Criminal Practice Flashcards

1
Q

How must persons in custody be dealt with?

A

expeditiously + therefore release them as soon as the need for detention no longer applies

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2
Q

Who is the custody officer?

A

*officer of at least the rank of sergeant
*will not be involved in the investigation
*responsible for authorising detention of the suspect and supervising their welfare whilst in police custody

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3
Q

When must a suspect be brought to the custody officer?

A

as soon as practicable

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4
Q

What initial steps must the custody officer take?

A

(1) maintain a custody record, containing:
*(a) suspect’s name, address, telephone number, DoB, occupation
*(b) offence for which the suspect has been arrested and why the arresting officer considered it necessary to arrest the suspect
*(c) time of suspect’s arrest and arrival at police station
*(d) reason why the suspect’s ongoing detention has been authorised by the custody officer
*(e) confirmation that suspect has been given details of the rights they may exercise whilst detained + whether suspect has requested legal advice from a solicitor
*(f) details of the items of property the suspect had on their person
*(g) details of any medical condition suspect suffers from
(2) authorise a search to the extent the officer considers necessary to ascertain what items the suspect has on their person
(3) determine whether there is already sufficient evidence to charge the suspect with the offence for which they have been arrested

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5
Q

If there is no sufficient evidence to charge the suspect, what should happen to the suspect?

A

suspect should be released on bail or without bail unless: custody officer has reasonable grounds for (a) believing that detaining the suspect without charge is necessary to secure or perserve evidence or (b) it is necessary to obtain such evidence by questioning
*if the custody officer becomes aware at any time that the grounds on which a suspect’s detention was authorised have ceased to apply, the suspect must be released immediately

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6
Q

What are the conditions of detention?

A

(1) cell must be adequately heated, cleaned, ventilated, and adequately lit
(2) any bedding supplied must be of reasonable standard and in a clean and sanitary condition
(3) suspect must be provided with access to toilet and washing facilities
(4) suspect must be offered at least 2 light meals and 1 main meal in any 24-hour period + drinks should be provided at meal times and upon reasonable request between meals
(5) if the custody officer considers that a suspect is injured, appears to be suffering from physical or mental disorder or appears to need clinical attention, custody officer must make arrangements for receipt of clinical attention as soon as reasonably practicable

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7
Q

What are the key rights of a suspect being detained by the police for questioning?

A

(1) right to have someone informed of the suspect’s arrest
(2) right to consult privately with a solicitor/to legal advice
(3) right to consult the Codes of Practice
(4) right to be informed about the offence - why they have been arrested and detained

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8
Q

What does the “right to have someone informed” entails + when can the right be delayed?

A

*right to inform a friend or relative or other person who is known to the suspect or who is likely to take an interest in their welfare
*they should be informed as soon as practicable
*right can be delayed - but this must be authorised by an officer of at least the rank of inspector and can only be authorised when the suspect has been detained for an indictable offence
- authorisation can be given orally, but would to be confirmed in writing as soon as is practicable
grounds for delay: reasonable grounds of belief that telling the named person of the arrest will
*(a) lead to interference with or harm to evidence connected with an indictable offence
*(b) lead to interference with or physical injury to other persons
*(c) lead to the altering of other persons suspected of having committed such an offence but not yet arrested for it
*(d) hinder the recovery of any property obtained as a result of such an offence

*max length of delay is 36 hours

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9
Q

What does the “right to legal advice” entail?

A

*if the suspect makes a request for legal advice, they must be allowed to e.g. consult a solicitor privately as soon as practicable
*in all cases where legal advice is sought, unless a suspect asks for legal advice to be paid for privately, police must contact the Defence Solicitor Call Centre
*if a solicitor attends the police station to see a particular suspect, that suspect must be informed of their arrival and they must be asked if they would like to see the solicitor

at no time should a police officer do or say anything with the intention of dissuading a person from obtaining legal advice - e.g. saying that period of detention or time taken to complete interview might be reduced if no legal advice or no solicitor present

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10
Q

Under what circumstances could the exercise of the “right to legal advice” be delayed?

