BLP Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 main business mediums?

A

(1) sole trader [unincorporated]
(2) general partnership [unincorporated]
(3) limited liability partnership
(4) private company
(5) public company

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of a limited partnership?

A

at lease one general partner has unlimited liability for the partnerships debts + there can be one limited partner whose liability is limited to the amount they initially invested in the company
*limited partner must not control or manage the partnership, have the power to take binding decisions on behalf of the limited partnership, remove their contribution to the limited partnership for as long as it is in business
*must be registered at Registrar of Companies
[rare in modern business practice]

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3
Q

What are the main advantages of being a company?

A

(1) separate legal personality: personal assets are safe from creditors - as long as a company is legally incorporated, it must be treated like any other independent person with rights and liabilities (this protects directors)
(2) limited liability: the liability of an individual who owns shares in the company is limited to the amount they paid or agreed to pay for their shares (therefore if a shareholder has not paid up the whole value of their shares, company can call for all or the remaining share capital contribution to be paid) [may be liable to contribute if wrongdoing]

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4
Q

When would the corporate veil be pierced?

A

when a person is under an existing legal obligation or liability or subject to an existing legal restriction which he deliberately evades or whose enforcement he deliberately frustrates by interposing a company under his control - court may pierce only for the purpose of depriving the company or its controlled of the advantage that they would otherwise have obtained by the company’s separate legal personality

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5
Q

What are “one man” companies?

A

one man company: a company with one shareholder - this is a legitimate creation provided it is validly formed and complied with the formalities required by law (Salomon) + company will still standard as an independent person with its own rights and liabilities

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6
Q

What are the specific requirements for a public limited company?

A

(1) constitution must state that it is a public company
(2) name: includes “public limited company” or plc
(3) company must have allotted shares with a value of at least £50,000 (minimum share capital requirement)

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7
Q

How are limited liability partnerships run + taxed?

A

run like a general partnership, enjoys separate legal personality, members will pay income tax on their share profits made by the LLP (does not depend on distribution)

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8
Q

What are some factors to consider when advising on the best business medium?

A

(1) costs
(2) formalities
(3) ability to give charges (floating only available to incorporated entitites)
(3) disclosure - e.g. accounts and publicity of information
(4) ownership of assets/property - owned by the sole trader or members unless incorporated business (separate legal personality)
(5) international recognition - LLPs are not widely-recognised worldwide

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9
Q

How many owners/managers do you need in LLPs, private companies, public companies?

A

*LLPs: at least 2 members and 2 must be designated members (act as owners and managers)
*private limited company: shareholders are the owners - at least 1 / at least 1 director to manage
*public limited company: shareholders are owners - at least 1 / at least 2 directors to manage + 1 qualified secretary required

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10
Q

What information will be published for a sole trader?

A

*no accounting requirements
*only name and address for service must be disclosed

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11
Q

What information will be published for a general partnership?

A

*accounts must be produced but are not audited or published
*only name and address for service must be disclosed

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12
Q

What information will be published for LLPs, private companies, public companies?

A

*accounts audited and published (unless abbreviated and/or exempt for LLPs and private limited companies)
*records at Companies House open to public inspection

*directors’ residential address will not appear on the public register, but are shared with specific public authorities and credit reference agencies (directors can ask for this not to be shared, but there must be a serious risk of violence or intimidation for Companies House to accept application - e.g. company engaged in controversial activities like animal testing)

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13
Q

When does a company come into existence?

A

upon certificate of incorporation being issued - certificate (as conclusive evidence that the requirements of registration have been complied with) must state:
*name and registered number of the company
*date of company’s incorporation
*whether it is a limited or unlimited company, and if limited, whether it is limited by shares or guarantee
*whether it is a public or private company
*whether the company’s registered office is situated in England and Wales, in Scotland, or in Northern Ireland

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14
Q

How does a company register for corporation tax?

A

companies formed following an application made by post, using a formation agent, or using third party software must make an application to HMRC for registration within 3 months of starting to do business (if company is formed via online application, registration is done automatically)

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15
Q

How can you convert a private company into a public company?

A

*must pass special resolution approving re-registration of the company + alter company’s name and articles so that they are in a form suitable for a public company
*will not need a trading certificate to continue trading (new certificate of incorporation is sufficient) as Companies House will not re-register the company unless it has satisfied the same conditions regarding its alloted share capital that it would have to show in order to obtain a trading certificate [cf registering on the outset as a public company: will need a trading certificate before commencing trading]

applicant must file: special resolution, application for re-registration Form RR01, fee for re-registration, revised articles, balance sheet and written statement from auditors + a valuation report on any shares which have been allotted for non-cash consideration between the date of the balance sheet and passing of special resolution

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16
Q

How can a company adopt a seal?

A

by board resolution
*companies usually choose to have a seal to make their company documents look more official

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17
Q

What is the accounting reference date for a newly incorporated company?

A

*date to which it must prepare its annual accounts (company may make its accounts up to 7 days either side of their accounting reference date)
*this will be the last day of the month in which the company was incorporated

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18
Q

What will form part of a company’s constitution?

A

*memorandum of association
*articles of association
*certificate of incorporation
*current statement of capital
*shareholder resolutions and agreements
*court orders and legislation which affect the company’s constitution

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19
Q

What information will be needed to fill out Form IN01 for incorporation of a company?

A

(1) company name (need not be trading name)
(2) address of registered office [where correspondence from Companies House/any official documents will be sent + where certain records must be kept]
(3) name, residential&service addresses, DOB, nationality, occupation of first directors
(4) company secretary if business chooses to have one: name, service address
(5) first shareholders: name, address, details of shareholding
(6) statement of capital: number of shares of each type the company has and their total nominal value + what rights each type of share gives the shareholder (“prescibed particulars”)
(7) whether there will be a person with significant control

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20
Q

What are the default articles pre and under CA 2006?

A

*pre-CA 2006: Table A articles (unless modernised by adopting the Model Articles or an amended version of the Model Articles)
*CA 2006: Model Articles

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21
Q

What is the memorandum of association?

A

[legal] statement that the subscribers (1) wish to form a company and (2) agree to become a shareholder and (3) take at least one share each - must be signed by each subscriber and in the prescribed form
(cf articles set out how the company is run, governed, and owned)
*before CA, company’s memorandum included provisions which now fall within the articles of association (e.g. “objects clause” restricting company’s powers)

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22
Q

When does a partnership arise?

A

when two or more persons are carrying on a business in common with a view of profit
- parties must have agreed to commence business, but it is not necessary for trading to have commenced
- no formalities
*consider if the individuals all take part in decision-making, property acquired and how, the sharing of profits

partners may want to insert a date on the partnership agreement if one is written, however solicitors should advise clients that if they begin work on partnership busienss before the commencement date shown, partnership may come into existence on the earlier date and the default terms set out in PA 1890 will apply until the commencement date set out

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23
Q

What sections of PA 1890 cannot be overriden?

A

section 1-2 governing when a partnership comes into existence, and section 5-18 covering the relationship between partners and third parties

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24
Q

When is a partnership advisable?

A

parties want to start business as soon as possible with little admin + don’t want information about business to be made public - partnerships can be started with no formalities and are not as heavily regulated as companies

partnerships do not benefit from separate legal personality or limited liability, therefore consider the risks parties would be taking on - if business is one that is insured, actual liability is likely to be low

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25
Q

What are the rules imposed on partnership names?

A

*must not include ltd/limited, limited liability partnership/LLP, public limited company/plc
*must not be offensive
*must not be the same as an existing company (exception: proposed new entity will be part of the same gorup as the company/LLP with the existing similar name, and applicant has written confirmation that the company/LLP does not object)
*must not contain a sensitive word or expression (e.g. denoting regulated professions, geographical areas, words implying national or international pre-eminence) or suggest a connection with government or local authorities without permission from Secretary of State
*names cannot exceed 160 characters, including spaces

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26
Q

What happens if:
1) partners carry on a business after the expiry of a fixed term (as prescribed in the contract), and
2) do not enter into a new agreement?

A

they are presumed to be partners on the same terms as before

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27
Q

Are partners required to take part in the management of the business?

A

no obligation under PA 1890, but they may (power)

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28
Q

How are decisions made in partnerships without bespoke agreements?

A

unanimous decision:
1) change nature of business
2) introduce a new partner
3) change terms of the partnership agreement

other decisions must be taken by majority

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29
Q

How do partners share capital and profits of the business under PA 1890?

A

equally regardless of capital contributions
*this can be varied by implied agreement e.g. conduct in circumstances where a partner has acted in a certain way over a period of time and the others have not objected

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30
Q

What is partnership property and how is it treated differently from property which belongs to specific individual partners?

A

property originally brought into the partnership stock or acquired for the purposes and in the course of the partnership business

note that a partnership does not have a separate legal personality and cannot own assets in its own name - therefore property is normally held in the name of individual partners who hold as trustees for the partnership

on insolvency of a partnership and the bankruptcy of individual partners, the partnership assets are applicable in the first instance to pay the partnership’s creditors (in priority to a partner’s individual creditors) with any unpaid balance of those creditors being met out of the partners’ individual estates / creditors of the firm and creditors of the individual partners rank equally with respect to the partner’s individual estate

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31
Q

When is a partnership dissolved under PA 1890?

A

1) partner gives notice of retirement - there is no requirement for the notice to be of a certain length of time or for the notice to be in writing [where no fixed term has been agreed upon for the duration of the partnership, therefore is a partnership at will]
2) on expiry of a fixed term
3) if the partnership was entered into for a single adventure or undertaking, by the termination of that adventure or undertaking
4) by the death or banruptcy of any of the partners
5) by an event making it unlawful for the business of the firm to be carried on or for the members of the firm to carry it on in partnership
6) by the court on the application of a partner

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32
Q

What should solicitors advise clients on with regards to giving notice for dissolution?

A

as no formalities under PA 1890, advise clients to include notice period, stipulate that notice must be given in writing, and a provision that notice to retire from the partnership cannot be give in, e.g. the first year of trading (to ensure that the partnership has the chance to become established)

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33
Q

What are the grounds for dissolution by court order?

A

1) a partner becomes permanently incapable of performing their part of the partnership
2) a partner’s conduct is calculated to be prejudicial to carrying on of business
3) a partner wilfully and persistently breaches the partnership agreement
4) the partnership can only be carried on at a loss
5) the court thinks that, for other reasons, it is just and equitable to order that the partnership be dissolved

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34
Q

What is an outgoing partner entitled to upon dissolution under PA 1890 and what advice should be given to avoid this?

A

outgoing partner can insist on the business being sold (under section 39 PA 1890) + advised should include a clause [A] that in the event of a partner leaving, remaining partners can continue in partnership (technical dissolution as partnership will continue seamlessly with one less partner)

court can, if it appears preferable on a general dissolution, require one or more of the other partners to buy out another partner of the partnership rather than effect a winding-up of its business and affairs

include provisions [B] setting out whether the other partners must buy the outgoing partner’s share or whether they merely have the option to do so, how the partnership share of the outgoing partner should be valued (consider goodwill), and when they should be paid (e.g. in instalments for other partners to be able to afford to buy them out or more time to find a buyer rather than having to sell assets individually to raise money quickly)

without provision [B], outgoing partner is entitled to interest at a rate of 5% per annum on the value of their partnership share or such share of the profits as the court may find attributable to his/her share of the partnership assets

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35
Q

What is the order of distribution of proceeds of sale under PA 1890?

A

1) creditors of the firm must be paid in full + if there is a shortfall, the partners must pay the balance from their private assets [sharing losses equally]
2) partners who have lent money to the firm must be repaid the amount outstanding on the loan, including interest
3) partners must be paid the share of the partnership’s capital to which they are entitled
4) surplus is shared between the partners equally

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36
Q

When does a partner have authority to act in winding up the business’s affairs?

A

if they are not bankrupt (if they are bankrupt or dead, trustee in bankruptcy or PR has authority)

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37
Q

What are restraint of trade clasues?
Why are they commonly included in partnership agreements?

A

provision which seeks to restrict outgoing partners in their business dealings once they have left the partnership - there is no implied restraint of trade clause in PA 1890

can include non-compete, non-solicitation, non-dealing + will only be enforceable if it protects a legitimate business interest (e.g. goodwill, business contracts) and is no wider than reasonable to protect that interest

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38
Q

What is the procedure for retirement from a partnership which was originally constituted by deed?

A

notice in writing, signed by the partner giving it

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39
Q

Can a majority of partners expel any partner?

A

no, unless a power to do so has been conferred by express agreement between the partners

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40
Q

What are the partners’ responsibility under PA 1890?

A

duty of utmost fairness and good faith towards one another
*to be completely open with one another regarding any relevant information regarding the partnership
*account to the firm for any private profits they have earned without the other partners’ consent from any transaction concerning the partnership
*not compete with the firm - however, if the partner does so without the other partners’ consent, that partner must account for and pay over to the firm all profits made by them in the competing business

*bear share of any loss made by the business, in accordance with the terms of the partnership agreement
*indemnify fellow partners who have borne more than their share of any liability of expense connected with the partnership

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41
Q

When does a partner have actual authority to bind the partnership?

A

1) partners acted jointly in making the contract
2) partners expressly gave one of the partners permission to enter into a particular transaction or type of transaction, or instructed them to enter into a partnership contract on behalf of the firm
3) partners may have impliedly accepted that one or more partners have the authority to represent the firm in a particular type of transaction (e.g. regular course of dealing by one of the partners to which the other partners have not objected)

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42
Q

When does a partner have apparent authority to bind the partnership?

A

1) objective limb: transaction is one which relates to business carried on by the firm - expenditure in the realm of normal business activity/maintaining an office is deemed to indirectly relate to business
2) objective limb: transaction is one for which a partner in such a firm would usually be expected to have the authority to act [look at value of transaction!]
3) subjective limb: the other party to the transaction did not know that the partner did not have authority to act
4) subjective limb: the other party deals with a person whom they know or believe to be a partner

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43
Q

What is the consequence of a partner binding the partnership with apparent authority?

A

firm will be liable to the third party under the contract + the person who has made the firm liable by virtue of their apparent authority is liable to indemnify their fellow partners for any liability or loss which they incur, because the partner has breached their agreement with their partners by acting without actual authority

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44
Q

How are partners liable for the debts incurred by the partnership?

A

jointly and severally - therefore, there are 3 possible defendants for any person seeking to enforce liability of the firm:
1) partner or partners with whom they made the contract
2) anyone who was a partner at the time debt was incurred + that partner can claim indemnity from their partners so that the partners share liability between them
3) the firm! - best option as this ensures the judgment can be enforced against the partnerships assets, and if necessarily, against partners’ personal assets (+ anyone who was a partner at the time when the debt was incurred is jointly liable to satisfy the judgment)

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45
Q

How can an outgoing partner escape liability for debts incurred before retirement [i.e. entered into contract - date of alleged breach and proceedings are irrelevant]?

A

enter a novation agreement (with creditor and other partners, and possible an incoming partner) to transfer resopnsibilities and obligations to a third party

if there is no incoming partner, the novation agreement is only contractually binding if there is consideration for the creditor’s promise to release the retiring partner from liability or contract is exectued as a deed

+ if no novation agreement, retiring partner can be pursued for the full extent of the debt, but will be able to claim a contribution from the other partners provided they are solvent

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46
Q

How can an outgoing partner escape liability for debts incurred after retirement?

A

make sure (compliance with section 36 PA 1890 notice requirements):
1) anyone with whom the firm has dealt with before is given actual/direct notice of the partner in question leaving
2) a notice is placed in the London Gazette notifying “the whole” of the partner’s departure - not necessary if ceasing to be partner because of death or bankruptcy

if (1) and (2) have not been complied with and partner is sued, may be possible to claim an indemnity from the other partners

3) partner’s name is removed from firm’s stationery, website (holding out) + ensure misrepresentations are not made by the retiring partner or with the retiring partner’s knowledge - **to be liable when such procedures have not be abided by, creditor must have relied on the holding out

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47
Q

What happens when a partner leaves in the partnership bank account a sum of money to pay their share of any outstanding debts? Or the valuation of their share takes into account debts/liabilities?

