activity report)
*complete defence where there has been an authorised disclosure (within the appropraite time limits) and appropriate consent: nominated officer is unable to give consent until:
*(a) nominated officer, having made a disclosure to NCA, receives consent from NCA
*(b) nominated officer, having made a disclosure to NCA, hears nothing for 7 working days
*(c) where consent is refused by NCA, nomianted officer may not give consent unless consent is subsequently granted within 31 days starting on the day refusal is given, or a period of 31 days has expired from the date of refusal (31 days = moratorium period for NCA to investigate + seize assets/take action)

overseas defence: individual knew or believed that the criminal conduct occurred abroad and conduct is lawful in the country where it took place (Secretary of State has the power to override this defence)

104
Q

What is the time frame for an authorised disclosure prior to transaction?

A

disclosure is made as soon as is practically possible prior to the transaction taking place

105
Q

What is the time frame for an authorised disclosure when prohibited act is ongoing?

A

*when solicitor began to do the act, they did not know or suspect that the property constituted or represented a person’s benefit from criminal conduct
*disclosure is made as soon as practicable after the solicitor first knows or suspects that the property constitutes or represents a person’s benefit from criminal conduct + disclosure is made on the solicitor’s own initiative

106
Q

What is the time frame for an authorised disclosure after prohibited act is complete?

A

there must be a good reason for failure to disclose prior + disclosure must be as soon as practicable and at the solicitor’s own initiative

107
Q

What defence is available to a solicitor if they intended to make an authorised disclosure but failed to do so?

A

they must have a reasonable excuse for failing to do so - this is construed narrowly: e.g. relevant information is already in the public domain

108
Q

What is the offence of acquiring, using, and possession criminal property under POCA 2002?

A

prosecution must prove:
(1) acquisition, use, or possession of criminal property (e.g. solicitor receiving money for costs for work carried out for the client charged with a criminal offence = there is a possibility that the money in question is criminal property), and
(2) defendant had the necessary knowledge or suspicion that the property represented a benefit from criminal conduct

an individual convicted for acquiring, using, and possession criminal property may receive a max sentence of 14 years’ imprisonment

109
Q

What defences are available to escape liability for acquisition, use, and possession?

A

(1) authorised disclosure
(2) overseas defence
(3) adequate consideration:
*consideration will not be adequate if the value of the consideration is significantly less than the value of the property (e.g. value of work done by solicitor v fees)
*the provision by a person of goods or services which he knows or suspects may help another carry out criminal conduct is not consideration

110
Q

What is the offence of concealing under POCA 2002? + what defences are available?

A

*it is an offence to conceal, disguise, convert, or transfer criminal property or remove it from England, Wales, Scotland, or Northern Ireland
*authorised disclosure and overseas defence available

111
Q

What is the offence of failure to disclose under POCA 2002?

A

a person commits an offence if
(a) he knows or suspects, or has reasonable grounds to know or suspect (objective test as those working in regulated sectors are expected to maintain greater vigilance and employ higher standards of care), that a person is engaging in money laundering
(b) information comes to him in the course of a business in the regulated sector
(c) information may assist in identifying the money launderer or the location of any laundered property (court will consider whether it would have been reasonably to expect the solicitor to believe that information would assist)
(d) he does not make a disclosure as soon as is practicable:
*disclosure to be made to nominated officer or NCA
*disclosure must comprise the reasons behind the solicitor’s knowledge or suspicions and, so far as is possible, the identity of the money launderer and the whereabouts of the laundered property
*no offence will be committed where the solicitor intended to make a disclosure but had a reasonable excuse for not doing so

individual convicted for failure to disclose may receive a max sentence of 5 years’ imprisonment

112
Q

What defences are available to escape liability for failure to disclose?

A

(1) training defence: firms undertaking relevant business are obliged to provide AML training to their employees - therefore when they haven’t, employee will not commit an offence where they did not know or suspect that a client is engaged in money laundering but there were reasonable grounds to believe so
(2) legal professional privilege defence: e.g. information provided in connection with giving or seeking advice or in relation to legal proceedings - however, will not apply where information is communicated with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose
(3) overseas defence

113
Q

What offence may a nominated officer commit under POCA?

A

nominated officer may commit the offence of failure to disclose if they know or suspect, or have reasonable grounds to know or suspect money laundering, as a consequence of their role as person nominated to receive disclosures under s.330, and fail to make the necessary disclosure to NCA as soon as pracitcable (reasonable excuse defence available)

114
Q

What is the offence of tipping off?

A

*there is NO requirement to show that the tipping off was intended to alter the money launderer or intended to prejudice any investigation
*information on which disclosure is made must have come to the person in the course of a business in the regulated sector
(offence 1): disclosing a disclosure
(offence 2): disclosing that an investigation into allegations that an offence under POCA has been committed is being carried out or contemplated
+ disclosure is likely to prejudice any investigation

offences carry a max penalty of an unlimited fine and/or max prison sentence of 2 years

115
Q

What defences are available to escape liability for tipping off?