A

v limited
*must be authorised by an officer of at least the rank of superintendent
*can only be authorised when a suspect has been arrested for an indictable offence
grounds for delay [reasonable belief]:
*(a) belief that exercise of right to access will interfere with or harm evidence connected with an indictable offence, or interference with or physical injury to other persons
*(b) exercise will lead to the altering of other persons suspected of having committed such an offence but not yet arrested for it
*(c) will hinder the recovery of any property obtained as a result of such an offence
subjective belief is required - i.e. belief that legal adviser will deliberately do one of the conditions or do so inadvertently (rare)

max delay: 36 hours + authorisation can be given orally but would need to be confirmed in writing as soon as is practicable

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11
Q

How long can a suspect be detained for (intially) before charge?

A

24 hours
*if the person attended voluntary and is then arrested: timer starts from time of arrest
*if person attends police station to answer street bail: timer starts from when they arrive at the police station
*if person has been arrested away from the police station: timer starts from when the suspect arrives at the first police station to which they are taken after arrest

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12
Q

Under what circumstances can the period of intial detention be extended?

A

*police have the power to add an additional 12 hours (total possible detention goes to 36 hours)
*must be given by an officer of the rank of superintendent and may only be given if the superintendent has reasonable grounds for believing that:
*(a) detention of the suspect without charge is necessary to secure or preserve evidence relating to an offence for which the suspect is under arrest or to obtain such evidence by questioning them,
*(b) offence is an indictable offence, and
*(c) investigation is being carried out diligently and expeditiously

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13
Q

Under what circumstances can the police obtain a warrant of further detention?

A

*obtained from the magistrates (who are grant further detention of up to 36 hours) [full grant would result in a detention for 3 days/72 hours]
*magistrates will grant this if they consider that there are reasonable grounds for believing that further detention of the person to whom the application relates is justified on the basis that:
*(a) the suspect’s detention without charge is necessary to secure or preserve evidence relating to an offence for which they are under arrest, or to obtain such evidence by questioning them, and
*(b) investigation is being conducted diligently and expeditiously

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14
Q

Under what circumstances would magistrates grant an extention of warrant of further detention?

A

magistrates will only grant if satisfied there are reasonable grounds for believing that the further detention is justified
*extension cannot be longer than 36 hours, or end later than 96 hours after the relevant time (i.e. time of arrest or arrival at police station)

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15
Q

When must the police carry out reviews of the suspect’s detention? + who can carry out the reviews?

A

1st review: no later than 6 hours after custody officer first authorised detention
2nd review: no later than 9 hours after first review
subsequent reviews must take place at intervals of not more than 9 hours

*reviews are to ensure that the grounds on which detention was initially authorised by the custody officer are still applicable + if reviews are not carried out, amount to tort of false imprisonment
*review must be carried out by an officer of at least the rank of inspector who is not directly involved in the investigation

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16
Q

What is the role of the solicitor at the police station?

A

to protect and advance the legal rights of their client

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17
Q

What is the solicitor entitled to do with respect to the custody report and detention log?

A

to inspect to gather information
*entitled to inspect upon arrival and at any other time whilst the suspect is in custody
*a legal representative or an appropriate adult is entitled to request a copy of the custody record when a detainee leaves police detention or is taken before a court

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18
Q

What information will the solicitor obtain from the custody officer/report?

A

*client’s basic info
*alleged offence(s)
*time when detention was authorised and reason for giving the authorisation
*any significant comments made by the client whilst at the police station
*any samples, fingerprints, or impressions of footwear which may already have been taken from the client
*any identification procedure which may already have taken place
*any interview which may already have taken place at the police station
*whether client is under any form of physical or mental disability, or requires the attendance of an appropriate adult
*any illness which the client may be suffering from, or any indication that the client is in any way vulernable or requires medical treatment
*whether the client is suffering from the effects of drink and/or drugs
*any significant items found as a result of a search either of the client’s person, or of any premises, owned, used or occupied by the client or premises where the client was arrested
*details of any detention reviews which have been carried out

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19
Q

What information will the solicitor obtain from the investigating officer?

A

*in general, the solicitor should push the investigating officer to disclose as much information as possible about the case against their client
*the level of disclosure is at the investigating officer’s discretion - however, the client and solicitor must be given sufficient information to enable them to understand the nature of the offence and why they are suspected of committing it (in order to allow for the effective exercise of the rights of the defence)
*try to find out if the police have any other evidence in addition to statements from witnesses - e.g. forensic evidence, CCTV evidence
*significant statements and/or silence
*next steps the investigation officer proposes to take

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20
Q

How should the solicitor consult with their client - initial convo?