A

partner would have paid share of debts and cannot be asked for contributions after retirement - this does not affect a third party’s right of action against the retired/retiring partner, but instead if they are pursued, the remaining partners must indemnify

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48
Q

What are the similarities and differences between a general partnership and a limited liability partnership?

A

few administrative requirements than company like GP, but enjoys the advantage of limited liability like companies

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49
Q

What are the legal requirements for the formation of an LLP?

A

1) there are at least 2 members
2) there are 2 designated members
3) LL IN01 form is filed at Companies House, along with the applicable fee
4) normal name restrictions + name must end in LLP, limited liability partnership, or Welsh equivalents
5) name must be displayed at LLP’s place of business and its stationery must state its name, place of registration, registration number, and address of registered office
6) LLP must have a registered office

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50
Q

What are the duties and responsibilites of designated members of an LLP?

A

1) signing and filing the annual accounts with the Registrar
2) appointing, removing, and remunerating the auditors
3) filing the annual confirmation statement
4) sending notices to the Registrar - e.g. member leaving (LL TM01 for individual; LL TM02 for corporate member) or joining LLP (LL AP01 for individual; LL AP02 for corporate member [will need service address, residential address, full name, former names and date of birth]) [notice sent within 14 days]
5) winding up LLP

core fiduciary duties (good faith, account for any money received on behalf of the LLP, duty to other members to render true accounts and full information on matters concerning the LLP) + duty of reasonable care and skill owed to the LLP

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51
Q

When does a member of an LLP have authority?

A

members are agents of the LLP and the LLP will be bound by anything done by a member on its behalf unless no authority (consider actual and apparent authority - contract rules)

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52
Q

What happens if the number of members in an LLP reduces to 1?

A

person is jointly and severally liable for any of the LLP’s debts incurred during the period from the 6-months point onwards

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53
Q

What is the effect of limited liability for LLPs?

A

company liquidation regime under Insolvency Act applies, but member may be liable for misfeasance, fraudulent trading or wrongful trading

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54
Q

Can an LLP own property?

A

yes, LLP itself will be the legal owner

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55
Q

What types of charges can an LLP issue?

A

fixed and floating charges + LLP must keep a register of charges, along with a copy of every charge requiring registration, at its registered office [any creditor or member of the LLP must be allowed to inspect the register free of charge] + LLPs are required to register charges with the Registrar

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56
Q

What is the default position with regards to the sharing of capital and profits in LLPs?

A

members of the LLP share equally + there is no default position on losses as they are borne by the LLP itself

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57
Q

What is the default position with regards to management and decision-making in LLPs?

A

every member may take part in the management of the LLP + members are not entitled to remuneration for taking part in management (same position as GP**)

changing nature of business, introducing members, and altering terms of the contract between the members can only be done by unanimously

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58
Q

What is the default position with regards to members leaving an LLP?

A

members can leave by giving reasonable notice to the other members + no expulsion

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59
Q

What are the requirements for calling a board meeting?

A

*notice must be given to other directors (by director or director require company secretary to give notice)
*notice must be reasonable (what is reasonable depends on the facts + in any case, 24 hours is sufficient)
*notice must include time, date, and place of meeting - if it is not intended that directors should meet in the same place, notice must state the method of communication (any method is acceptable as long as directors can each communicate)
*notice does NOT need to be in writing

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60
Q

Who is counted in the quorum and votes in board meetings?

A

*quorum of 2 directors must be present at all times during a board meeting (a sole director can be quorate)
*a director may not count in the quorum or vote if director has an interest in the proposed transaction/arrangement (subject to company’s Articles) - unless permitted cause: subscription of shares of the company, arrangements pursuant to which benefits are made available to employees and directors or former, guarantee given by or to a director in respect of an obligation incurred by or on behalf of the company

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61
Q

How are board resolutions passed?

A

by simple majority (more than half) + each director has one vote, unless board has appointed one of its directors as chair (they will have a casting vote in the event of a tie - only use when in favour)

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62
Q

How can a board resolution be passed without holding a board meeting?

A

e.g. resolution in writing
*possible as long as it is shown that all eligible directors have indicated to each other that they share a common view on a matter: directors have to vote unanimously (and written record of decision to be kept)

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63
Q

How can directors call a general meeting?

A

paassing a board resolution - resolve to call a general meeting
*notice must be given to every shareholder, every director, and an auditor if there is one
*notice must be given in hard copy, in electronic form, or by means of a website (or combination)
[notice by website: members will be notified of notice’s presence on website - notification must include that it concerns a notice of a company meeting, place/time/date of meeting and with public companies, whether it is an AGM + notice on website must be available throughout the period beginning with the notification date and ending with the conclusion of meeting]
*notice must include: time, date, place of meeting, general nature of business to be dealt with, reminder that each shareholder has a right to appoint a proxy to attend on their behalf (+ if special resolution, exact wording must be included) - failure to comply does not invalidate meeting but convictions for officers

*minimum notice required for a general meeting is 14 clear days (includes weekends/bank holidays but not the date of notice and meeting) - if notice is sent by post or email, deemed receipt is 48 hours after notice was posted or emailed (no account taken of any part of a day that is not a working day)

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64
Q

When may directors be obliged to call a general meeting (i.e. request from shareholders)?

A

once directors have received requests from shareholders representing at least 5% of such of the paid-up capital of the company as carried the right of voting at general meetings
*request must state general nature of business to be dealt with at the meeting
*board must call a general meeting within 21 days of request + notice period must be no more than 28 days (max period between request and general meeting itself is 7 weeks)

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65
Q

What are the requirements for calling a general meeting on short notice?

A

consent from majority in number of company’s shareholders + they must hold 90% or more of company’s voting shares (95% for public companies)

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66
Q

Who is counted in the quorum and votes in general meetings?

A

quorum: 2 qualifying persons - i.e. includes proxies and representatives of corporate shareholders (where corporate shareholder, we must see the board minutes of the shareholder authorising a corporate representative at the meeting) (subject to company’s Articles + if there is only one shareholder of the company)

shareholders are generally not prevented from counting in the quorum or vote if they have a personal interest, unless:
(a) concerns a resolution to buy back some or all of the shareholder’s share
(b) an ordinary resolution to ratify a director’s breach of duty where the director in question is also a shareholder

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67
Q

How can ordinary/special resolutions be passed?

A

ordinary: more than 50%
special: at least 75%

*default position is show of hands + poll vote may be demanded by a chair of the meeting, directors, two or more persons having the right to vote on the resolution, or a person/persons representing not less than 1/10 of the total voting rights of all the shareholders having the right to vote on the resolution
[poll vote can be demanded before GM, during (before or after shareholders have already voted on a show of hands) - if after, outcome of the poll vote will override the vote on the show of hands]

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68
Q

Who can propose a written resolution?

A

*only available to private companies
cannot be called for removing a director or an auditor before the expiration of their period/term of office
may be proposed by:
(a) directors of the private company
(b) shareholder(s) provided they have 5% or more voting rights [company’s Articles can reduce this percentage below 5% but are not entitled to increase it
]
*when requested by shareholders, company must circulate a copy of the resolution and any accompanying statement (of up to 1,000 words) to all eligible shareholders within 21 days of request [shareholder who requested the cirulcation of the resolution must pay the company’s expenses in complying with the request]

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69
Q

What is the procedure with regards to a written resolution?

A

1) board to hand out, post, or email written resolution or place resolution on the company’s website - this must be circulated to every eligible member
2) information that must be included on the written resolution includes how to signify agreement and deadline for returning [by default, this is a 28 day period with circulation date being day 1]
3) shareholder will have to sign and return written resolution if they would like to vote in favour + before or on lapse date (day 28 if resolution is silent)
*written resolutions are passed when the required majority of eligible members have signified agreement to the resolution (1 vote per share - cf default position in general meetings) - there is no requirement to wait until after the lapse date or even wait for everyone to vote [written resolutions are often more practical than waiting for a general meeting notice period and easier to obtain than consent to short notice]

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70
Q

What steps must be taken post-board/general meeting and written resolution?

A

1) minutes from meetings should be recorded
2) record of minutes and outcome of any written resolutions must be kept for at least 10 years from the date of the meeting - kept at the company’s registered office or a Single Altnerative Inspection Location (which address needs to be notified to Companies House on Form AD02)
company can elect to keep records on the central register at Companies House as well
*failure to keep records is an offence committed by every officer of the company who is in default + they will be liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale and, for continued contravention, a daily default fine not exceeding 1/10 of level 3 on standard scale

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71
Q

What are the company’s annual responsibilities - with regards to accounts and reports?

A

*every company must keep adequate account records and it is the directors’ responsibility to ensure accounts are produced for each financial year
*directors of every company must prepare a directors’ report for each financial year to accompany accounts
*it is the directors’ responsibility to circulate the accounts, directors’ report and, if required, an auditor’s report to every shareholder and debenture holder and anyone else who is entitled to receive notice of general meetings (shareholders, directors)
*every company must file its accounts and directors’ report at Companies House (within 9 months for private companies + 6 months for public companies - from end of the accounting reference period)
[newly incorporated companies have the option of filing the accounts and report 4 months after the end of the company’s first accounting reference period instead]
*every company must file a confirmation statement (Form CS01) within 14 days from company’s anniversay of incorporation - ensures that information held at Companies House is correct and up-to-date (late submission is a criminal offence)

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72
Q

What constitutes a small company?

A

a company with any 2:
(1) a balance sheet total of not more than £5.1 million
(2) a turnover of not more than £10.2 million
(3) no more than 50 employees in a particular financial year

even if classified as a small company, it must still have its accounts audited if demanded by: member(s) holding at least 10% of the nominal value of issued share capital
*do not need to send director’s report to Companies House

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73
Q

What constitutes a micro-entity?

A

a company with any 2:
(a) a balance sheet total of not more than £316,000
(b) a turnover of not more than £632,000, and
(c) no more than 10 employees in a particular financial year

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74
Q

What is the role of a company secretary?

A

deals with the company’s legal administrative requirements - not required to have one in private companies (in such cases, if CA 2006 requires a company secretary to do something, it can be performed by directors or someone authorised by them)

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75
Q

What is the procedure with appointing/removing company secretaries?

A

appointed or removed by board resolution (directors using general power under Model Art 3)
notification requirements:
(1) must notify Registrar of Companies on form AP03 for a human secretary or AP04 for a corporate secretary within 14 days of appointment
(2) company must have a register of secretaries with certain specified particulars [private companies can ensure that information is filed and up-to-date on central register at Companies House rather than keep own register of secretaries]
(3) notification of removal/resignation must be made to the Registrar of Companies within 14 days on Form TM02
(4) company must notify the Registrar of Companies within 14 days of any change in particulars of the company secretary kept in the registrar of secretaries (Form CH03 for human, Form CH04 for corporate)

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76
Q

What is the role of an auditor?

A

prepare a report on the company’s annual accounts - report should state whether, in the auditor’s opinion, the accounts have been prepared properly and give a true and fair view of the company [this ensures that shareholders are not defrauded or misled by directors]
*no duty of care owed to shareholders or potential new shareholders - however auditor can be sued for negligence by the company they are auditing

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77
Q

What is the procedure with appointing/removing company’s auditor?

A

*auditor must be someone who is qualified and independent
*generally, appointed and removed by ordinary resolution of shareholders - except directors can appoint the company’s first auditor and can fill a casual vacancy
*when removing, shareholders will need to give special notice to the company of the proposal to remove

auditor can resign at any time by giving notice in writing sent to the company’s registered office
whenever auditor ceases office, they must deliver a statement to the company explaining the circumstances connnected with ceasing to hold office

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78
Q

What are the administrative tasks required following the transfer/allotment of shares?

A

*shareholders have a right to receive a share certificate + this should be issued within 2 months of transfer/allotment

*every company must keep a register of members at its registered office or Single Alternative Inspection Location (can be kept on the central register at Companies House)
*shareholders have the right to have their name on the register of members - updated as soon as practicable and, as a long stop, within 2 months of transfer/allotment
- if company has elected to keep information at Companies House, notification must be made to Registrar as soon as practicable or within 2 months
- where kept at registered office or SAIL, register must be available for inspection to shareholders free of charge or to anyone else for a fee
*it is a criminal offence if the register of members is incomplete or incorrect

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79
Q

Who is a person with significant control? What are the administrative tasks associated with PSCs?

A

any shareholder:
(a) who owns or controls more than 25% of voting rights
(b) who has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the board of directors of the company
(c) who has the right to exercise, or who actually exercises, significant influence or control over the company

*company must keep a register of persons with significant control - enables third parties to understand who holds power in a given company [company can elect to have information on the central register of Companies House instead of registered office/SAIL]
*register must be kept even if there are no shareholders on it
*PSCs can apply to keep their residential address and name private
*forms to Companies House must be filed within 14 days of changes made to the company’s PSC reigster (i.e. when someone appears for the first time, details of PSCs change, ceasing to be a PSC)

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80
Q

What is the contractual relationship between shareholders and the company?

A

company’s constitution is a statutory contract between each shareholder and the company AND between each shareholder and every other shareholder - therefore, shareholders have a remedy for breach of contract if one or more shareholders, or the company itself, does not abide by the terms of the constitution (most importantly Articles due to the significance of memorandum reducing under CA 2006)

shareholder agreements are optional and will only bind the shareholders who enter into the agreement

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81
Q

What are Bushell v Faith clauses?

A

typical clause in shareholder agreements: gives someone who is both a shareholder and a director voting rights as a shareholder if the resolution in question is a resolution to remove that person as director

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82
Q

What are the limitations imposed on the contents of shareholder agreements?

A

it cannot restrict shareholders from voting in a particular way in board meetings if they are also a director

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83
Q

What are the key rights of shareholders?

A

(1) voting rights - including sending proxy, to a poll vote, receive notice of GM, requisition GM, circulation of written resolution and accompanying statement in certain circumstances (5%)
(2) right to receive dividend as long as there are profits available and directors have made a recommendation as to its amount and this has been approved by the shareholders via ordinary resolution (for final dividends) [interim payments can be made without shareholder approval]
(3) right to apply to court for company to be wound up, on the grounds that it is just and equitable to do so
(4) right to remove director by ordinary resolution
(5) right to remove auditor by ordinary resolution
(6) right to inspect company’s minutes of GM and all shareholders’ resolutions passed otherwise, all company’s statutory registers, directors’ service contracts and any directors’ indemnities, and any contracts relating to the company’s purchase of its own shares - all without charge
(7) right to receive a copy of the company’s annual accounts and reports
(8) right to seek an injunction under CA 2006 to restrain company from doing something prohibited by its constitution

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84
Q

What is a subsidiary?

A

(a) other company holds a majority of the voting rights in it, or
(b) other company is a member of it and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of its board of directors, or
(c) other company is a member of it and controls alone, pursuant to an agreement with other members, a majority of the voting rights in it
(d) it is a subsidiary of a company that is itself a subsidiary of that other company

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85
Q

What must a single-member company include on its register of members?

A

a statement that it is a single-member company + another statement should be given when this changes on the date which it happens

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86
Q

What are ordinary shares?

A

shareholders with ordinary shares have the right to attend and vote at general meetings and are entitled to receive dividends if they are declared

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87
Q

What are preference shares?

A

shareholders with preference shares receive enhanced rights in comparison to ordinary shareholders + these are set out in the company’s Articles - typically, they have a guaranteed right to a dividend and ordinary shareholders will only receive if there are any profits left after the preferential shareholders have been paid

if preference share is 5% and holder invested £100,000 - company makes enough money for dividends: typically amount of dividend expressed as a percentage of the nomial value of preference share, therefore £5,000

+ in return for enhanced right to dividend, preferential shareholders forego voting rights (not allowed to vote at general meetings)

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88
Q

Whare are cumulative preference shares?

A

where preference shareholder has to be paid any missed dividends from previous financial years as well as the current financial year’s dividends, as long as there are profits available to pay the dividends

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89
Q

What are the rights of participating preference shareholders?