A

(1) person who made the disclosure did not know or suspect that it would prejudice an investigation - e.g. solicitor informs client about an investigation believing that client will fully cooperate with authorities (v rare)
(2) disclosure is made by an adviser to their client for the purposes of dissuading the client from engaging in the alleged money laundering

116
Q

What is the offence of prejudicing investigation?

A

*similar to tipping off but extends to non-regulated individuals: a person will commit an offence if they know or suspect that a money laundering investigation has or is about to be commenced and they make a material disclosure to any person which is likely to prejudice the investigation or interfere with relevant material

117
Q

What warning signs does the SRA require solicitors/firms to be able to spot (i.e. indicators of money laundering)?

A

(1) client: personality/nature - e.g. is the client secretive/avoiding personal contact/refusing to provide information or documents?
(2) funding: suspicious if large cash payment, unexplained payments from third party, loans from non-institutional lenders, use of multiple accounts or foreign accounts
(3) transaction: look for unusual features - e.g. loss making, repetitive instructions, unexplained urgency, no obvious commercial purpose, litigation which is settled too easily or quickly
(4) unusual instructions: outside of solicitor’s area of expertise, client is not local to the firm, there is no explanation as to why the firm has been chosen, client is willing to pay high fees, client appears unconcerned about the transaction itself
(5) geographical concerns

118
Q

What is the effect of agreeing to complete work for a fixed fee?

A

provides certainty but cannot be altered at a later date unless the client agrees

119
Q

When can a solicitor bring an action to recover costs due?

A

after one month from the date on which a bill of those costs is delivered - bill must be signed and delivered (to the party to be charged personally, left at place of business, dwelling-house or last known place of abode, or by means of electronic commmunications network)

120
Q

When can a party chargable with the bill apply for its assessment?

A

before the expiration of one month from the delivery of a solicitor’s bill - High Court shall, without requiring any sum to be paid into court, order that bill be assessed and that no action be commenced on the bill until the assessment is complete
*if application is not made before expiration, the court may assess as it thinks fit + order that no action be commenced on the bill and that any action already commenced be stayed until the assessment is complete
*after expiration of 12 months from the delivery of bill or after a judgment has been obtained for the recovery of the costs, no order shall be made except in special circumstances

121
Q

What is the effect of entering into contentious and non-contentious business agreements?

A

to a large extent, they preclude assessment of the sums claimed for work undertaken by solicitor - i.e. effectively waiving right to statutory assessment
*except: where remuneration is agreed by reference to an hourly rate for contentious work
*+ agreement will be subject to review by the court as to whether it is reasonable

122
Q

What is the difference between contentious and non-contentious work?

A

*contentious: business done, whether as a solicitor or advocate, in or for the purposes of proceedings begun before a court or an arbitrator
*non-contentious: any other work - includes pre-action (work done on potential litigation)
[distinction has been criticised for being outdated and illogical + in urgent need of legislative attention]

123
Q

What are the formalities for creating an enforceable non-contentious business agreement?

A

*agreement must be in writing, signed by the client, contain all terms of the agreement (including whether disbursements and VAT are included in the agreed remuneration)

124
Q

What are the formalities for creating an enforceable contentious business agreement?

A

*agreement must state it is a contentious business agreement, be in writing, signed by client, contain all terms
*agreement cannot provide for remuneration by a contingency fee

125
Q

What is the rule on costs for contentious business done in County Court?

A

amount which may be allowed on the assessment of any costs or bill of costs shall not exceed the amount which could have been allowed in respect of that item as between party and party in those proceedings (i.e. solicitor is limited to the costs recovered from the other side) - unless solicitor and client have a written agreement

126
Q

What are conditional fee agreements?

A

an agreement with a person providing advocacy or litigation services which provides for his fees and expenses, or any part of them, to be payable only in specified circumstances (i.e. whether or not the client is success with a claim or successfully defends a claim)
*solicitor receives no payment, or less than normal payment, if case is lost / receives normal, or more than normal, payment if client is successful

127
Q

What are the formalities for creating an enforceable conditional fee agreement?

A

(1) entered into in relation to a civil litigation matter - other than family proceedings
(2) made in writing
(3) state success fee [cannot exceed 100% of solicitor’s normal charges + for personal injury cases, cap of 25% of the general damages recovered]
*CFA cannot be entered into with an expert witness as expert’s evidence must be impartial

128
Q

What should a solicitor consider before entering into a CFA?