A

(1) make clear to the client that solicitor is there to provide them with free, independent legal advice + solicitor has no connection with the police
(2) solicitor must tell the client anything they are told by the client will remain confidential - although solicitor is bound by certain rules of professional conduct, which in certain circumstances may limit what they are to do or say on the client’s behalf
(3) give client details of what the solicitor has been told by the investigating officer of the offence the client is being investigated for - solicitor should advise client about the relevant substantive law + what the police will need to prove in order to obtain a conviction for the offence for which the client has been arrested
(4) client should give there version of events
(5) solicitor will need to advise the client as to what the next steps in the police investigation are likely to be + potentially, prepare the client for interview

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21
Q

What are the 4 options for a client when being interviewed by the police?

A

(1) answer all questions put to them
(2) no comment interview
(3) selective silence, where the client answers some questions but not others [usually the worst option]
(4) give a no comment interview, but either during the interview or before being charged, hand a written statement to the police setting out facts the client will rely upon in their defence at trial [could avoid adverse inferences of recent fabrication being drawn at trial]
*usually if solicitor has doubts as to the accuracy of the instructions received from their client, statement prepared could be used/handed in later [but this could result in adverse inference (doubt as to strength of defence in the face of police scrutiny/investigation)]

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22
Q

What happens if the interview is recorded on tape/disc?

A

master tape/disc will be sealed in the presence of the suspect at the end of the interview and will only be broken if there is any dispute about what was said + others will be used to prepare a written summary or transcript of interview

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23
Q

When could a suspect who requested for legal advice be interviewed before such advice has been received?

A

under the exceptions to the general rule (that they can’t be interviewed under such circumstances):
(a) if police exercise power to delay a suspect receiving legal advice
*for (a), caution at the start of interview will be modified + restriction on the drawing of adverse inference applies
(b) if the solicitor which the suspect has asked to speak to either cannot be contacted or has declined to attend the police station, and the suspect has declined the opportunity to consult the duty solicitor
(c) if a suspect asks for legal advice and changes their mind about this - provided that
*(i) an officer of the rank of inspector or above speaks to the suspect to enquire about the reasons for their change of mind + makes, or directs the making of, reasonable efforts to ascertain the solicitor’s expected time of arrival and to inform the solicitor that the suspect has stated they wish to change their mind
*(ii) suspect confirms in writing that they want the interview to proceed without speaking to a solicitor + signing an entry to this effect in the custody record
*(iii) an officer of the rank of inspector or above is satisfied that it is proper for the interview to proceed in these circumstances and give authority in writing for the interview to proceed
when the interview starts, interviewer should remind the suspect of their right to legal advice AND ensure that the following is recorded in the interview record:
*(i) confirmation that detainee has changed their mind and reasons for it
*(ii) fact that authority for the interview to proceed has been given
*(iii) that if the solicitor arrives at the station before the interview is completed, the detainee will be so informed without delay and a break will be taken to allow them to speak to the solicitor if they wish + at any time of the interview, detainee may again ask for legal advice and if they do, a break will be taken to allow them to do so

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24
Q

What happens before and at the start of the interview?

A

(1) parties will be asked to identify/introduce themselves
(2) police officer conducting interview will caution suspect - “you do not have to say anything. But it may harm your defence if you do not mention when questioned something which you later rely on in court. Anything you say may be given in evidence”
(3) officer must remind the suspect that they are entitled to free and independent legal advice, even if the suspect has a solicitor present at the interview
(4) interviewing officer must put to the suspect significant statements or silences which occured in the presence and hearing of a police officer
*suspect to confirm or deny earlier statements/silences
*failing to put these to the suspect may result in the contents of that statement or the nature of that silence being ruled inadmissible under section 78 PACE

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25
Q

What are the rules of conduct that the interviewer must comply with?

A

(1) may not try to obtain answers or elicit a statement by use of oppression: e.g. raising voice, shouting, making threatening gestures, leaning towards the suspect so they are in their face, standing over or behind the suspect, threatening to detain the suspect indefinietly unless they make a confession
(2) shall not indicate, except to answer a direct question, what action will be taken by the police if the person being questioned answers questions, makes a statement or refuses to do either

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26
Q

When must the interview cease?

A

officer in charge of the investigation:
(a) is satisfied all relevant questions about the offence have been put to the suspect (including giving the suspect an opportunity to give an innocent explanation),
(b) has taken account of any other available evidence, and
(c) reasonably believes there is sufficient evidence to provide a realistic prospect of conviction for offence

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27
Q

When should breaks take place during the interview?