A

they have a further right to receive profits/assets - e.g. if the ordinary shareholders receive a dividend over a specified amount, this could give the participating preference shareholder a right to an additional payment

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90
Q

What can a shareholder do if they feel unfairly prejudiced?

A

apply to the court for an order for a remedy - process can be expensive and time-consuming (also potentially difficult to gather evidence held by company)
*e.g. when diverting opportunities to a competing business in which the majority shareholders hold an interest, awarding excessive pay to directors, excluding a shareholder from management of the company (where when the company was incorporated, shareholders’ negotiations led them to believe that they would participate), removal of auditors by the shareholders on grounds of divergence of opinion on accounting or audit

court applies an objective test - considers whether a hypothetical bystander would believe the act/omission to be unfair + cause harm to the minority shareholder

court may make such order as it thinks fit - usually, order other shareholders to buy the shares of the unfairly prejudiced shareholder OR an order for the company to buy back the unfairly prejudiced shareholder’s shares [other orders: restriction on company altering Articles without the leave of court, order that the unfairly prejudiced shareholder has permission to bring derivative action]

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91
Q

When is a derivative claim brought?

A

when there has been a wrong done to a company which has arisen from an act or omission of a director

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92
Q

What is the procedure of bringing a derivative claim?

A

(1) shareholders apply to court for permission to continue claim
(2) court will allow claim to continue if application and evidence disclose a prima facie case for continuing [hurdle 1 immediately after serving claim form] - if not, court may give directions as to evidence to be provided or adjourn proceedings to enable evidence to be obtained
(3) court will list a full hearing to determine the shareholder’s application for permission to continue the claim [hurdle 2]
*permission will be refused where the court is satisfied that a person acting in accordance with s.172 would not seek to continue the claim (i.e. would a person promoting the success of the company continue the claim?), where the cause of action arises from an act/omission that has not yet occurred but which has already been authorised by company, or when act/omission has already occurred and was authorised before it occurred or has been ratified since
(4) court may grant permission to continue or adjourn proceedings and only at this stage will the court give directions for the trial of the issues raised

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93
Q

Who bears the burden of the legal costs in relation to a derivative claim?

A

applicant shareholder if permission is refused
if permission is granted, company will meet all the legal costs as well as the other party’s legal costs if the claim is unsuccessful

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94
Q

When does a substantial property transation arise?

A

where a director, in their personal capacity, or someone connected with a director, buys from or sells to the company a non-cash asset of substantial value

*non-cash asset: property or interest in property, other than cash
*substantial: over £100,000 or more than £5,000 and more than 10% of the company’s net asset value
*connected person: member of the director’s family (limited to: spouse, civil partner, child, stepchild, parents, any person who lives in an enduring relationship with director as their partner, any children of a person who lives in an enduring relationship with the director as their parent), company which director or person connected with director owns at least 20% of shares

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95
Q

How is consent to be given in relation to a SPT? + consequences for no consent?

A

by shareholder ordinary resolution - if not, transaction is voidable and individuals may be ordered to account to the company for any gain they have made and to indemnify the company for any loss/damage resulting from the arrangement/transaction

individual:
(1) any director of the company with whom the company entered into the arrangement
(2) any person with whom the company entered into the arrangement who is connected with a director of the company or its holding company
(3) the director with whom any such person is connected
(4) any other director of the company who authorised the arrangement/transaction entered into in pursuance of such an arrangement

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96
Q

How can a company amend its Articles of Association?

A

*by special resolution
*copy of special resolution + amended articles must be sent to Registrar no later than 15 days after amendment
*changes take effect immediately (does not depend on filing by Companies House)

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97
Q

How can a company change its name?

A

*by special resolution
*form NM01, special resolution and small fee to be sent to Companies House
*change is not effectrive until Registrar issues new certificate of incorporation

besides special resolution, name may be changed by methods otherwise provided for in company’s articles - in this case, company must give notice to the Registrar with accompaying statement that the change of name has been made by means provided for in company’s Articles

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98
Q

How can a company change the accounting reference date?

A

*can be done by directors via board meeting
*form AA01 to be filed
*change is only effective when form received by Companies House

  • will make a company’s financial year shorter or longer than 12 months, subject to following requirements:
    *may only lengthen financial year to a max of 18 months
    *may not lengthen more than once in every 5 years (unless you are aligning dates with a parent company or subsidiary, or you have permission from Companies House)
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99
Q

How can a company change the address of its registered office?

A

*can be done by directors via board meeting
*form AD01 to Companies House + change takes effect upon notice being registered by the Registrar

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100
Q

How can a company appoint/remove a director?

A

*by ordinary resolution (and board resolution for appointment)
*AP01/TM01 form to be submitted at Companies House within 14 days from a person becoming or ceasing to be a director (notice should include change and date on which it occurred)
*company must update its register or directors and register of directors’ residential addresses

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101
Q

What meetings/resolutions are required in agreeing a new service contract with one of the company’s directors with a term of over 2 years?

A

(1) board meeting 1 to approve service contract in draft and call general meeting
(2) general meeting for shareholders to pass ordinary resolution
(3) board meeting 2 to enter into contract and authorise director(s) to execute

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102
Q

Who can be a director in a company?

A

every company needs at least one director who is a natural person that is 16 years old or older + others can be corporate directors [for board meetings, the company will send a corporate representative to discharge its functions as a director]

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103
Q

What are directors responsible for and how do they exercise their powers?

A

*subject to company’s articles, directors are responsible for the management of the company’s business
*default position is that powers are exercised by passing board resolutions - however, directors can exercise their powers unanimously without a meeting as long as they indicate to each other that they share a common view on the matter (resolution can be in writing or as informal as a text message from each director indicating their agreement to a resolution or course of action)
*directors may delegate any of their powers as they think fit

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104
Q

Who are executive directors?

A

those who are appointed to the board of directors and have an employment contract with the company (i.e. service contract which set out the director’s job title, duties, and responsibilities)

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105
Q

Who are non-executive directors?

A

those who are appointed to the board and registered at Companies House as directors of the company, but they do not have service agreements with the contract - they do not receive a salary

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106
Q

What is the role of the chairman?

A

they will run the company’s board meetings and have casting vote
*the role of the chair of a publicly traded company is more important as they further act as a figurehead in dealings with shareholders and anyone outside the company

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107
Q

What is de facto director?

A

a person who acts as a director although they have never been appointed or validly appointed

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108
Q

What is a shadow director?

A

a person in accordance with whose directions or instructions the directors of the company are accustomed to act, but who has not been formally appointed as a director (they work in the background and do not carry of the normal functions of directors, but have a great deal of influence and control over the directors’ actions in practice)
*it is not necessary for the whole board to act in accordance with a shadow director’s directions - only a governing majority + it is not necessary for the board to act in accordance with their directions in relation to all matters

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109
Q

Can directors send an alternative to board meetings?

A

not under Model Articles - if company wishes to allow its directors to do so, must add a special article

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110
Q

How are the company’s first director(s) appointed/when do they take office?

A

they will be named in the statement of proposed officers on Form IN01 + they will take office on the certificate of incorporation being issued

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111
Q

How are subsequent directors appointed?

A

in accordance with articles - if Model Articles: directors can be appointed by the board or by ordinary resolution of the shareholders

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112
Q

When will an individual automatically cease to be a director under the Model Articles?

A

*if a bankruptcy order has been made against them
*a doctor gives a written opinion to the company stating that the individual has become physically and mentally incapable of acting as a director and may remain so for more than 3 months

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113
Q

When do directors have actual authority?

A

when they have consent from the other directors to act in a certain way
*can be express: set out in the director’s service contract or following a discussion between board of directors
*can be implied: director has acted in a certain way in the past and board has not tried to stop the director or told them that they are not authorised to act in that way

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114
Q

When do directors have apparent authority?

A

where there is no prior consent from company, but company is estopped from denying the director’s authority - requires representation by the company to the third party, by words or conduct, that the director is acting with the company’s authority (generally, where company does not correct the impression that director has apparent authority)

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115
Q

When must shareholder approval be sought in relation to a service contract? Why?

A

when board is proposing to enter into a service contract with a guaranteed term of more than 2 years: i.e. in relation to a long-term service contract
(more than 2-year term is not guaranteed where, under the service contract, company has the general power to terminate agreement with notice of 2 years or less [if can only be terminated for a specific reason, will need approval])
*need approval by ordinary resolution - when an ordinary resolution is proposed, board must keep a copy of the memorandum setting out the terms of the proposed service contract at the registered office for 15 days prior to the general meeting and at the general meeting itself
*without approval, the guaranteed term element of the service contract will be void (the rest is enforceable) - i.e. service contract would be capable of termination on reasonable notice

approval needed as directors are often highly paid and it may be financially harmful to the company if it were locked into a long-term service contract with a director with no possibility of ending the contract

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116
Q

How can companies with Model Articles and only 2 directors approve service contracts?

A

*quorum would not be met as director in question will be prevented form counting/voting due to personal interest in the service contract
*will need to change the company’s articles permanently by special resolution to allow directors to vote even when they have a personal interest in the matter or allow them to vote when the subject matter under discussion is their service contract OR shareholders could temporarily suspend the operation of Model Article Rule 14 on conflict of interests by ordinary resolution

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117
Q

What administrative steps must be taken in regards to service contracts?

A

service contracts (or a memorandum setting out their terms) must be available for inspection by the shareholders at the company’s registered office during their term and until 1 year after termination of the service contract
*shareholders have the right to inspect without charge + see them within 7 days of request

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118
Q

How can a directorship end?

A

(1) resignation
(2) removal of director by ordinary resolution

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119
Q

What is the procedure for removing a director?

A

(1) special notice is required for the ordinary resolution: this requires notice to be given to the company at least 28 clear days before the general meeting at which the resolution is proposed
(2) once the company has received the special notice, it must inform the director in question (so they can seek advice and prepare for the general meeting)
(3) where practicable, company must give its shareholders notice of the resolution in the same manner and at the same time as it gives notice of the general meeting - if not, company must give its shareholders notice at least 14 clear days before the general meeting
*if after special notice is given to the company, a general meeting is called for within 28 days, notice is deemed to have been properly given (this prevents the directors from calling a general meeting within the 28 day period and invalidating the general meeting by doing so)

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120
Q

Does terminating a service contract mean that the director will be automatically removed from office? (and vice versa)

A

no:
(1) service contract can only be terminated in accordance with its terms, unless the director is in repudiatory breach of their service contract and can be summmarily dismissed on that basis
*there would need to be an express term to terminate service contract automatically following removal
(2) directors do not need to be employed to perform their duties as director [therefore no automatic removal following termination of contract]

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121
Q

What are the administrative and notification requirements in relation directors/directors’ details under CA 2006?

A

*company must keep a reigster of directors, containing required particulars (directors’ DOB and address) - this must be available for inspection without charge by shareholders or by other individuals following payment of a fee at the company’s registered office [criminal offence if register is not kept or not open to inspection]
*company must keep a register of directors’ residential addresses for individual directors - this is not open to inspection
*CH01 and CH02 used to notify a change in particulars for natural persons and corporate directors [filed within 14 days]
*AP01 and AP02 used to notify Companies House of appointment [filed within 14 days]
*TM01 used to notify Companies House of resignation/removal [filed within 14 days]

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122
Q

Who does the director owe its duties to?

A

the company [NOT shareholders or creditors!]

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123
Q

What is the duty under section 171 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

act within powers
*duty to act in accordance with the company’s constitution and only exercise powers for the purposes for which they are conferred (i.e. to promote the success of the company)

remedies: civil - account of profits, equitable compensation for loss suffered by the company, rescission of any contract entered into, injunction to prevent further breaches/a continuing breach, restoration of property transferred as a result of breach

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124
Q

What is the duty under section 172 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

duty to promote the success of the company
*director must act in the way he considers, in good faith, would be most likely to promote the success of the company (generally accepted that success equates to increase in share value) for the benefits of its members as a whole
*this is a subjective test (making it v difficult to establish breach)
*non-exhaustive list of factors directors must have regard for:
*(1) likely consequences of any decision in the long term
*(2) interests of the company’s employees
*(3) need to foster the company’s business relationships with suppliers, customers, and others
*(4) impact of the company’s operations on the community and the environment
*(5) desirability of the company to maintain a reputation for high standards of business conduct
*(6) need to act fairly as between members of the company

remedies: civil - account of profits, equitable compensation for loss suffered by the company, rescission of any contract entered into, injunction to prevent further breaches/a continuing breach, restoration of property transferred as a result of breach

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125
Q

What is the duty under section 173 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

duty to excercise independent judgment
*this duty does not prevent directors relying on advice, as long as the directors exercise their own judgment in deciding whether or not to follow the advice
*not infringed by director acting in accordance with an agreement duly entered into by the company that restricts future exercise of discretion by its directors or in a way authorised by the company’s constitution

remedies: civil - account of profits, equitable compensation for loss suffered by the company, rescission of any contract entered into, injunction to prevent further breaches/a continuing breach, restoration of property transferred as a result of breach

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126
Q

What is the duty under section 174 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

duty to exercise reasonable care, skill and diligence
two-stage test: compare director’s conduct to the care, skill, and diligence that would be exercised by a reasonably diligent person with
(a) the general knowledge, skill, and experience that may be expected of a person carrying out the functions carried out by the director in relation to the company (minimum standard)
(b) the general knowledge, skills, and experience that the director has (higher standard where directors’ actual knowledge/skill/expertise is greater than (a))

remedies: common law damages assessed in the same way as damages for negligence

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127
Q

What is the duty under section 175 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

duty to avoid conflicts of interest
*applies to the exploitation of any property, information, or opportunity + it is immaterial whether the company could take advantage of the property, information, or opportunity/declined to do so
*this section is concerned with a contract in which the company is NOT involved

remedies: civil - account of profits, equitable compensation for loss suffered by the company, rescission of any contract entered into, injunction to prevent further breaches/a continuing breach, restoration of property transferred as a result of breach

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128
Q

What is the duty under section 176 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

duty not to accept benefits from a third party
*cannot accept benefits conferred by reason of them being a director or doing/not doing anything as director
*there is no breach if the acceptance of the benefit cannot reasonably be regarded as likely to give rise to a conflict of interest [i.e. director feels so beholden to the third party that they would act against the best interests of the company] - therefore usually requires something lavish (not merely corporate hospitality)

remedies: civil - account of profits, equitable compensation for loss suffered by the company, rescission of any contract entered into, injunction to prevent further breaches/a continuing breach, restoration of property transferred as a result of breach

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129
Q

What is the duty under section 177 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

duty to declare interest in a proposed transaction/arrangement
*declaration must be made BEFORE the company enters into the transaction or arrangement in question
*no prescribed way for declaration to be made
duty to declare does NOT arise where:
*(a) director is not aware of the interest, or of the transaction or arrangement in question [director is treated as being aware of matters of which he ought reasonably to be aware]
*(b) interest cannot reasonably be regarded as likely to give rise to a conflict of interest
*(c) other directors are already aware of conflict of interest (or ought reasonably to be aware of it)
*(d) it concerns the terms of the director’s service contract

remedies: civil - account of profits, equitable compensation for loss suffered by the company, rescission of any contract entered into, injunction to prevent further breaches/a continuing breach, restoration of property transferred as a result of breach

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130
Q

What is the duty under section 182 CA 2006? Remedies?

A

duty to declare interest in an existing transaction/arrangement
*must declare nature and extent of interest + declaration to be made as soon as is reasonably practicable
*section does not apply if/to the extent that the director has already declared interest under s.177 (proposed transaction/arrangement)
*declaration must be made: (1) at a meeting of the directors, (2) by notice in writing sent to all the other directors [by hand or post / where the recipient has agreed to receive by electronic means, by agreed electonic means], or (3) by general notice of the interest given at a board meeting (or the director takes reasonsable steps to secure that notice is brought up and read at the next meeting after it is given)
duty to declare does NOT arise where:
*(a) director is not aware of the interest, or of the transaction of arrangement in question (they are treated as being aware of matters of which he ought reasonably to be aware)
*(b) interest cannot reasonably be regarded as likely to give rise to a conflict of interest
*(c) other directors are already aware or ought reasonably to be aware
*(d) it concerns the terms of the director’s service contract

remedies: criminal offence, therefore punishable by fine

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131
Q

How can a shareholder ratify a breach or potential breach of a director’s duty?