A

*assess the chances of the client succeeding on liability
*likely amount of damages
*length of time it will take for the case to reach trial + number of hours the solicitor is likely to have to spend on the case
*success fee should not be set arbitrarily or automatically set at the highest level (it is traditionally set in relation to litigation risk as reasonably percevied by the solicitor or counsel at the time the agreement was made)
*client must have given informed consent (not possible e.g. if success fee was applied as standard without ay account being taken of the individual risks in the client’s case)

129
Q

If the client wins, will its opponent be ordered to pay the success fee?

A

no

130
Q

What are damage-based agreements?

A

an agreement between person providing advocacy services, litigation services or claim management servces and the recipient of those services which provides that:
*recipient is to make a payment to the person providing the services if the recipient obtains a specified financial benefit in connection with the matter in relation to which the services are provided
*amount of that payment is to be determined by reference to the amount of the financial benefit obtained

131
Q

Who can enter into a DBA?

A

claimant and counter-claiming defendant

132
Q

What are the caps for DBA?

A

*DBA must not provide for a payment above an amount which, including VAT and counsel fees, is equal to 50% of the sums ultimately recovered by the client
(cap does not apply to appeal proceedings)
*cap for personal injury: 25% of general damages received for pain, suffering, loss of amenity and damages for pecuniary loss
*cap for employment cases: 35%

133
Q

What are the formalities for creating an enforceable damages-based agreement?

A

(1) in writing
(2) specify the proceedings to which the agreement relates
(3) circumstances in which fee is payable and reason for setting the fee at the level
*if DBA is adjudged unenforceable, client will not have to pay solicitor anything

134
Q

When would a DBA be viable?

A

*entering into a DBA represents a considerable risk - only viable where the solicitor is confident that client will succeed and opponent will pay both the damages and costs from which the solicitor’s fees will be taken

135
Q

What is after-the-event insurance (ATE)?

A

insurance taken out after dispute has arisen + cover provided will be specific to the case and client’s needs (e.g. opponent’s costs/own disbursements)
[commonly taken out in conjunction with CFAs]

136
Q

When would a ATE be offered + will the premiums paid be recoverable by the client if it wins?

A

*ATE will only be offered where the insurer is confident in the success of the case (typically look for 60% success) + it may be expensive to obtain
*premiums paid are NOT recoverable from the other side by way of costs

137
Q

What is third party/litigation funding?

A

where someone, with no other connection to the case, agrees to fund the costs of litigation - agreement will be valid in the absence of some kind of impropriety or wrongdoing
*aimed to cover the client’s own costs and disbursements + court may order the funder to pay all the opponent’s costs from the date of funding agreement

138
Q

When can a firm carry out legal aid work?

A

when it has a contract with Legal Aid Agency which covers the type of work relevant to the client’s case

139
Q

What additional duties are placed on firms/solicitors carrying out legal aid work?

A

*firms are subject to an annual audit by LAA to ensure their files are being run properly and that firm’s case management systems are working correctly
*solicitor must inform court and other parties that the client has the benefit of legal aid
*solicitor must inform Legal Aid Agency if the client acts unreasonably or has given inaccurate or misleading information to LAA
[duty to LAA overrides solicitor’s duty of confidentiality to client]

140
Q

What should a solicitor consider when first instructed by client in relation to legal aid?

A

*solicitor must consider whether client might be eligible from outset + if solicitor does not undertake legal aid work themselves but is of the view that the client may be entitled to legal aid, solicitor should inform the client accordingly and, if necessary, tell the client to seek other advice

141
Q

What are the 3 forms of civil services?

A

(1) legal help: covers solicitor giving basic advice and limited steps following on from that e.g. drafting a letter (but does NOT extend to issuing court proceedings)
(2) help at court: covers advice and assistance, including advocacy - work must be in relation to a particular hearing rather than representation in the case generally
(3) legal representation: available to a client who is a party to proceedings or who is contemplating starting proceedings + it can cover the conduct of the client’s case, if necessary, up to and including representation before the court
*LR granted on investigative basis: covers solicitor’s work in assessing strength of claim
*LR granted on full basis: covers the issuing and conduct of proceedings, including advocacy at the final hearing

142
Q

What is the difference between controlled and licensed work?

A

*controlled: it is for the solicitor to determine the client’s Legal Aid eligibility (help at court + legal help)
*licensed: it is authorised by Legal Aid Agency on a case-by-case basis (legal representation)

143
Q

How can Legal Representation be obtained?

A

*in most cases, an application must be made to LAA and if successful, LAA will issue a legal aid certificate (this may include limitations to restrict the scope of the representation and/or set a maximum amount that it will pay for legal fees - if case requires more work, solicitor must apply for an amendment to the certificate and/or an increase to the costs limitation)
*can be obtained on an emergency basis where the client is in urgent need of legal advice/assistance: e.g. facing imminent homelessness or under threat of domestic violence

144
Q

What is the 3-stage test for determining whether a client is eligible under the civil Legal Aid scheme?