A

*at recognised mealtimes + short refreshment breaks should be taken at approximately 2 hour intervals
*if interviews take place over more than one day, in any period of 24 hours, the suspect must be given a continuous period of at least 8 hours of rest (i.e. free from questioning or any other interruption in connection with the offence)

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28
Q

What are the key points which the solicitor should inform the clients of in relation to the interview?

A

*interview will be audibly recorded
*interview may be stopped if the client requires further legal advice from solicitor
*solicitor will be present in the interview to protect the client’s interests and will intervene when necessary
*if the client is to remain silent in the interview, they should be advised to use the stock phrase of “no comment” in answer to all questions which are put to them
*explain tactics the police are likely to adopt in an attempt to get them to answer questions (e.g. ask apparently innocuous questions that have nothing to do with the offence under investigation, try to alienate the client from the solicitor by suggesting that the legal advice received is incorrect)
*if the client is advised to answer questions, solicitor should remind them not to “lose their cool” and not to become hostile or abusive in their comments towards the interviewing officer + not to make an attack on the character of another person

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29
Q

How can the solicitor play an active role in the interview?

A

solicitor to intervene to seek clarification, challenge an improper question to their client or the manner in which it is put, advise their client not to reply to particular questions or if they wish, to give their client further legal advice

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30
Q

What type of behaviour is inappropriate/unacceptable from the solicitor?

A

*answering questions on behalf of the client
*writing down answers for the client to read out

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31
Q

What does the Law Society advise the solicitor to do at the start of the interview?

A

make an opening statement explaining the role which they play in the interview: to make clear to the police that the solicitor knows their role and to give client confidence in the solicitor’s ability for psychological support
*Law Society advises this should be done irrespective of the client’s experience at the police station or the seriousness of the charge

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32
Q

When may a solicitor be removed from an interview and what is the procedure?

A

*solicitor may be required to leave the interview only if their conduct is such that the interviewer is unable properly to put questions to the suspect (inappropriate behaviour)
*interviewing officer would need to consult an officer of at least superintendent rank who will speak to the solicitor and decide if the interview should continue in their presence or not
*if not, suspect must be given the opportunity to consult another solicitor before the interview continues
*if superintendent not readily available, an officer not below inspector rank

*if removed, superintendent or above must report to SRA (even if procedure ^ was taken by inspector)

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33
Q

What should the solicitor do if the client admits guilt to them but they wish to deny committing the offence at interview?

A

solicitor can only attend interview if the client intends to give a “no comment” response to questions as this would not involve giving false information and misleading the court

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34
Q

Who are juveniles? (for the purposes of police station)

A

suspects aged 10-17 inclusive + police should treat anyone who appears to be under 18 as juvenile in the absence of clear evidence to the contrary

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35
Q

What should the custody officer do if a suspect does not speak/understand English or has a hearing/speech impediment?

A

obtain an interpreter or someone able to assist the suspect with communication

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36
Q

What should the custody officer do if a suspect is blind/suffers from a serious visual impairment?

A

ensure that there is someone not involved in the investigation to help them check any documentation

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37
Q

What additional right (upon arrest) is granted to juveniles?

A

custody officer must, if practicable, find out the person responsible for the juvenile’s welfare + they must be informed as soon as practicable that the juvenile has been arrested, why, and where they are being detained [cannot be delayed]

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38
Q

Who is an appropriate adult?

A

person who attends the police station to provide support and assistance to a juvenile or suspect with a mental health condition/disorder
(1) juvenile’s parent/guardian
if (1) is unavailable, (2) social worker from the local authority
if (2) if unavailable, another responsible adult who is aged 18 or over and not connected to the police - e.g. aunt, uncle, grandparent
*a person to whom the juvenile has made admissions prior to that person being asked to attend the police station to fulfil the role of an appropriate adult should not fulfil this role
*an interested party (victim/potential witness) cannot be an appropriate adult
*juvenile can expressly and specifically object the presence of an estranged parent

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39
Q

What is the role of the appropriate adult and what are their main responsibilities?

A

*to ensure that the suspect understands what is happening to them and why
*support, advise, assist suspect
*ensure suspect understands their rights whilst at the police station, and the role played by the appropriate adult in protecting those rights
*observe whether the police are acting properly, fairly, and with respect for the rights of the suspect
*assist with communication between suspect and police

NOT to give legal advice but appropriate adult should consider whether legal advice from a solicitor is required (even if the vulnerable suspect indicates they do not want legal advice, AA has the right to ask for the solicitor to attend if this would be in the best interests of the suspect)

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40
Q

How should the custody officer explain a juvenile’s rights?