A

by ordinary resolution
*for written resolution: if director in question is also a shareholder, they will not be an eligible member (i.e. will not receive the written notice)
*for general meeting: if director in question is also a shareholder, their votes at the general meeting (and the votes of any shareholder connected with them) will be disregarded
*ratification means director will escape liability to the company

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132
Q

What are wrongful trading claims?

A

*brought by liquidator or administrator
(1) company has gone into insolvent liquidation or insolvent administration
(2) before the commencement of the winding up of the company, directors knew or ought to have concluded that there was no reasonable prospect that the company would avoid going into insolvent liquidation or administration, and
(3) [defence] having concluded so, the director failed to take every step with a view to minimising the potential loss to the company’s creditors as they ought to have taken [reasonably diligent person standard]
*court may order a director to contribute to the company’s assets in order to increase the amount of money available to pay creditors (as the court thinks proper)

to ascertain (3): steps to be taken include seeking professional advice from solicitors/accountants, limit spending, check company’s accounts regularly, keep records of their own actions

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133
Q

What are fraudulent trading claims?

A

*brought by liquidator or administrator
if in the course of the company being wound up, it apepars that the company’s business has been carried on with intent to defraud creditors of the company or creditors of any other person, for any fraudulent purpose
[provind intent to defraud is difficult
]
*court may declare that any persons who were knowingly parties to the carrying on of business are liable to make such contributions to the company’s assets as the court thinks proper
*any director liable for fraudulent trading also risks a criminal conviction

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134
Q

What are misfeasance claims?

A

*during the course of the winding up of the company, directors may be ordered to contribute to the company’s assets by way of compensation in respect of breaches of any fiduciary or other duty

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135
Q

What is the procedure for making a loan to a director of a company or of its holding company?

A

shareholder approval needed - ordinary resolution
*if general meeting: memorandum setting out the terms of the loan and the company’s liability must be made available for inspection at the company’s registered office for 15 days prior to the general meeting at which the ordinary resolution will be proposed and at the general meeting itself
*if written resolution: a copy of the memorandum must be sent out with the written resolution (does not need to be available for inspection at the company’s registered office)

if approval is not given, transaction/arrangement is voidable at the instance of the company + the director whom the company entered into the transaction and any director who authorised the transaction/arrangement are liable to account to the company for any gain they have made, and are jointly and severally liable to indemnify the company for any loss or damage
*transaction can be affirmed within a reasonable time by the company by passing an ordinary resolution + it will no longer be voidable and directors will not be liable in relation to their initial failure to seek shareholder approval

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136
Q

What are the exceptions to the requirement for an ordinary resolution in relation to a loan made to a director?

A

*expenditure on company business - i.e. for the purposes of the company or for the purposes of enabling the director to properly perform their duties (e.g. for a car to travel to customers around the country as a sales director) (not exceeding £50,000)
*expenditure defending criminal or civil proceedings in connection with any alleged negligence, breach of trust/duty, default by him/her in relation to the company or an associated company
*expenditure defending regulatory proceedings or himself/herself in an investigation by a regulatory authority
*minor transactions (not exceeding £10,000)

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137
Q

What is the procedure for making payment for loss of office?

A

*any payments of £200 or more can only be paid with the prior agreement of shareholders by ordinary resolution (payments to director; to a person connected with a director; to any person at the direction of, or for the benefit of, a director or a person connected with a director)
*a memorandum containing particulars of the payment for the loss of office must be drawn up made:
*(a) if general meeting: available at the company’s reigstered office for not less than 15 days prior to the general meeting at which the resolution to approve the payment is proposed and at the general meeting itself
*(b) if written resolution: memorandum must be sent to all eligible members with or before written resolution is circulated
*no approval is needed for payments made in good faith to discharge an existing legal obligation - i.e. obligation of the company that was not entered into in connection with, or in consequence of, the event giving rise to the payment for loss of office (e.g. payment under terms of service contract / compensation for unfair or wrongful discrimination or dismissal)

if no approval, money is held by the recipient on trust for the company + any director who authorises the payment is jointly and severally liable to indemnify the company that made the payment for any loss resulting from it

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138
Q

What are the consequences for director’s failure to maintain company records?

A

*punishable by fine
*if records in question are account records, director in default can be imprisoned for up to 2 years

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139
Q

What are the consequences for director’s failure to file certain documents at Companies House - e.g. special resolution within 15 days of it being passed?

A

punishable by fine

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140
Q

What are the consequences for false or misleading statements in directors’ report, directors’ remuneration report, or a summary financial statement so far as it is derived from the directors’ remuneration report?

A

director may be liable if he knew the statement to be untrue or misleading or was reckless as to whether it was untrue or misleading, or knew the omission to be dishonest concealment of a material fact

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141
Q

What are the consequences for directors’ breach of health and safety legislation?

A

imprisonment for up to 2 years and fine up to £20,000 (+ if someone dies due to management failure, directors can be liable for common law offence of gross negligence manslaughter)

142
Q

What are the grounds for disqualifying directors and for how long can the court disqualify an individual from being a director?

A

grounds:
*conviction for an indictable offence
*summary conviction for failure to file a required notice or document
*persistent breaches of companies legislation
*breach of competition law
*following an investigation and finding of unfitness
*being an unfit director of an insolvent company
*fraud on a winding up
*fraudulent or wrongful trading
factors in director’s favour: employing qualified financial staff, taking professional advice, a personal financial investment in the company

length of disqualification depends on director’s behaviour in relation to the current offence and previous behaviour - court can disqualify for 2-15 years

143
Q

What are the effects of disqualification?

A

director cannot, without leave of court, be a director or in any way concerned in the promotion, formation or management of a company - leave is rare but possible if director is not dishonest, business is profitable and there are other directors who could provide a check on the activities of the director in question
*contravention of a disqualification order is a criminal offence: fine or sentenced up to 2 years in prison
*a director who is disqualified is personally responsible for the debts of the company if they are involved in the management of the company while disqualified

144
Q

What is the difference between alloting and issuing shares?

A

a company allots shares when a person acquires the unconditional right to be included in the company’s register of members (shares have been transferred and paid for and board passed resolution to register) + issue is when the name of shareholder is entered on the register of members

145
Q

What is an authorised share capital and how should this be dealt with?

A

*upper limit on the number of shares a company could have (most relevant for pre-CA 2006 companies as ASC is contained in all memorandums)
*remove ASC by ordinary resolution + this will need to be filed at Companies House

146
Q

How should a restriction in company articles be dealt with (company incorporated after 1 Oct 2009)?

A

special resolution to amend articles

147
Q

When will directors have automatic authority to allot shares?

A

where it concerns a private company incorporated under CA 2006 which has only one class of shares before and after allotment - only need board resolution

148
Q

When will you need to activate s.550 authority to allot shares?

A

when company is incorporated before CA 2006 came into force (and private company, with more than one class of shares before and after allotment)

149
Q

What needs to be done to give directors authority to allot shares if not automatically entitled?

A

ordinary resolution is needed + ordinary resolution must state the max number of shares the directors may allot and the date on which the authority will expire (must not be more than 5 years from the date that the ordinary resolution is passed) - this must be filed at Companies House

150
Q

What are pre-emption rights and when will this apply?

A

*right of first refusal over shares which are being allotted
*existing ordinary shareholders must be offered the equity securities on same or more favourable terms - when offered, it must state period for acceptance (cannot be less than 14 days) and offer cannot be withdrawn during that period
*equity securities: ordinary shares and rights to subscribe for, or to convert securities into, ordinary shares in the company

151
Q

What are the exceptions to the statutory pre-emption right?

A

*allotment of bonus shares
*when consideration for allotment is wholly or partly non-cash
*if shares are to be held under, allotted or transferred pursuant to an employee share scheme
+ private companies can exclude/tailor pre-emption rights by provisions contained in its articles and this can be to exclude them generally or in relation to particular allotments

152
Q

How can companies disapply statutory pre-emption right?

A

by special resolution
*if ordinary resolution passed to give directors general authority to allot, the special resolution will disapply the statutory pre-emption right for as long as the directors’ authority
*if ordinary resolution passed gave directors authority in relation to a specific allotment, special resolution must be recommended by the directors (via written statement setting out reasons for recommendation, amount the purchaser will pay, directors’ justification of that amount - written statement must be circulated to the shareholders along with the notice of the general meeting or with the written resolution) - it is an offence to knowingly or recklessly authorise or permit the inclusion of any matter that is misleading, false, or deceptive in a material particular in the directors’ written statement

153
Q

Under Model Articles, how should shares be paid for?

A

fully - i.e. buyer must pay for the shares when they receive them

154
Q

What does it mean if a share is issued at a premium?

A

it is allotted for a higher value than its nominal value + the excess (premium) will be recorded in a separate share premium account on the company’s balance sheet

155
Q

What are the administration requirements following an allotment of shares?

A

copies of resolution must be sent to Companies House within 15 days:
*all special resolutions
*any ordinary resolution removing authorised share capital in pre-CA 2006 companies
*any ordinary resolution activating directors’ entitlement to allotment shares (s.550) in pre-CA 2006 companies
return of allotment of shares and statement of capital (Form SH01) to be sent to Companies House within 1 month
possibly forms to Companies House on persons with significant control
company must amend its register of members within 2 months
company must prepare share certificates within 2 months of allotment

156
Q

What restrictions are imposed on shareholders in relation to transferring shares?

A

none in CA 2006 + articles cannot restrict a shareholder from selling shares and cannot stop a particular purchaser from buying them

157
Q

What discretion is given to the board under Model Articles in relation to transfers of shares?

A

they can refuse to register the transfer + this means that the person does not become a shareholder of the company as their name would not be entered on the reigster of members (transferee will be the beneficial owner of the shares + transferor will remain legal owner and attend general meetings and receive dividends [but legal owner must vote in accordance with the wishes of the beneficial owner and must pay any dividends to the beneficial owner of the shares])
*this means that, although there are no strict restrictions on transfer of shares, every transfer must be approved by the board before the transferee can become a shareholder

158
Q

What is the procedure for transferring shares?

A

(1) transferor must complete and sign a stock transfer form and give it to the transferee along with the share certificate relating to the shares
(2) if the sale price of the shares is over £1,000, buyer must pay stamp duty on the stock transfer form (charged at 0.5%, rounded up to the nearest £5)
(3) transferee must send the share certificate and stock transfer form to the company
(4) company should
*(a) send the new shareholder a new share certificate with their name within 2 months
*(b) enter new shareholder’s name on the register of members within 2 months
*(c) notify the Registrar of Companies of the change in ownership of the shares when the company files its annual confirmation statement

159
Q

What is the transmission of shares?

A

if a shareholder dies, their shares automatically pass to their personal representatives OR if a shareholder is made bankrupt, their shares automatically vests in their trustee in bankruptcy
*PRs and trustee in bankruptcy do not become shareholders but are entitled to any dividends declares on the shares = they can choose to be registered as shareholders and sell the shares/sell them directly in their capacity as representatives

160
Q

What is the principle of maintenance of share capital?

A

company is to maintain the money provided by shareholders + this fund cannot be reduced as it is the fund which creditors look to for payment of debts owed to them
*dividends cannot be paid out of capital
*company must not generally purchase its own shares unless following buyback procedure, company purchases its own shares under a court order made to buy out an unfairly prejudiced minority shareholder, or company is returning capital to shareholders after payment of the company’s debt in a winding up

161
Q

What is an off-market purchase?

A

buybacks not on the stock market

162
Q

What is the general procedure for buyback out of profits?

A

(1) before board meeting, check whether there is a limit in the company’s articles on its s.690 power to buy back shares + prepare accounts to ascertain available profits
(2) hold board meeting to decide method of finance, resolve to approve the draft terms of purchase, resolve to call a general meeting or propose a written resolution [ordinary resolution]
*contract or memorandom of terms must be made available to members (at registered office for at least 15 days before GM and at GM or circuated with WR)
(3) WR + GM (note voting restrictions)
(4) keep minutes/written resolutions for 10 years
(5) complete board meeting: resolve to enter into the contract + authorise execution of contract
(6) file return of purchase of own shares (SH03) and notice of cancellation of shares (SH06) within 28 days of completion, keep copy of contract at registered office for 10 years + cancel shares and update register of members and PSC is required

163
Q

What are the shareholder voting restrictions in relation to a resolution to approve a buyback?

A

*written resolution: shareholder who holds the shares which are being brought back is not an eligible member (cannot vote and not entitled to receive notice)
*general meeting: resolution will not be effective if that shareholder’s votes made the difference between the resolution passing or not

164
Q

When may a company buy back shares out of capital?

A

*for private companies: possible so long as company articles do not forbid - if they do so, company must exhaust distributable profits first (i.e. buy back will be partly using profits and partly using capital)
*public companies are not permitted to buy back shares out of capital

165
Q

What are the additional requirements specific to the procedure of buyback out of capital?

A

*no sooner than 3 months before the directors prepare the statement of solvency, they must prepare accounts to ascertain available profits and confirm that shares are fully paid
*company’s directors must sign a statement of solvency, no sooner than 1 week before GM, stating that the company is solvent and will remain solvent during the year following the buyback
[if company becomes insolvent and is wound up with 1 year of statement, seller of the shares and directors may be required to contribute to the financial losses of the company + directors may face criminal sanctions for making such a statement without reasonable grounds]
*statement of solvency must have annexed to it an auditors’ report confirming that the auditors are not aware of anything to indicate that the directors’ opinion is unreasonable
*payment out of capital must be approved by special resolution (in addition to the ordinary resolution to approve to buyback contract)
*copy of the directors’ statement of solvency and auditors’ report must be available to members - if WR for special resolution, sent to members with WR / if GM, copy of statement and report must be available for inspection at the meeting
*within 7 days of the special resolution being passed, company must put a notice in the London Gazette, stating that shareholders have approved payment out of capital + must specify amount of capital to be used, date of special resolution, where the directors’ statement and auditors’ reports are available for inspection, and that any creditors of the company may within 5 weeks following the special resolution being passed apply for an order to prevent buyback
*an equivalent notice ^ must be published in an appropriate national newspaper or give notice to each of its creditors
[notices allow creditors to apply to court to stop buyback if they do not think the company can afford to do so]
*company must file a copy of the directors’ statement and auditors’ report at Companies House before or at the same time as it places the notices in London Gazette and newspaper
*directors’ statement and auditors’ report must be kept available for inspection at the company’s registered office from the time the company publishes its first notice until 5 weeks after passing the special resolution
*as long as none of the creditors object, directors hold a board meeting to pass resolution to decide to enter into the buyback contract - payment out of capital must be made no earlier than 5 weeks after the date of special resolution and no later than 7 weeks after the date of the special resolution (i.e. board has 2 weeks to enter into contract)

166
Q

What is the procedure for paying dividends?

A

*it is the directors who decide whether or not to recommend that a dividend be paid and how much it should be
*shareholders must pass an ordinary resolution in order for the recommendation to be approved/declared - shareholders cannot increase dividends recommended by director, but may lower it
*a company can pay a dividend if it has profits available for the purpose: profits available are the company’s accumulated, realised profits less its accumulated, realised losses (profit and loss reserves)

167
Q

What must a company do before borrowing money?

A

*check whether it is allowed to do so (Model Articles do not place restrictions - check company’s bespoke articles or memorandum for pre-CA 2006 companies, and if there are restrictions, shareholders will need to pass special resolution to change articles to remove restriction)
*check that directors have authority to act on behalf of company - generally derived from Model Article 3

168
Q

What are secured loans?