A

(1) case must normally be of a specified type [outside scope if circumstances are exceptional - i.e. LAA must be satisfied that refusal of legal aid would be a breach of the client’s human rights: v high threshold]
(2) merits (of case) test
(3) means test (i.e. client’s financial circumstances)

145
Q

What specified types of cases fall within the scope of civil legal aid?

A

*with limited exceptions, negligence claims for personal injury, divorce and family disputes about children are excluded
*legal aid not available for matters arising out of the carrying on of a business
*usually not available for cases that could be financed by a CFA

  • remains available where client faces homelessness, family cases where client is the victim of domestic abuse, cases in which the client has been subject to discrimination, immigration cases, care proceedings
146
Q

What is the merits test for legal help & help at court?

A

legal aid will only be available if there is a sufficient benefit to the client, having regard to the circumstances of the case, including the client’s personal circumstances, to justify the work being carried out

147
Q

What is the merits test for legal representation?

A

depends on the client’s prospect of success - generally, legal representation will not be granted if prospects are assessed at less than 50%
+ specific merits test:
(a) for monetary claim: damages likely to be received will be balanced against likely costs involved
(b) for non-monetary claim: test is whether the benefits to be gained justify the likely cost such that a reasonable privately paying client would be prepared to proceed

148
Q

What is the means test under the civil Legal Aid scheme?

A

(1) capital not to exceed £8,000 (£3,000 for immigration cases)
(2) income:
*(a) client’s gross monthly income must be less than £2,657, and
*(b) client’s monthly disposable income (having taken into account client’s family circumstances and basic living expenses) must be less than £733
- a client in receipt of welfare benefits (universal credit, income support, income-based job seeker’s allowance, guarantee credit element of pension credit) automatically meets income test

*capital and income used for test should include resources of any partner

149
Q

When may a client be ordered to make a contribution towards their legal fees under the civil Legal Aid scheme?

A

for licensed work, if client’s monthly disposal income is above £315 or their capital above £3,000
*contribution will be from income and take form of monthly payments

150
Q

What is the statutory charge?

A

*if a publicly funded client receives financial provision as a result of a case, any property he receives or preserves as a result of those proceedings can be taken by the Legal Aid Agency and applied in payment of his solicitor’s fees [this will be used after applying money paid pursuant to a costs order made in the client’s favour]
*if property recovered is client’s home, LAA may agree to postpone enforcement of statutory charge (charge will be protected by registration)

151
Q

How are solicitors remunerated for work done at the police station?

A

*anyone attending at the police station is entitled to free legal advice
*solicitor claims under Police Station Advice and Assistance Scheme + they will receive a fixed fee regardless of nature of case and time actually spent

152
Q

What is a duty solicitor?

A

*solicitors available to advise any defendant who does not have their own solicitor but who requires legal advice and/or representation in magistrates’ court
*they will claim costs under Advocacy Assistance (Court Duty Solicitory) Scheme
*they way not refuse instructions on the basis that to do so would be unremunerative

153
Q

What is the 2-stage test for determining whether a client is eligible under the criminal Legal Aid scheme?

A

(1) client must demonstrate that it is in the interests of justice for them to receive public funding to cover the costs of their legal representation
(2) means test

154
Q

What is the interest of justice test?

A

factors to consider:
*whether individual would, if any matter arising in the proceedings is decided against them, be likely to lose their liberty, livelihood, or suffer serious damage to their reputation
*whether determination of any matter arising in the proceedings may involve consideration of a substantial question of law
*whether individual may be unable to understand the proceedings or to state their own case
*whether the proceedings may involve the tracing, interview, or expert cross-exmination of the witnesses on behalf of the individual
*whether it is in the interests of another person that the individual be represented

test is automatically met if client is under 18 and in the case of Crown Court trials

155
Q

When would it be unnecessary to satisfy the means test in order to be entitled to legal aid?

A

*where client is under 18
*where client receives welfare benefits: universal credit, income support, guaranteed state pension credit

156
Q

What is adjusted income and how does this determine whether a full means test is required?

A

*adjusted income: takes client’s gross annual income and divides it by a set figure according to client’s family circumstances
(1) Crown Court: client is eligible for aid if AI is £12,475 or less + otherwise full means test
(2) magistrates’: client is eligible for aid if AI is £12,475 of less; full means test if more than £12,475 and less than £22,325; not eligible if AI is £22,325 or more

157
Q

What does the full means test involve?

A

*takes account of client’s family circumstances and involves the deduction of some essential expenses from the client’s income: mortgage repayments, rent - to produce client’s disposal income
(1) magistrates’: to be entitled, client must have an annual disposal income of £3,398 or less
(2) Crown Court: if client has disposal income of £3,399-£37,499, means test may determine that client can afford to make some contribution to legal fees (max 6 months)