A

in the presence of AA - if already explained to juvenile previously, repeated in AA’s presence

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41
Q

What should not happen in the absence of the AA?

A

normally, vulnerable suspect must not be interviewed, or asked to provide/sign a written statement under caution or record of interview

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42
Q

When may an appropriate adult be removed from an interview and what is the procedure?

A

AA may be required to leave the interview if their conduct is such that the interviewer is unable to properly put questions to the suspect
*to remove, interviewing officer must consult an officer not below superintendent rank, if one is readily available (otherwise an officer not below inspector rank)
*officer consulted must remind the adult that their role does not allow them to obstruct proper questioning and give the adult an opportunity to respond - officer consulted to then decide if the interview should continue without the attendance of that appropriate adult
*another AA must be obtained before interview continues (save certain circumstances)

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43
Q

Whose consent will the police need to require a juvenile/someone suffering from a mental health condition/disorder to take part in an identification procedure or obtain other forensic evidence?

A

*if suspect is aged 14-17, consent must be obtained both from juvenile and from parent/guardian
*if suspect is 10-13, consent must be obtained from juvenile’s parent/guardian
*if suspect is suffering from a mental health condition/disorder, consent must be given in the presence of the AA

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44
Q

Where would juveniles be remanded into if the custody officer denies bail after charge?

A

*normally into the care of the local authority (rather than at the police station pending their first appearance before the youth court), UNLESS
*(a) it is impraticable to move the suspect to local authority accommodation, or [impracticable concerns travel requirements + ground usually only successful in exceptional cases]
*(b) if juvenile is aged at least 12, there is no secure local authority accommodation available AND keeping them in other (non-secure) local authority accommodation would not be adequate to protect the public from serious harm from them - then police station

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45
Q

What are the rules of remanding a juvenile at the police station?

A

they must be kept separate from adult suspects and must not be detained in a cell unless it is not practicable to supervise the juvenile other than in a cell

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46
Q

What are the alternatives to charging juveniles?

A

(1) community resolution: will not form part of the offender’s criminal record (aimed at first-time offenders)
(2) youth cautions
*offered where there is sufficient evidence to charge the offender, the offender admits that they committed the office, and the police do not consider that the offender should be prosecuted or given a youth conditional caution (i.e. it is not in the public interest to deal with the matter in another way) - police will consider seriousness of offence
*caution must be given in the presence of an AA
(3) youth conditional cautions

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47
Q

When can a youth conditional caution be given?

A

all satisfied:
(1) there is sufficient evidence against the offender to provide a realistic prospect of conviction
(2) it is be determined that a youth conditional caution should be given
(3) offender admits to having commited the offence
(4) effect of caution must be explained to the offender and they must be warned that failure to comply with conditions may result in prosection
*if aged 17 or under, explanation and warning must be given in the presence of AA
(5) offender must sign a document containing details of offence, their admission, consent to be given to a youth conditional caution, and details of the conditions attached

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48
Q

What are the limits imposed on the conditions that can be given?

A

*for summary-only, conditions must be capable of being completed within 16 weeks of the date of original offence
*a period of longer than 16 weeks from the date the conditional caution is adminiterested may be suitable for an offence triable either-way or an indictable-only offence - must not exceed 20 weeks

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49
Q

What are the advantages of accepting a caution?

A

avoids client being charged and having to appear at youth court + cautions are not criminal convictions

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50
Q

What are the consequences of accepting cautions?

A

*record of caution will be retained by the police
*cautions will form part of the client’s criminal record and may be referred to if an employee makes a Criminal Record Bureau check
*caution will be taken into consideration before decision is made regarding a future offending disposal
*police must refer the client to the appropriate Youth Offender Team who will assess the client and must arrange for them to participate in a rehabilitation programe
*if offence is covered by Part 2 Sexual Offences Act 2003, client will be placed on the sex offenders register

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51
Q

What are the 4 options available to the custody officer (in relation to charge/no charge)?

A

(1) release suspect - without charge and without requirement that the suspect return to police station at a later date (no further action)
(2) release suspect without charge but on bail whilst the police make further enquiries
(3) charge suspect (and release on bail or keep in custody until suspect’s first court appearance)
(4) offer the suspect an alternative to charge (informal warning, penalty notice, formal (simple) caution, conditional caution)

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52
Q

When would the police release a suspect without charge and without bail?