A

loans with security (over some or all of business’s property) + this ensures that the bank can recover what it is owed more easily if the business defaults [this ease means that businesses tend to pay lower rates of interest for secured loans (cf unsecured loans as with latter, lender will require some financial advantage to compensate it for not taking security)]

169
Q

What is an overdraft?

A

*involves a contract between the business and its bank which allows the business to go overdrawn on its current account
*a temporary loan used to cover everyday business expenses when there is no other source of money available (emergency use)
*business will have to pay a fee for the overdraft facility + bank will charge interest by reference to its base rate
*it is an uncommitted facility + will usually be payable on demand (bank may demand immediate repayment by the business at any time without giving notice)
*v flexible source of finance + as a result, banks tend to charge high interest rates and it is generally an expensive way to borrow

170
Q

What is a term loan?

A

*where a business borrows a fixed amount of money for a specified period (i.e. term) + at the end of the term, it must all be repaid and borrower must pay interest at regular intervals
*usually used by a business to purchase a capital asset
*term loans may be secured/unsecured and bilteral/syndicate [i.e. between business and a number of different lenders who jointly provide money the business wants to borrow - this is common when the amount of the loan is high as the risk of lending to the business is shared]
*term loan may allow business to draw down all in one go or take in instalments on, or by, agreed dates [taking instalments will reduce interest payments]
*provides greater certainty than an overdraft as bank can only request payment under the terms of the contract
*can be expensive + take time to negotiate and agree all legal documentation

171
Q

What is a revolving credit facility?

A

*where bank agrees to make available a maximum amount of money to the business throughout the agreed period of the revolving credit facility
*typically used for businesses whose income is not evenly distributed throughout the year (+ usually repayments are made towards the end of the term) - more flexible + business is able to reborrow amounts that it has repaid so long as it does not exceed overall maximum figure

172
Q

What are common clauses found in term loan/revolving credit facility contracts?

A

(1) amount + type of loan, currency
(2) set out repayment schedule: bank can only demand repayment in accordance with the terms of the facility agreement
(3) interest rates - may be fixed for the period of the loan or could be variable
(4) express covenants: placing restrictions on the financial performance of the business to ensure that it stays solvent and is not too dependent on debt (e.g. limit dividends, no disposal of assets or change of business without lender’s consent, to provide information on the business to the lender e.g. annual accounts)
(5) events of default

173
Q

What do the directors need to check if wanting to grant security + company was formed before Oct 2009 (i.e. not under CA 2006)?

A

check that company has power to grant security over assets - objects/capacity of the company will be set out in its old-style memorandum of association (cf companies under CA 2006: they have unrestricted objects, unless specifically restricted by a company’s amended/bespoke articles)

174
Q

What should be done if there are restrictions on company’s powers to grant security in pre-2006 CA memorandum or bespoke articles of association?

A

company’s shareholders must pass special resolution to amend company’s articles

175
Q

What should a lender do before taking security?

A

(1) check directors have authority
(2) check people it is dealing with have been properly appointed as directors of the company
(3) search company’s records at Companies House to see if any charges have already been registered against the company’s property (ensure there is sufficient value in property to provide adequate security)
(4) if lender is proposing to take charge over land, conduct a search at Land Registry to check company’s title to land and see if any pre-existing charges have been registered
(5) if charge is to be taken over IP rights, check company’s title to IP at IP Office
(6) lender should conduct a winding-up search by telephone at the Companies Court to check that no insolvency proceedings have been commenced against the company

176
Q

What is the effect of granting a mortgage of assets other than land?

A

mortgagor transfer legal ownership of asset to mortgagee + title will be transferred back to the borrower when money has been repaid
*security provider retains possession
[charge by way of legal mortgage is the highest form of security and should be sought in the first instance by a lender!]

177
Q

What is the effect of granting a mortgage over land?

A

ownership remains vested in the security provider (but equivalent rights created due to the creation of an interest in favour of the mortgagee)

178
Q

What is the effect of granting a charge (floating or fixed)?

A

security provider retains possession AND ownership - simply creates an equitable proprietary interest in the asset in favour of the creditor + gives contractual rights (e.g. to appoint receive to take possession of it and to sell it if debt not paid/borrower defaults)

179
Q

What is a fixed charge?

A

*charge taken over property (e.g. machinery and shares owned by the company), which gives the lender control of the asset - this means that the chargor cannot dispose of the asset without the charge holder’s consent
*charge holder will require the chargor to keep asset in good condition

180
Q

What happens if a (fixed) chargor goes into receivership or liquidation?

A

fixed charge holder will have the right to sell the asset and be paid out of the proceeds of the sale before any other claimants - they have the right of first claim over proceeds

181
Q

Can you have more than 1 fixed charge over the same asset?

A

yes - when the asset is sold, the holder of the first fixed charge will pay itself out of proceeds first + second fixed charge holder will be able to pay itself out of the remainder

182
Q

What are floating charges?

A

charge secured over a group of assets which is constantly changing - e.g. stock used as part of doing business, book debts
*company will retain the freedom to deal with the assets in the ordinary course of business until the charge “crystallises”

-ves: rank below fixed charged and preferential creditors (but this can be avoided by including a negative pledge clause), ringfencing (parts of proceeds of sale may be set aside for unsecured creditors), may be avoided under Insolvency Act where no or insufficient fresh consideration for floating charge

183
Q

When will a floating charge crystallise? + what is the effect?

A

*if the chargor goes into receivership or liquidation, ceases to trade, or any other event as specified in the charge document [by operation of law OR triggered by event specified by contract]
*on crystallisation, chargor can no longer deal with the assets covered by the charge - essentially turning the floating charge into a fixed charge

184
Q

What are personal guarantees?

A

security given by individuals - they will risk losing their personal assets if the business fails

185
Q

When does a pledge arise?

A

when an asset is physically delivered by the debtor to the creditor to serve as security until the debtor has paid their debt (creditor has the right to sell the asset to settle the debt owed, provided they give sufficient notice) [possession is given to the creditor]

186
Q

What are the key terms in a charging document?

A

(1) state type of security
(2) representations and warranties: borrower to make statements relating to the assets which it is charging (i.e. revealing all relevant information) - breach will give lender right to terminate the loan agreement
(3) covenants by borrower
(4) enforcement and lender’s powers

187
Q

What are the obligations relating to registration of charge + who is responsible?

A

no obligations - CA 2006 introduced a voluntary system of registration (but in practice, there is huge incentive to register due to the consequences of failing to do so)
*company or a person interested in the charge may decide to register it
(1) within 21 days of creation of charge, company or any persons interested in the charge must file at Companies House a statement of particulars (form MR01), a certified copy of the instrument creating the charge, fee
(2) Registrar must register charge and include the certified copy of the charge on the register
(3) Registrar must give the person who delivered the document a certificate of registration - this is conclusive evidence that the charge is properly registered
(4) statement of particulars (MR01) and certified copy will be put on the company’s file: available for public inspection

*if charge over land, must be registered at Land Registry, otherwise a buyer could acquire land without being subject to the fixed charge

188
Q

What is the effect of properly registering a charge (e.g. all documents delivered on time)?

A

charge will be fully valid against another creditor of the company or an administrator/liquidator of the company

189
Q

What happens if the charge is not properly registered within the specified time frame?

A

company will still be obliged to repay debt - but lender cannot enforce security (it is as if security was not granted) + lender will be treated as any other unsecured creditor
*void

190
Q

When may a court extend the statutory specified time frame?

A

limited power given to court: if the failure to deliver the required documents was accidental or due to inadvertence, or if would not prejudice the position of other creditors or shareholders of the company

191
Q

What powers of rectification does the court have in respect to documents delivered to the Registrar for registration?

A

can allow rectification of any statement or notice delivered for any inaccurate details and to order the replacement of a document on the register

192
Q

What are the administrative requirements imposed on the company in relation to the charging certificate and MR01?

A

must be kept for inspection at company’s registered office or SAIL (failure is a criminal offence, but will not affect the validity of the charge)

193
Q

What should be done when loan is repaid/lender decides to release borrower’s property from charge?

A

person with an interest in the registration of the charge may, but is not obliged to, complete, sign and send form MR04 to Registrar of Companies at Companies House

194
Q

What is the general rule on priority of fixed charges?

A

first fixed charge (with reference to creation date, NOT registration) > second fixed charge

195
Q

What is the general rule on priority of floating charges?

A

first floating charge (with reference to creation date, NOT registration) > second floating charge

196
Q

What is the general rule on priority as between fixed and floating charges over the same asset?

A

provided that a fixed charge is properly registered, this will take priority over a floating charge created before it

197
Q

What is a “negative pledge” clause (in floating charge documents)?

A

*clause prohibits the company from creating later charges with priority to the floating charge (i.e. fixed charge or mortgage) without the floating charge holder’s permission
*any later fixed charge holder which has (actual) notice/knowledge of the negative pledge when it took security will take its security subject to the original lender’s prior-ranking claim on the secured asset (knowledge acquired if conducted a search of company’s records at Companies House and sees certified copy of the charging document)

198
Q

What can creditors do to alter the order of priority of their charges?

A

enter into an agreement (deed of priority) between themselves (subordination)

199
Q

How can a company enter into a contract?

A

contracts can be entered into by a company using company seal or on behalf of the company by a person acting under its authority

200
Q

How can a company execute a deed?

A

(a) affix seal, or
(b) signature of 2 authorised signatories (director or company secretary), or
(c) signature of director in the presence of a witness who attests the signature
+ document must be delivered as a deed (i.e. clear on the face of it that it is intended to be a deed(

201
Q

What is the rule on using company seal in Model Articles?

A

document must also be signed by at least one authorised person (director, company secretary, or other authorised person) in the presence of a witness who attests the signature

202
Q

What does the profit and loss account show + what does the balance sheet show?

A

*profit and loss: shows how profitable the business is
*balance sheet: shows what the business is worth, taking into account all of its assets and liabilities
[profitability does not mean that business can pay its debts]

203
Q

How is gross profit calculated?

A

income received from sales - (direct) costs of sales [this will be shown on the trading account]

204
Q

How is net profit calculated?

A

take gross profit and factor in any other income/expenses [this will be shown in the profit and loss account]

205
Q

What is an opening balance?

A

money the business owner paid into the business when first started

206
Q

What are drawings?

A

money the business owner has taken out of the business since it started trading

207
Q

What is the difference between fixed and current assets?

A

*fixed assets are used in the business to enable it to run effectively / current assets are short-term assets

208
Q

In what order do assets appear in the balance sheet?

A

in increasing order of liquidity - i.e. how easy it should be to turn the asset into cash to meet its short-term liabilities (premises/stock > debt [reasonably liquid as they are likely to be paid in cash of businesses can sell debts on to a debtor factor] > cash)

209
Q

What is the difference between current and long-term liabilities?

A

*current are those repayable in 12 months
*long-term are repayable more than 12 months from the date of the balance sheet

210
Q

How is net curret assets calculated?

A

current assets - current liabilities [shows the business’ liquidity]

211
Q

How is net assets calculated?

A

(current assets + fixed assets) - (current liabilities + long-term liabilities) [this figure will equal to the amount owing to the business owner as capital at the end of the year]

212
Q

On what basis are final accounts prepared?

A

*accural: which means that income and expenses are recorded in the period to which they relate to instead of in the period when payment or receipt actually occurs

213
Q

What adjustments made need to be made on the final accounts?

A

*add outstanding expenses/unpaid bills (as current liability + shown as accrual)
*add prepayments (as current asset on balance sheet)
*work in progress (that has not been billed) (to appear as an additional current asset on balance sheet + profit costs in profits and loss account)
*closing stock [i.e. stock the business did not sell during the accounting period]: add as current asset to show that business will be starting the next accounting year with some stock already purchased
*bad/doubtful debts (when debtors don’t pay) - will not be shown on balance sheet, but to appear as an expense on profits and loss account (essentially writing off the debt or as “provision for doubtful debts”)
*depreciation/revaluation [shown as an expense item on profit and loss account]
*if assets are sold for more than the figure recorded in the accounts, it will be shown as profit (or if undervalue, shown as loss)

214
Q

What does an appropriation account show? [partnerships]

A

how net profit is divided between partners

215
Q

What does the share capital account record? [companies] + how is this shown on a balance sheet?

A

all the shareholders’ contributions
*on balance sheet, “capital and reserves”/”financed by”/”equity” section shows how much shareholders have contributed
*if shareholders pay a premium, this will be shown in the share premium account

216
Q

How should the final accounts be prepared to show tax liability?

A

*generally, companies can pay corporation tax 9 months after the end of accounting period - therefore when the final accounts are prepared, at the end of the accounting period, the company would not have paid any tax on its profits
(1) profit and loss account should show company’s profits before and after tax
(2) tax due to HMRC will appear on balance sheet as a current liability (under “provision for tax”)

217
Q

How would you record the payment of dividends on balance sheet?

A

reduce cash figure

218
Q

What is “profit and loss reserve”?

A

retained profits - where balance of net profit, after tax and dividends, is retained in the business
*this does NOT form part of the company’s capital
*distribution to shareholder can only be made based on amount available in the profit and loss reserve

219
Q

How would you record allotment of shares on balance sheet?

A

increase net asset value and net current assets value by the sale price of share being sold x total number of shares being sold (adding to cash) + adjust in capital employed accordingly

220
Q

When can a director approve accounts?

A

to approve accounts, directors must be satisfied that they give a true and fair view of the assets, liabilities, and financial position of the company (directors can incur civil and criminal lialiity for untrue or misleading statements in company’s accounts)

221
Q

What types of companies are exempt from having their accounts audited?

A

small and dormant companies - although shareholders holding 10% or more of the nominal issued share capital may require the company to have its accounts audited

222
Q

With reference to what standards must a company prepare its accounts?

A

CA 2006 requires companies to prepare “Companies Act Individual Accounts” complying with UK standards,
or “International Accounting Standards Individual Accounts” complying with international standards

223
Q

What requirements are common between the two standards? (including additional reports that must be produced)

A

*both require the preceding financial year’s figures to be shown alongside the equivalent figures for the current financial year - this enables comparisons to be made between financial years so directors can identify changes and patterns emerging in the accounts

additional reports:
*strategic report: review of the company’s business
*chair’s report (not a strict requirement): report will explain what has happened to the company over the course of the financial year, but may not necessarily be an objective assessment of performance as chair is likely to present company in best light possible
*directors’ report
*auditor’s report
*explanatory notes to expand on information on profit and loss account and balance sheet

224
Q

How are trading profits/losses calculated?

A

chargeable receipts - (deductible expenditure + capital allowance)

225
Q

What are chargeable receipts?

A

money received for the sale of goods and services - receipts must derive from the business’s trade

226
Q

What is deductible expenditure?

A

expenditure that is of an income nature & incurred wholly and exclusively for the trade + deduction must not be prohibited by statute
*e.g. stock, utility bills, salaries, rent on commercial premises, contributions to an approved pension scheme for directors/employees, interest payments on borrowings, insurance
*wholly and exclusively: must not have a dual purpose (although HMRC allows some expenses to be apportioned so that part is deductible)

227
Q

What are capital allowances?

A

allows for the deduction of a proportion of the costs of most capital items from chargeable receipts
(1) writing down allowance: each financial year, business is entitled to a writing down allowance of 18% of the value of the business’s plant and machinery at the start of the financial year
*if an asset is sold, proceeds of sale are deducted from the value of the whole pool
(2) annual investment allowance: allows businesses to deduct the whole cost of plant and machinery purchased in that particular accounting period - up to £1,000,000 of qualifying expenditure on plant and machinery [after the £1,000,000, may claim a writing down allowance on balance]
*assets acquired can be second-hand or refurbished
*a group of companies can only receive one annual investment allowance for the group in each accounting period

228
Q

What is full expensing and who does it apply to?

A

only companies - allows them to deduct 100% of the cost of plant and machinery purchased in that particular accounting period and there is no cap [from 1 Apr 2023-31 Mar 2026]
*asset must be brand new
*on disposal of the asset, a balancing charge is applied equal to 100% of the disposal value (i.e. 100% disposal value added to taxable profits)

229
Q

What is start-up loss relief/early trade losses relief for income tax?

A

*available when the taxpayer suffers a loss in any of the first 4 tax years of the new business
*loss can be carried back and set against the taxpayer’s total income in the 3 tax years immediately prior to the tax year of loss + loss must be set against earlier years before later years
*taxpayer must claim for relief within 1 year of the 31 Jan following the tax year of loss
*cap: £50,000 or 25% of the taxpyer’s income in the tax year in relation to which the relief is claimed (whichever is greater) + must be in relation to income from sources other than trade which produced loss

230
Q

What is carry-across/one-year carry-back relief for income tax?

A

(a) set losses against total income from the same tax year
(b) set losses against total income from the tax year preceding the tax year of loss
(c) set losses against total income from the same tax year until that income is reduced to 0, with the balance of loss being set against total income from the tax year preceding the tax year of loss
(d) set losses against total income from tax year preceding tax year of loss until 0, with balance of loss being used to set against total income from tax year of loss
*taxpayer must claim for relief within 1 year of the 31 Jan following tax year of loss
*cap as with start-up loss relief

231
Q

What is carry-forward relief for income tax?

A

*taxpayer can carry forward their trading loss - set it against subsequent profits which the trade produces in later years (taking earlier years first) [NOT total income]
*carry forward can happen indefinitely until loss is fully absorbed - but TP must notify HMRC of its intention to claim the relief no more than 4 years after the end of the tax year in which the loss was incurred

232
Q

What is carry-back terminal trading loss for income tax?

A

*any loss incurred by a taxpayer in the final 12 months of trading can be carried across and set against trading profits in the final tax year and set against trading profits in the 3 years preceding the year of loss (starting with the year preceding the year of loss and moving backwards)
*no cap
*a claim must be made no more than 4 years after the end of the tax year to which the claim relates

233
Q

What is carry-forward relief on incorporation of business?

A

*any trading losses which have not been relieved on incorporation can be carried forward and set against any income taxpayer receives from the company
*80% or more of the consideration for the business transferred must be shares in the company
*no cap
*losses can be carried forward indefinitely but TP must notify HMRC of its intention to claim relief no more than 4 years after the end of tax year of loss

234
Q

How is taxable income calculated?

A

total income - (reliefs + personal allowance)

235
Q

What income is not chargeable to income tax?

A

*interest on damages for personal injuries or death
*interest on saving certificates
*certain state benefits
*premium bond winnings
*income from investment in an ISA

236
Q

When will income be received post-tax deduction and how is this dealt with in income tax calculations?

A

salary - payee receives the net amount and employer pays the employee’s income tax directly to HMRC through PAYE system
*use gross figure for income tax calculation

237
Q

What are the allowable reliefs?

A

*interest payments on qualifying loans:
(a) loan to buy a share in a partnership, or to contribute capital or make a loan to a partnership
(b) loan to invest in a close trading company
(c) loan to personal representatives to pay IHT
*pension contributions (for higher rate tax payers who contribute to a private pension scheme)

238
Q

What is personal allowance?

A

*certain amount of income everyone is allowed to earn each year before they start paying income tax
*any unused personal allowance CANNOT be carried forward for use in future years, unless marriage allowance applies
*where a taxpayer’s income exceeds £100,000, personal allowance is adjusted with reference to the following formula = £12,570 - ((net income - £100,000)/2) [rounded to the nearest £1]

239
Q

What is marriage allowance?

A

where a person does not have enough income to use their personal allowance fully for that tax year, they can transfer £1,260 of their personal allowance to their spouse/civil partner - this is NOT available if the recipient is a higher or additional rate taxpayer

240
Q

What is blind person’s allowance?

A

taxpayer must be registered blind + they receive an additional allowance of £2,870

241
Q

When would a taxpayer not be required to declare property income/trading income or submit a tax return?

A

where gross income is below £1,000

242
Q

How do you calculate the tax payable for each type of income (NSNDI, savings, dividends)?

A

(1) after working out taxable income, separate NSNDI, savings (interest) and dividend income [personal allowance is said to apply first to NSNDI]
(2) calculate tax liability for NSNDI
(3) calculate tax liability for savings
(4) calculate tax liability for dividends

243
Q

What is starting rate for savings?

A

if income other than savings is less than £17,570, starting rate for savings is a max of £5,000
*starting rate decreases by £1 by every £1 of other income above personal allowance (£12,570)
this is applied first before personal savings allowance

244
Q

What is the amount of personal savings allowance? [savings nil rate band]

A

*for basic rate payers: £1,000
*for higher rate: £500
*additional rate: no allowance

245
Q

What is the amount of dividend allowance? [dividends bil rate band]

A

£1,000 for all taxpayers

246
Q

For soletraders trading before 2023/24 tax year, how is their tax assessed if accounting period and tax year do not coincide?

A

new business on Jan 1 2021
(1) first assessment: 1 Jan 2021-5 Apr 2021
(2) second assessment: 1 Jan 2021-31 Dec 2021
*overlap is recoverable in the closing tax year of business

247
Q

For soletraders that started trading in 2023/24 tax year, how is their tax assessed if accounting period and tax year do not coincide?

A

profits and losses will be apportioned between the different tax years

248
Q

What is the income tax relief under the Enterprise Investment Scheme?

A

individual can deduct from their income tax liability for the year a sum equal to 30% of the amount they have invested in the ordinary shares of specific companies (generally higher risk small to medium sized unquoted companies) - must not be connected with company (i.e. shareholding not to exceed 30%)

249
Q

What are “earnings” for the purpose of income tax for employees?

A

all benefits received by the employee which derive from their office or employment as a reward for their services - can be paid by the employer or a third party
*salary, non-cash benefits, bonuses, tips, lump sums payable at the beginning or end of person’s employment, compensation or damages for unfair/wrongful dismissal (£30,000 tax free) + (NOT personal gifts)

250
Q

When would an employee not have to pay tax for benefit of rent-free or low rent accommodation?

A

where it is necessary for the employee to live on the premises to perform duties (e.g. caretaker) or where accommodation is provided so that employee can perform their duties better and it is customary in that type of employment to have their accommodation provided

251
Q

What expenses are deductible for income tax of employees?

A

*expenses which are incurred wholly, exclusively and necessarily in the performance of their duties
[except travel: need not be wholly and exclusively incurred]
*employees are not permitted to deduct any expenditure which has been reimbursed by their employer

252
Q

What is the procedure for self-assessment tax return?

A

*individual must complete a tax return, declaring all their income for the tax year + any income tax which has been deducted at source should be included on the tax return (and taxpayer’s liability will be reduced by the amount of income tax already paid)
*HMRC must be notified that taxpayer has liability to tax within 6 months of the relevant tax year
*online tax return and any payment must be filed by 31 Jan following the tax year to which the return relates
*if paper submission, deadline is before 31 Oct following the tax year to which return relates

payment:
(1) by 31 Jan in the tax year in question [approx 1/2 based on taxpayer’s previous year’s accounts]
(2) by 31 July after the end of tax year
(3) any balancing payment paid the following 31 Jan

253
Q

What is the test for finding an abusive tax arrangement + what is HMRC entitled to do upon a finding?

A

(1) there is an arrangement + it would be reasonable to conclude that the obtaining of a tax advantage was the main purpose, or one of the main purposes, of the arrangement
(2) the arrangement is abusive: entering into/carrying out the arrangement cannot reasonably be regarded as a reasonable course of action in relation to the relevant tax provisions - double reasonableness test

HMRC will notify the taxpayer of why it considers that a tax advantage has arisen to the taxpayer from abusive tax arrangements + HMRC can make adjustments to tax liability (taxpayer may make written representations in their defence and matter will be referred to the GAAR Advisory Panel)

254
Q

What is capital gains tax payable on?

A

on chargeable gains made by a chargeable person on the disposal of chargeable assets in a tax year

255
Q

What is a chargeable asset?

A

all forms of property, including debts, options, + incorporeal property - but NOT disposal of cash in sterling

256
Q

What expenditure is deducted to calculate chargeable gain?

A

(1) initial expenditure: cost price of asset, incidental costs of acquisition
(2) subsequent expenditure: expenditure wholly and exclusively incurred in establishing, preserving or defending title to the asset, expenditure wholly and exclusively incurred to enhance the value of the asset (which is reflected in the value of the asset at the time of disposal)
*excludes cost of normal maintenance, repairs and insurance (e.g. normal redecorating) [these are NOT deductible]
(3) incidental costs of disposal

257
Q

When will indexation be relevant for capital gains tax calculations?

A

where assets were owned between 31 Mar 1982 and 5 Apr 1998

258
Q

What is replacement of business assets (“rollover”) relief? [for companies and individuals]

A

*enables one to sell qualifying business assets without paying CGT, provided the proceeds of sale are invested in other qualifying business assets
*the gain is notionally deducted from the acquisition cost of the replacement asset, which gives a lower acquisition cost to use in CGT calculations when the replacement asset is disposed of in the future
(1) must relate to qualifying asset: i.e. used in the trade of the business rather than being held as an investment
*shares and securities are not qualifying assets
*relief does not apply to goodwill and other IP
*if an individual shareholder owns the asset, the company must be the shareholder’s “personal” company - i.e. they hold at least 5% of voting shares
(2) taxpayer must acquire the replacement asset within 1 year before or 3 years after the disposal of the original asset, unless HMRC allows the taxpayer an extended time period to claim
(3) taxpayer must claim relief within 4 years from the end of the tax year in which they acquire the replacement asset (or if later, within 4 years from the end of the tax year in which the original asset is sold)

259
Q

What is rollover relief on incorporation of a business? [individuals]

A

*applies when an individual sells their interest in an unincorporated business to a company
(1) business must be transferred as a going concern with all its assets (other than cash) - i.e. post-transfer it must by carried on as the same business but with different owner
(2) consideration must all be in shares issued by the company - if only part of consideration was shares, only that % of gain will be rolled over
*HMRC applies this relief automtically, unless the taxpayer chooses not to use it
*gain is rolled over so that CGT is payable when the individual disposes of the shares in the company

260
Q

What is hold-over relief on gifts? [individuals]

A

(1) there has been a gift or sale at an undervalue (whereby the gift element qualifies)
(2) must be a chargeable business asset:
*those used in the donor’s trade
*shares in a trading company not listed on a recognised stock exchange (AIM is not deemed to be a stock exchange)
*shares in a personal trading company even if the company is listed on a stock exchange
*assets owned by the shareholder and used by their personal trading company
(3) both donor and donee must elect to apply the relief - within 4 years from the end of the tax year of the disposal

*donee’s acquisition cost will be the market value of the asset minus donor’s gain

261
Q

What is business asset disposal relief? [individuals]

A

when sole trader or individual partner disposes of the whole or part of the business:
(1) business is disposed of as a going concern + business must have been owned throughout the period of 2 years ending with the date of disposal
(2) where assets are disposed of following cessation of the business, assets must used in the business at the time of cessation of business + owned throughout the period of 2 years ending with the cessation of the business + the disposal is within 3 years after cessation of business

when shareholder sells assets:
(1) owned the assets but let personal company use them for at least one year ending with disposal

where company shares are being disposed of:
(a) company is a trading company
(b) company is the disponer’s personal company
(c) disponer is an employee or officer of the company
(d) requirements above must be satisfied throughout the period of 2 years ending with date of disposal or ending with the date the company ceased to be a trading company provided that disposal was within 3 years of cessation of trading

*effect of relief is that taxpayer will pay a flat rate of 10% on gains + this is subject to a lifetime cap of £1 million of qualifying gains
*relief must be claimed on or before the first anniversary of 31 Jan following the tax year in which the qualifying disposal was made

262
Q

What are wasting assets and the effect on CGT?

A

*assets with a predictable life of less than 50 years e.g. consumer goods
*if tangible moveable property increases in value, they are exempt from CGT if the consideration for the disposal is £6,000 or less

263
Q

What is private residence relief?

A

*applies to gains made by individuals who dispose of a dwelling house, including grounds of up to 1/2 hectare
*individual must have occupied dwelling house as their only or main residence through their period of ownership (last 9 months of ownership are ignored)

264
Q

When is CGT payable on disposal to spouse/civil partner?

A

only where you and spouse/civil partner are deemed not to be living together - i.e. separated under court order, a formal deed of separation, or in circumstances that the separation is likely to be permanent
+ in each case, marriage or civil partnership must have been broken down
(we are not looking at whether they actually live together)

*on disposal of the asset, the annual exemption is as between the spouses/civil partners: £12,000

265
Q

How is the annual exemption applied?

A

generally, annual exemption is deducted from the taxpayer’s total net gain - but they may choose to apply it first to the gains that attract the higher tax rates if the taxpayer has gains on more than 1 disposal which are subject to tax at different rates (e.g. residential property) [£6,000]

266
Q

What are the rates of CGT?

A

*if chargeable asset is residential property but not taxpayer’s main residence, the gains are subject to a surchage of 8% (i.e. 18% or 28%)
basic rate taxpayer: 10% / higher or additional rate taxpayer and PRs: 20%

267
Q

How can you carry forward capital losses?

A

deduct losses brought forward to reduce remaining gains to the limits of the annual exemption + can carry forward unabsorded losses indefinitely

268
Q

How is CGT calculated where the partnership disposes of its assets?

A

each partner will be treated as having made a separate disposal of part of the asset - based on their percentage ownership of the partnership’s assets

269
Q

When would CGT be payable (rather than income tax) when a shareholder sells their shares back to a company?

A

all following conditions are met:
(a) buyer is trading company and its shares are not listed on a recognised stock exchange
(b) purpose of the buyback is to raise cash to pay IHT or for the benefit of the company’s trade
(c) seller must have owned the shares they are selling back to the company for at least 5 years
(d) seller must either be selling all of their shares or substantially reducing their percentage shareholder (by at least 25%) to a max of 30% of the issued share capital of the company

270
Q

When is CGT payable?

A

generally payable by 31 Jan following the end of the tax year (+ must be reported by 31 Dec following the end of the tax year - i.e. disposal in 2023/24 tax year: report by 31 Dec 2024 + pay by Jan 2025)
[or within 30 days of reporting if later]

271
Q

What must a taxpayer do if they sale residential property in relation to reporting?

A

taxpayer must submit a provisional calculation of any gains made from the sale of a residential property and pay any tax due within 60 days following completion of sale

272
Q

When can CGT be payable in instalments?

A

*option for payment by 10 annual instalment - all following conditions must be met (rare for this to apply):
(1) disposal was a gift
(2) asset was land or an estate or interest in land, shares or securities of a company (donor had control of the company), shareholding in a company whose shares are unquoted
(3) holdover relief does not apply
*first payment will be due by 31 Jan following the end of the tax year in which the disposal was made

273
Q

What are the corporation tax rates?

A

(1) companies with taxable profits of up to £50,000: 19%
(2) companies with taxable profits of more than £250,000: 25%
(3) companies with taxable profits of £50,001-£250,000: maginal rate - corporation tax is tapered so that companies in this bracket are charged at an overall corporation tax rate of between 19-25%
*generally, for calculations, apply 19% to first £50,000 and rate of 26.5% to balance

274
Q

When is indexation relevant to corporation tax calculations?

A

where asset was owned between 31 Mar 1982 and 31 Dec 2017
*you will calculate chargeable gain as normal and then deduct from it indexation allowance (which is calculated by applying indexation % to intial and subsequent expenditure)

275
Q

What is carry-across/carry-back relief? [corporation tax]

A

*loss to be set against total profits for the same accounting period + if not all absorded, carry back and set against total profits from accounting period falling in the previous 12 months on condition that the company is carrying on the same trade
*claim for relief must be made within 2 years from the end of the accounting period in which loss was incurred

276
Q

What is terminal carry-back relief? [corporation tax]

A

*where company ceases to trade - can carry back any trading losses from the final 12 months of trading and set them against the company’s total profits from any accounting period(s) falling in the 3 years before the start of that 12 months, taking later periods first
*claim for relief must be made within 2 years from the end of the accounting period in which loss was incurred

277
Q

What is carry-forward relief? [corporation tax]

A

*set losses against subsequent profits in next accounting period on condition that company continues to trade [can be applied until loss is fully absorded]
*claim must usually be made within 2 years of the end of the accounting period in which the company will apply the losses
*max amount that can be claimed is £5 million (de minimis) plus 50% of remaining total profits after deduction of the de minimis allowance

278
Q

What is a close company?