A

when they determine that the suspect did not in fact commit the crime OR there is insufficient evidence against the suspect and it is unlikely that any other further evidence be obtained

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53
Q

When would the police release a suspect without charge but on bail?

A

[replaced release under investigation (which was imposed due to a presumption against pre-charge bail (now removed))]
*custody officers can authorise the first period of pre-charge bail to a period of 3 months in standard police cases (this can be extended with approval of inspector (to 6 months) or superintendent (to 9 months)) - + further extension granted by magistrates’ to a max period of 18 months
*custody officer must be satisfied that releasing the suspect on bail is necessary and proportionate in all the circumstances
*investigating officer must seek the victims of the victims about any relevant bail conditions
*when the suspect answer bail, police may release them without charge, exercise further investigative powers, release suspect on bail if their further enquiries are incomplete, charge suspect

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54
Q

What test will the CPS apply when determining whether to charge suspect?

A

when cases are not straightforward - it is for the CPS to decide whether suspect should be charged:
(1) there must be sufficient evidence to provide a realistic prospect of conviction
(2) if there is sufficient evidence, determine if it is in the public interest to charge the suspect or whether the matter should be dealt with other than by way of charge

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55
Q

What is the procedure for the police to charge suspect?

A

i.e. in minor cases
*suspect must be cautioned on charge and anything the suspect says in response to the charge should be written down
*suspect should be given a written notice which gives the particulars of the offence (this should be stated in simple terms + show the precise offence in law which the detainee is charged)
*suspect who has been charged cannot be interviewed further by the police unless necessary - to prevent/minimise harm/loss to other, clear up ambiguity, in the interests of justice

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56
Q

Under what circumstances can bail be denied to a suspect who has been charged?

A

where the custody officer has reasonable grounds:
*to doubt that the name/address provided is the suspect’s proper name or address or where such name or address cannot be confirmed
*to believe that the person arrested will fail to appear in court to answer bail
*to believe that the detention of the person arrested is necessary to prevent them from committing an offence
*to believe that detention is necessary to enable a sample to be taken
*to prevent them from causing physical injury to others or from causing loss of or damage to property
*to prevent them from interfering with the administration of justice or with the investigation of offences or of a particular offence
*to believe that the detention of the person is necessary for their own protection

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57
Q

When will a charged individual be brought in front of the magistrates’ court for the first hearing?

A

*if granted bail, within 1-2 weeks of being charged
*if not granted bail, suspect will be kept in police custody, unless they are a juvenile, and must be brought before the magistreates’ court as soon as is practicable, and in any event, not later than the first sitting of the court after they are charged (usually within 24 hours (except Sundays))

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58
Q

When would a fixed penalty notice be given?

A

*specified offences: theft, criminal damage, possession of cannabis + may also be issued under the Anti-social Behaviour Act 2003 for offences relating to graffiti and illegal advertising
*must be given by a police officer who has reasonable grounds to believe a person has committed a penalty offence
*will NOT form part of the person’s criminal record

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59
Q

What is a formal (simple) caution?

A

*intended for low-level, first-time offending [cannot be granted within 2 years of similar offence]
*should be given by a police officer of at least rank of inspector
conditions to be met before caution given:
*sufficient evidence must have been collected to have justified a prosecution
*clear and reliable evidence of a voluntary admission of guilt by the offender that they have committed the offence
*offender must agree to being cautioned, having been made aware that the caution might be raised in court were they to be convicted of a later offence (offender must sign a form acknowledging they agree to caution and admit to offence)

not available for indictable-only offences unless a police officer of at least superintendent rank determines that there are exceptional circumstances and CPS agrees
+ not available for either-way offences specified by Secretary of State unless a police officer of at least inspector rank determined that there are exceptional circumstances (offensive weapon and bladed article offence, carrying a firearm in a public place, child cruelty, sexual offences against children, sex trafficking, indecent and pornographic images of children, importing/exporting/producing/supplying/possessing with intent to supply to another Class A drugs)

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60
Q

When may a conditional caution be given?