A

(1) a company which is under the control of 5 or fewer participators
(2) a company which is under the control of any number of participators if those participators are directors
(3) a company more than half the assets of which would be distributed to five or fewer participators, or to participators who are directors, in the event of the winding up of the company
*participators: a person who owns shares in the company or has the right to acquire shares
*control: participator owns more than half the shares in the company or right to acquire more than 1/2

279
Q

What must a close company do if it loans money to a participator or their associate (close relative or business partner)?

A

company must pay to HMRC an amount of money equivalent to 33.75% of loan - this payment will be refunded to the company if and when the participator/associate repays the loan or if the loan is written off
*exceptions:
(a) loan is made in the ordinary course of a money-lending business, or
(b) loan is no more than £15,000 and borrower works full-time for the company and owns no more than 5% of the company’s ordinary shares

280
Q

When do you have a group of companies for the purposes of group relief and how does this work?

A

*to be a group, one company must be the 75% subsidiary of the other OR both companies must be 75% subsidiaries of a third company
*transferor can surrender trading losses and management expenses to the transferee - losses/expenses must have been incurred in an accounting period that overlaps with the accounting period of the transferee

281
Q

When do you have a group of companies for the purposes of relief for chargeable gains and how does this work?

A

*group consists of a company, its direct 75% subsidiaries and the first 75% subsidiaries of those subsidiaries (subsidiaries are effectively 51% subsidiaries of the principal company)
*one company can transfer a chargeable asset to the other on a tax neutral basis (disposal is treated as giving rise to no gain or loss by the transferor)
*when a company disposes of a chargeable asset outside the group, it can roll over its gain into qualifying assets that it itself acquires or those acquired by another company in the same group

282
Q

What must a company do in its first accounting period?

A

company must inform HMRC in writing of the beginning of its first accounting period within 3 months of starting that accouting period

283
Q

When must a comply file its self-assessment corporation tax return and when is corporation tax payable?

A

*deadline for filing self-assessment is 12 months from the end of the relevant accounting period
*for most companies, corporation tax is payable within 9 months and 1 day from the end of the relevant accounting period - therefore company is required to pay before filing tax return, as such, company will pay based on anticipated corporation tax liability and will make a balancing payment or receive rebate once they have a final figure for corporation tax

284
Q

When may a company be obliged to pay corporation tax in 4 instalments?

A

(a) large companies: taxable profit of £1.5 million or more
*(1) 6 months and 13 days after the start of accounting period
*(2) 3 months from first instalment due date
*(3) 3 months from second instalment due date
*(4) 3 months + 14 days after the end of the accounting period
(b) very large companies: taxable profit of £20 million or more
*(1) 2 months and 13 days after start of accounting period
*(2) 3 months from first instalment due date
*(3) 3 months from second instalment due date
*(4) 3 months from third instalment due date

285
Q

When is a company insolvent (i.e. deemed to be unable to pay its debts)?

A

*a creditor has served a statutory demand for an outstanding sum of £750 or more, and the company does not pay or come to an arrangement with the creditor within 21 days of service of the statutory demand
*a creditor has obtained judgment against the company and has tried to enforce that judgment, but debt still has not been paid in full or at all
*it can be proved to the court that the company is unable to pay its debts as they fall due (cash flow test)
*it can be proved to the court that the company’s liabilities exceed its assets (balance sheet test)

286
Q

What is liquidation?

A

the process whereby the business stops trading, its assets are sold, and company ceases to exist

287
Q

What is compulsory liquidation and when may it be brought about/what does the process involve?

A

*process of winding-up a company by the court + most frequently used by a company’s creditors (will be known as a petititoner)
(1) prove insolvency: most likely through statutory demand or obtaining judgment as rare for creditors to have sufficient information to prove cash flow/balance sheet tests are satifised
(2) petitioner will be prevented from proceeding with a winding-up petition if the company can show that there is a genuine and substantial dispute in relation to the money owed - but court has ultimate discretion
*if company indicates that it will be able to pay the debt within a reasonable period of time, court may adjourn hearing to a later date
(3) if court orders that the company should be wound up, Official Receiver (a civil servant and court official, and employed by the Insolvency Service) will automatically become the company’s liquidator
*Official Receiver can appoint a private insolvency practitioner, depending on the nature of the case and the creditors’ wishes, as long as the company has sufficient assets to pay the insolvency practitioner’s fees
*when order is made, there is an automatic stay on cases against the company
(4) Official Receiver will advertise order in the Gazette and notify Registrar of Companies

288
Q

What is creditors’ voluntary liquidation?

A

*voluntary process instigated by a board of directors - i.e. commenced by the company itself when it is insolvent (usually in response to pressure from creditors)
*court will usually only get involved if there is disagreement between individuals involved in the liquidation, liquidator asks it to determine any question arising in the liquidation, liquidator brings proceedings
(1) members pass a special resolution to liquidate company
(2) directors must, before the end of 7 days beginning with the day after the company passes resolution, make a statement as to the affairs of the company, send statement to company’s creditors + seek nomination from the company’s creditors for a person to be liquidator (by deemed consent procedure or virtual meeting) [notice must identify any liquidator nominated by the company in (1)] - the directors’ failure to comply with their notice obligations will not invalidate the nomination of the liquidator of the company or liquidation proceedings (directors will be guilty of a (criminal) offence and can be fined)
*until creditors’ decision is made, liquidator appointed by the members has only v limited powers
(3) liquidator must file a copy of resolution at Companies House and it must be advertised in the Gazette

289
Q

What is members’ voluntary liquidation?

A

*only appropriate where the company is solvent (if not, CVL) [company directors must swear a statutory declaration that the company is solvent]
*commenced by solvent company because it wishes to cease trading or because it is dormant and wishes to bring its affairs to an end in an orderly manner
(1) members to pass a special resolution to liquidate company and ordinary resolution to appoint liquidator
(2) appointment will be published in Gazette and Registrar notified
*if during an MVL, liquidator realises company is insolvent, they must convert MVL to CVL

290
Q

What is the role of the liquidator + their principal duties?

A

*once company is put in liquidation (compulsory or voluntary), directors’ powers automatically cease + liquidator will act as agent for company
*liquidators duties must be carried out within a reasonable time + principal duties are to ensure that the assets of the company are got in, realised and distributed to the creditors, and if there is a surplus, to the persons entitled to those assets

*liquidator in a compulsory liquidation is an officer of the court and is under the duty to act in an honourable fashion

291
Q

What are the powers of a liquidator?

A

*pay any class of creditor in full
*make compromises or arrangements with any creditors, persons claiming to be creditors, or having or alleging themselves to have any claim against the company
*take proceedings for fraudulent trading, wrongful trading, transactions at undervalue, preferences, transactions defrauding creditors (investigate company’s part transactions)
*bring or defend any action or other legal proceedings in the name and on behalf of the company
*carry on the business of the company so far as is necessary for its beneficial winding-up - will generally only be granted to effect a sale of the company’s assets rather than to trade for a profit indefinitely
*execute in the name and on behalf of company + use company seal
*do all such things as are necessary for the winding up of the company’s affairs and distribution of its assets - v wide power (but note liquidator’s fiduciary duty + duty to creditors: these must always be their main priority when making decisions)

292
Q

What is the definition of a preference? [company and individual]

A

where the company puts another person (creditor, surety, guarantor) in a better position, in the event that the company went into insolvent liquidation/administration, than they would have otherwise been in + company desired to prefer (needs to be more than a positive wish: i.e. need to establish intention)
*preference is given during the 6 months ending with the onset of insolvency
*company must have been insolvent at the time of the preference or have become insolvent as a result of giving the preference

293
Q

What is the effect of a connected person in determining whether there is a preference?

A

*relevant time will increase - preference to be given during the 2 years ending with onset of insolvency
*desire to prefer is presumed (but this can be rebutted - e.g. there was no other choice)

294
Q

What is the likely result if a preference is found?

A

court shall make such order as it thinks fit for restoring the position to what it would have been if the company had not given the preference: e.g. release any security given by the company, return any property transferred, payment of proceeds of sale of proeprty forming part of the transaction to the company

295
Q

What is the definition of a transaction at an undervalue? [company]

A

where a company makes a gift to another person, or enters into a transaction and receives consideration which is significantly lower than value of asset/consideration provided by the company
*relevant period is for gift/transaction to take place during the 2 years ending with the onset of insolvency
*company must have been insolvent at the time of the transaction of have become insolvent as a result of the company entering into the transaction

296
Q

What is the effect of a connected person in determining whether there is a transaction at an undervalue?

A

insolvency is presumed, but this can be rebutted

297
Q

What defence is available in relation to a transaction transferred at an undervalue?

A

there is a defence is the transaction was entered into in good faith, for the purpose of carrying on the business, and where, when the transaction was entered into, there were reasonable grounds for believing that it would benefit the company

298
Q

What is the likely result if a transaction at an undervalue is found?

A

court shall make such order as it thinks fit for restoring the position to what it would have been if the company had not entered into that transaction: e.g. recipient to pay back the difference in value between price paid and the price asset was actually worth

299
Q

What is the definition of the avoidance of a floating charge? [company]

A

a charge is automatically void/invalid where, at the relevant time, a charge is granted without the company receiving fresh consideration in exchange for granting security (essentially prevents creditors from obtaining an unfair advantage by obtaining security for historic debts)
*relevant time: during the 12 months prior to the onset of insolvency
*company must have been insolvent at the time the floating charge was given or have become insolvent as a result

300
Q

What is the effect of a connected person in determining whether there is floating charge that can be avoided?

A

*relevant time will increase - floating charge to be given during 2 years ending with the onset of insolvency
*not necessary to show that company was/became insolvent

301
Q

What are transaction defrauding creditors?

A

where company enters into a transaction at an undervalue in order to put assets beyond the reach of someone making a claim against it, or to prejudice the interests of that person in relation to any claim they might make
*there is no time limited for bringing a claim + court’s discretion to order e.g. other party to the transaction to return any property
*often v difficult to show intention to put assets beyond someone’s reach or to prejudice their interests - therefore usually such a claim is going made when the liquidator or administrator cannot bring a claim relating to a transaction at an undervalue due to expiry of time limit

302
Q

What is the onset of insolvency?

A

*for compulsory liqiudation: date of presentation of winding up petition
*for creditors’ voluntary liquidation, date that company formally enters into liquidation
*for administration, when company fiiles a notice of intention to appoint an administrator

303
Q

Who is a connected person?

A

*a director/shadow director
*someone who is, in effect, a close relative (spouse/civil partner, relative of director or of director’s spouse/civil partner) or business associate of a director/shadow director/employee
*an associate of the company: i.e. company in the same group or which is controlled by a director of the insolvent company

304
Q

What is the order for distributing assets to creditors?

A

(1) fixed charge holders will receive the amount they are owed when the asset which was the subject of fixed charge is sold - surplus is paid to liquidator + if there is a shortfall, fixed charge holder joins the pool of unsecured creditors to try and obtain some kind of contribution towards outstanding debt
(2) pay expenses of winding up: e.g. fees payable to the liquidator and their professional advisers
(3) preferential debts: (a) wages/salaries of employess for work carried out in the 4 months immediately preceding the date of the winding up order, up to £800 max per employee + (b) HMRC in relation to VAT and PAYE (not corporation tax**)
(4) money which is the subject of floating charges
(5) unsecured creditors, who rank and abate equally
(6) any remaining money is distributed to shareholders

305
Q

What may a liquidator require unsecured creditors to do?

A

“prove debt”: liquidator will send a standard form to unsecured creditors, requiring them to fill it in with details of the debt owed to them + once the liquidator has the forms, they can decide whether to approve or reject the creditors’ claims (small debts, i.e. not exceeding £1,000, are effectively admitted more or less automatically)

306
Q

What is ringfencing?

A

sets aside a portion of the available money for floating charge holders for the benefit of unsecured creditors (applicable for security created on or after 15 September 2003)
*to set aside: 50% of the first £10,000 of money received from the property which is subject to floating charge, and 20% of remaining money: up to a limit of £800,000 (limit of £600,000 applies to any charges created before 6 April 2020 or those created after but rank in priority to pre-April 2020 charges)

307
Q

What are the purposes of adminsitration?

A

in priority order:
(1) to rescue the company as a going concern
(2) to achieve a better result for the company’s creditors as a whole than would be likely if the company were wound up
(3) to realise property in order to make a distribution to one or more secured or preferential creditors
*company should only remain in administration as long as one of the 3 purposes remain reasonably capable of being achieved - if not, administrator must apply to the court to end administration

308
Q

What is the procedure for commencing administration through court route?

A

application to court for an administration order - can be made by company, directors, creditors, designated officer for a magistrates’ court
(1) present application notice, witness statement in support of application (set out company’s financial position, any security, details of any insolvency proceedings), and a statement by the proposed administrator(s)
(2) court will fix a venue, date and time for the hearing of the application
*court may make whatever order it thinks fit: e.g. make adminsitration order, dismiss application, adjourn, wind up company, make an interim order
*will only make adminsitration order if it is satisfied that company is likely to become unable to pay its debts and the adminsitration order is reasonably likely to achieve one of the 3 purposes of administration
(3) as soon as reasonably practicable after applying for administration, application shall be served on:
*any person who has appointed or is entitled to appoint an adminsitrative receiver (secured creditors) + if appointed, the administrative receiver
*any petitioner of a pending winding-up petition or a provisional liquidator
*on the company if the application is made by anyone other than the company or its directors
*on the proposed administrator
*any QFCH who is entitled to appoint an administrator

309
Q

What is the procedure for commencing administration through the out-of-court route by company/directors?

A

directors: act by simple majority / company: act by way of ordinary resolution
*out-of-court appointment cannot be made if:
(a) it has been less than 12 months since the cessation of a previous administration where adminsitrator was appointed by this out-of-court route
(b) a winding-up petition has been presented but not yet disposed of
(c) an administrator or adminsitrative receiver is in office
(c) a company is in liquidation
(d) company has entered a moratorium

(1) directors or the company to serve a notice of intention to appoint an administrator on any person who is or may be entitled to appoint an administrative receiver + any QFCH (given 5 days’ so they may appoint own choice of administrator)
(2) notice of intention must be accompanied by a statutory declaration that company is or is likely to become unable to pay its debts and company is not in liquidation (statutory declaration must be given within 5 business days of the date of the notice of intention)
(3) copy of notice of intention to appoint with any documents accompanying it must be filed at court, together with the written record of the directors’ decision or a copy of the shareholder resolution as soon as reasonably practicable
(4) file notice of appointment with the court

310
Q

Who is a qualifying floating charge holder?

A

a charge holder that is entitled under loan agreement to enforce security + charge document must:
(1) state para 14 of Sch B1 to Insolvency Act 1986 applies
(2) purport to empower the holder of charge to appoint an administrator or to empower holder of charge to appoint an administrative receiver
(3) relate to the whole or substantially the whole of the company’s property

311
Q

What is the procedure for commencing administration through the out-of-court route by qualifying floating charge holder?

A

(0) if there is another QFCH who would have priority, lender must notify them in advance to given them the opportunity to appoint the administrator they wish
*out-of-court appointment cannot be made if:
(a) there is a provisional liquidator or an administrative receiver already appointed
(b) company is in liquidation or administration
(c) company has entered a moratorium

(0) QFCH may serve a notice of intention to appoint an administrator with court (to take advantage of brief moratium period - i.e. not strictly necessary cf out-of-court route by company/directors)
(1) lender must file notice of appointment with the court, containing:
*(i) name and address of the administrator(s)
*(ii) a statutory declaration by or on behalf of QFCH that the appointer is the holder of a qualifying floating charge, that floating charge is enforceable, and that appointment is being made in accordance with Schedule B1 (declaration cannot be made any earlier than 5 business days before filing)
*(iii) confirm whether a notice of intention was given to a holder of prior floating charge + if the notice of intention was not filed with the court, it must be attached to the notice of appointment

312
Q

What happens when an administration starts?

A

(1) moratorium comes into effect
(2) there will be a stay in insolvency proceedings and other legal proceedings
(3) administrator will act over the company and carry out its role (administrator does not own company’s assets but have control over them) - directors’ powers cease

313
Q

What are the administrators’ powers?

A

*remove and appoint directors
*pay creditors, but only with the court’s permission if the payment is to an unsecured creditor
*call a meeting of creditors/shareholders
*deal with property that is subject to a floating charge
*deal with property that is subject to a fixed charge with the permission of the court
*investigate and apply to have the company’s past transactions set aside or challenged
*commence fraudulent or wrongful trading proceedings against directors
*anything necessary or expedient for the management of the affairs, business, and property of the company

314
Q

What is the adminsitrator’s duty in regards to putting forward proposals + generally?

A

no later than 8 weeks following appointment, administrator must forward to creditors a statement setting out their proposals for achieving the purpose of administration (8-week period can be extended if there is good reason)
*administrator’s proposals will be approved if a majority in value of the creditors, present and voting, vote in favour of them - provided that those who vote against the proposals do not constitute more than 50% of the creditors who are unconnected to the company

administrators must perform their duties in the interest of all the company’s creditors as a whole

315
Q

When does administration end?

A

*ends automatically after 1 year, but this can be extended
*may be ended earlier by application to court (e.g. if objective reached or administrator believes objective cannot be achieved)

316
Q

What is a pre-pack administration?

A

process through which company is put into administration and its business and/or assets are immediately sold by administrator under a sale that was arranged before the administrator was appointed
*often this route makes it more likely that jobs are saved but unsecured creditors are not consulted and are unlikely to receive much in payment of the debts they are owed

317
Q

What is a company voluntary arrangement?

A

written agreement which binds all unsecured creditors to it as long as the statutory procedures are followed (including those who vote against it) - usually creditors agree to wait longer to receive what they are owed and/or receive part payment of debt
*usually used when the company’s business is potentially fundamentally sound, but it is undergoing temporary cash flow difficulty and seeks to prevent liquidation
*nominee will be appointed to implement and supervise CVA (must be a licenced insolvency practitioner)

318
Q

When and how does a CVA come into force?

A

*comes into force when the company’s creditors approve a CVA proposal made in respect of the company
*approval of a CVA proposal by the company’s creditors requires a vote in favour by at least 75% (by value) of the creditors who vote on it (i.e. present and willing to vote) + no more than 50% (by value) of any creditors who vote against the proposal are creditors who are unconnected with the company
+ shareholders need to approve by simple majority
*secured creditors cannot vote, apart from in relation to any part of the debt owed to them that is unsecured
*proposal will be binding in relation to past debts, but not future debts

319
Q

How may a CVA be challenged?

A

*can be challenged within 28 days of the chairman’s report of meetings/decisions being filed at court
2 grounds: unfairly prejudicial or there has been some material irregularity at or in relation to meetings/decision procedure

320
Q

What are schemes of arrangement?

A

statutory procedure whereby a company may make a compromise or arrangement with its members of creditors
*will involve 2 court hearings and meetings of creditor and shareholders
*more expensive than CVA

321
Q

What are restructuring plans under Part 26A Companies Act 2006?

A

*Part 26A provides for a company to enter into a restructuring plan with the approval of its creditors or members - this is a court-supervised arrangement/compromise between the company and all of its secured and unsecured creditors and shareholders
*it is available to eliminate, reduce, prevent or mitigate the adverse effect on a company’s ability to carry on business as a going concern cause by serious financial difficulties the company encounters or is likely to encounter: there is no need for insolvency (no statutory guidance on what constitutes financial difficulties, but likely to be given a broad interpretation)
*can be used by a company that does not intend to carry on business as a going concern

322
Q

What is the procedure for implementing a restructuring plan?

A

*usually, directors will prepare the plan and apply to court for approval to call meetings of the company’s creditors and shareholders (creditors/shareholders may do this to, but often they don’t have the detailed info needed for meetings) -
(1) court hearing 1: creditors can make representations
*permission to convene granted if satisfied that company encountering financial difficulties affecting ability to carry on business and plan proposed for the reason of eliminating, reducing, mitigating, preventing the effect of the financial difficulties
(2) creditor and shareholder meetings will be held
*the requirement for approval of a restructuring plan is for a 75% majority in value of each voting class
(3) court hearing 2: court will decide whether to sanction proposed plan (only relevant where one class of creditors votes against the plan)
*Part 26A restructuring plans benefit from a “cross-class cram down” provision: this allows the court to sanction the plan as binding even if a dissenting group in a class of creditors or members results in the plan not being agreed by 75% in value of that class - this stops obstructive investors holding the company to ransom, BUT only applies where those investors would be no worse off under the plan + plan has been approved by at least one class of creditors/members who would receive payment or have a genuine economic interest in the company in the event of a relevant alternative (what the court considers would be most likely to occur if the plan was not sanctioned)

323
Q

What is a free-standing statutory moratorium?

A

*insolvency process designed to allow financially distressed incorproated entitites a short breathing space from enforcement action by certain types of creditors while they organise their affairs to make their rescue viable
[will still need to pay employees’ wages or salaries arising under a contract of employment, monitor’s remuneration or expenses, goods/services supplied during moratorium]
*during moratorium, company’s directors remain in control, but a qualified insolvency practitioner acts as an independent monitor (has oversight of the moratorium and can terminate it)

324
Q

What are the eligibility requirements for a free-standing statutory moratorium?

A

*company must be unable to pay its debts or likely to become unable to pay its debts
*company must not have already entered into a moratorium during the previous 12 months
*certain companies are subject to a blanket ban (e.g. banks under the financial services exception, insurance companies, parties to capital market arrangements)
*must be an English company with no outstanding winding up petition against them

325
Q

What is the procedure for obtaining a free-standing statutory moratorium?

A

(1) must be proposed by the company’s directors + they are to file the relevant documents at court
(2) proposed monitor must confirm that it is likely that the moratorium will result in the rescue of the company as a going concern

326
Q

How long will a free-standing statutory moratorium last?

A

lasts 20 business days beginning with the business day after the moratorium comes into force (i.e. date of filing documents or court order)
*can be extended for a further 20 business days by filing certain documents at court
*directors can extend moratorium for a period of up to 1 year if the creditors who are not going to get paid because their debts are suspended under the moratorium consent

327
Q

Who are Law of Property Act 1925 receivers?

A

*receivers appointed to deal with/sell charged property so that creditor can be paid
*LPA receivers do NOT need to be licensed insolvency practitioners

328
Q

Who may appoint administrative receivers + how?

A

*administrative receivers can be appointed by floating charge holders when floating charge is over the company’s whole undertaking
*only used for floating charges created before 15 September 2003
*loan agreement will list the events which trigger the lender being able to appoint an adminsitrative receiver
*administrative receiver will run the company and sell charged assets (using proceedings to pay their own costs and pay the charge holder what they are owed under the loan secured by the charge)

329
Q

When is an individual deemed to be insolvent?

A

*when debt is payable now, but the debtor does not currently have enough money to pay
*when debt is payable in the future + there is no reasonable prospect that the debtor will be able to pay

330
Q

What are the 3 ways a creditor can prove that an individual is insolvent?

A

(1) serve a statutory demand for a liquidated sum of £5,000 or more and wait 3 weeks to see whether the debtor pays or applies to court to set aside the statutory demand
(2) serve a statutory demand in respect of a future liability to pay a debt of £5,000 or more and wait 3 weeks to see whether debtor (a) shows a reasonable prospect of being able to pay the sum when it falls due, or (b) applies to court to set aside the statutory demand
(3) obtain a court judgment for a debt of £5,000 or more and attempts to execute judgment have been made without success

331
Q

What is bankruptcy?

A

process whereby the debtor’s assets pass to a trustee in bankruptcy, whose job is to pay as many of the debts as possible to the debtor’s creditors
*during the bankruptcy process (generally, 1 year), debtor/the bankrupt will be subject to restrictions on their activities and spending

332
Q

How can creditor start bankruptcy process?

A

by petition at court
(1) creditor is entitled to present a bankruptcy petition at court if they are owed £5,000 or more (liquidated fixed sum) - if creditor is owed less, they may join other creditors and petition together
(2) creditor must show that the debtor is unable to pay their debt or has little prospect of being able to (i.e. 3 tests)
(3) creditor must pay a deposit to meet the costs of the trustee in bankruptcy and court fee
*usually, petition must be presented at the debtor’s local County Court Hearing Centre, as long as it has jurisdiction in bankruptcy matters
(4) creditor must arrange for personal service of petition

333
Q

How can the debtor start bankruptcy process?

A

make application online + debtor to pay fees for its application and pay a deposit in respect of the Official Receiver’s administration fees (who will act as trustee in bankruptcy)
*an adjudicator (employee of the Insolvency Service) will decide whether to make a bankruptcy order - decision will be made within 28 days from application, unless adjudicator requires further information from the debtor (in which case, decision deadline is extended to 42 days)

334
Q

What happens with the bankrupt’s assets when a bankruptcy order is made?

A

*trustee in bankruptcy takes control of the bankrupt’s assets
*if the bankrupt is a homeowner, their interest in that home passes to the trustee
*bankruptcy will be permitted to keep some assets which are needed for day-to-day living - e.g. tools for their trade + everyday household items (but if any of these items are of high value, trustee can sell them and replace with cheaper alternative)
*bankrupt is entitled to be paid their salay - but if their salary is more than what is sufficient to meet the reasonable needs of the bankrupt and their family, trustee can ask the bankrupt to enter into an income payments agreement, which requires them to pay some of their salary to the trustee to meet their liabilities [if sum to be paid cannot be agreed, apply to court for an income payments order] - agreement and order are enforceable and normally lasts for a max of 3 years

335
Q

What may a trustee in bankruptcy do in relation to the bankrupt’s home?

A

*if someone else has an interest in the house or a right of occupation, bankrupt cannot be evicted straightaway and trustee needs a court order to sell the house
*after 1 year of bankruptcy, creditors’ interests outweight those of anyone else living in the house, unless circumstances are exceptional (i.e. likely to get an order of sale)
*after 3 years, ownership of home transfers back to the bankrupt unless trustee has sold property, applied for an order for sale or possession or a charging order over the house, or entered into an agreement with the bankrupt regarding the home

336
Q

Who does the trustee in bankruptcy owe a duty to and what will they be entitled to do in relation to the bankrupt’s past transactions?

A

*duty to creditors
*they have the power to investigate and challenge past transactions with a view to increasing the assets available to repay creditors

337
Q

What does disclaiming onerous property involve?

A

*e.g. unprofitable contracts, land that has the burden of an onerous covenant, a lease which does not have a capital value to be released for the creditors’ benefit
*disclaimer would mean that all of the bankrupt’s rights and liabilities in respect of the onerous property come to an end

338
Q

When may a trustee in bankruptcy apply to set aside transactions at an undervalue?

A

there has been a gift/transaction in which bankrupt received consideration in money or money’s worth significantly lower in value than that which they provided during the 5 years prior to the presentation of the bankruptcy petition
*bankrupt does not need to be insolvent at the time of the transaction or as a result of the transaction, unless the transaction was more than 2 years before the petition
*if transaction was with an associate (close relative/business associate), there is a rebuttable presumption that the bankrupt was insolvent at the time of the transaction

339
Q

When may a trustee avoid extortionate credit transactions? (equally applicable to companies)

A

*if bankrupt has obtained any credit in the 3 years prior to the bankruptcy order being made and terms of the credit are extortionate: trustee can apply to set aside or vary terms of credit (difficult to prove “grossly exorbitant” payments required or terms have “grossly contravened… fair dealing”

340
Q

When may creditors appoint a private trustee in bankruptcy (i.e. rather than Official Receiver)?

A

when bankrupt has enough assets to fund the private trustee’s fees

341
Q

What is the order of distribution of the bankrupt’s assets (its proceeds of sale)?

A

(1) costs of bankruptcy
(2) preferential debts
(3) ordinary unsecured creditors
(4) postponed creditors: bankrupt’s spouse/civil partner

342
Q

What restrictions are placed on the bankrupt when bankruptcy order is made?

A

(1) business restrictions
*it is a criminal offence for a bankrupt to obtain credit of more than £500 without disclosing their bankruptcy
*bankrupt cannot act as a director of a company
*bankrupt cannot be involved in the management, promotion, or formation of a company, unless court grants permission
*bankrupt cannot trade under a different name without disclosing to anyone they trade with that they are an undischarged bankrupt
*bankrupt cannot continue in partnership unless partnership agreement varies default Act position
(2) personal restrictions
*bankrupt cannot obtain a credit card or have a normal current account
*bankrupt cannot practice as a solitior without leave of SRA

343
Q

What are bankruptcy restriction orders?

A

order which Official Receiver applies for - designed to protect public from those bankrupts who are considered to be “culpable” and to have caused their own bankruptcy by being dishonest, negligent, or reckless: can last 2-15 years

344
Q

What is an individual voluntary arrangement?

A

*a binding agreement between unsecured creditors, setting out how much each creditor will receive from the bankrupt in settlement of their debts
*can be sought by debtor’s trustee during bankruptcy or by the debtor to avoid bankruptcy procedure

345
Q

What is the procedure for implementing an individual voluntary arrangement?

A

(1) debtor to nominate a nominee to act with them (they will effectively formulate proposals and supervise the implementation of the arrangement if creditors approve)
(2) debtor to prepare a statement of affairs for the nominee to consider + debtor should apply to the court for an inteim order (usually in force for 14 days) to obtain a moratorium
(3) nominee to prepare a report for the court stating whether the debtor has put forward any realistic proposals + whether they are prepared to support the calling of the creditors’ decision-making process
(4) decision-making process takes place
*there needs to be agreement from 75% or more of creditors in value, of which at least 50% are not associates of the debtor, for the proposal to be approved [chair of meeting will decide whether creditor is an associate]
*every ordinary, unsecured creditor will be bound by decision even if they did not actually attend meeting
(5) if creditors approve, nominee is, from that point onwards, called a supervisor and implements proposals

346
Q

When may a supervisor petition for the debtor’s bankruptcy?

A

if debtor does not comply with IVA or if it is later discovered that the creditors accepted the debtor’s proposals based on false or misleading information

347
Q

Who may apply for a debt relief order?

A

available to debtors who assets and liabilities are low in value - i.e. not for those who:
*have total unsecured liabilities exceeding £30,000
*have total gross assets exceeding £2,000
*have a car worth £2,000 or more, unless adapted because of debtor’s disability
*have disposal income in excess of £75 per month
*have been subject to a debt relief order in the preceding 6 years
*are subject to another, formal insolvency procedure
*owns their own home

348
Q

What is the effect of a debt relief order?

A

debtor is protected from enforcement action by most of their creditors and will, in the vast majority of cases, be free of debt at the end of the order period (usually 12 months unless extended due to non-cooperation of debtor)
*during DRO, same restrictions apply as if debtor was bankrupt

349
Q

What are the breathing spaces available under the debt respite scheme?

A

(1) standard breathing space available to any client with debt problems + gives legal protection from creditor action for up to 60 days
(2) mental health crisis breathing space: available to a client who is receiving mental health crisis treatment + provides protection for as long as the client’s mental health crisis treatment lasts plus 30 days

350
Q

How can a debtor obtain breathing space?

A

debtor must apply to a debt advice provider authorised by the FCA + adviser must be satisfied that the debtor cannot pay some or all of their debts as it falls due
*debtor cannot be an undischarged bankrupt and must not be in an IVA or subject to a DRO
*debtor must not have already had another breathing space in the previous 12 months
*debt must be a qualifying debt
adviser will electronically contact creditors + advisers maintain a database of debtors who are in breathing space