A

(1) an authorised person (constable, investigating officer or a person authorised by a relevant prosecutor) has evidence that an offender has committed an offence
(2) the relevant prosecutor (includes AG, DPP, director of Serious Fraud Office and the Commissioners of Customs and Excise) decides there is sufficient evidence to charge and a conditional caution is appropriate
(3) offender admits the offence
(4) authorised person explains the effect of a conditional caution to an offender and that failure to comply with the conditions may result in a prosecution for the offence
(5) offender signs a document setting out details of offence, admission to committing offence, consent to a conditional caution, and conditions attached

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61
Q

What are the disadvantages of accepting a caution?

A

*it is a formal recorded admission of guilt, will form part of the offender’s criminal record, and may affect how they are sentenced in the future if they re-offend
*client will likely lose opportunity of receiving a caution on a subsequent occasion
*existence of caution will be disclosable should the client apply for certain types of employment
*if offence is sexual, client will be placed on sex offenders register
*police may retain fingerprints and other identification data taken from the client

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62
Q

What are identification procedures designed to do?

A

(a) test the witness’ ability to identify the suspect as the person they saw on a previous occasion
(b) provide safeguards against mistaken identification

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63
Q

What should happen in cases when the suspect’s identity is not known before ID procedures?

A

*police can take a witness to a particular neighbourhood or place to see if they can identify the person they saw commit the crime alleged: street identification, or
*eye-witness shown pictures:
*(a) witness’ first description of the suspect must have been recorded prior to being shown any photographs
*(b) witness must be shown at least 12 photographs at a time
*(c) as soon as witness makes a positive identification, no other witnesses should be shown the photographs + all witnesses (including the one who made the identification) should be asked to take part in one of the identification procedures

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64
Q

What should happen in cases where the suspect’s identity is known and they have been arrested (before ID procedures)?

A

police must keep a record of the suspect’s description as first given to them by a potential witness + before any form of identification procedure, a copy of this record should be given to the suspect or their solicitor

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65
Q

When must an identification procedure be held?

A

(1) a witness thinks they can identify the suspect or there is reasonable chance that the witness can identify the suspect +
(2) suspect disputes being the person the witness claims to have seen
*hold procedures if (1) and (2) are satisfied unless it is not practicable or would serve no useful purpose in proving or disproving suspect’s involvement in commission of offence

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66
Q

When would an ID procedure not be necessary (due to not useful)?

A

*when the suspect admits being at the sccene and gives an account which does not contradict what the witness saw
*when it is not disputed that the suspect is already known to the witness (i.e. there needs to be some form of relationship - being in the same school but different classes (known for 2 years) does not suffice)

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67
Q

When may an identification procedure be held?

A

officer in charge of investigation, after consultation with the identification officer, considers it would be useful

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68
Q

What are the different types of identification procedures? + how to determine which procedure to use?

A

(1) video identification
(2) identification parade
(3) group identification
(4) confrontation by witness

*video identification should be initially offered (usually most preferred as it can be arranged and completed sooner than an ID) unless
(a) not practicable, or
(b) an identification parade is both practicable and more suitable than VI, or
(c) officer in charge considers a group identification is more suitable than a VI and IP and identification officer considers it practicable to arrange

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69
Q

Who must be notified if a witness attending an identification procedure has previously been shown photos, or a computerised or artist’s composite?

A

suspect/his solicitor - but if the case subsequently comes to trial, witness will not be allowed to rely/say they originally identified the suspect from photos

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70
Q

Who is the identification officer?

A

*officer responsible for procedures
*must not be below the rank of inspector + must not be involved in investigation
*they must be present throughout the procedure + be in uniform

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71
Q

What must the identification officer do before a video identification, identification parade, or group identification is arranged?

A

explain to the suspect:
(a) purpose of the identification procedure to be used
(b) suspect’s entitlement to free legal advice
(c) procedure to be followed, including the suspect’s right to have a solicitor or friend present
(d) if the suspect refuses to consent to ID taking place, such refusal may be given in evidence at trial, or police may proceed covertly without suspect’s consent, or make other arrangements to test whether a witness can identify (e.g. confrontation)
*if video identification is not consented to, such a procedure can be arranged using images of a suspect that are not taken under identical conditions as the images of the other people in the procedure
(e) if the suspect has significantly altered their appearance between being offered an ID and time of procedure, this may be given in evidence at trial and officer may consider other forms of identification
(f) whether, before the suspect’s identity became known, the witness was shown photos, computerised or artist’s composite likenesses or picutures
(g) that the suspect or their solicitor will be provided with details of the description of the suspect as first given by any witness who are to attend the identification procedure before it takes place

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72
Q

How many people must be shown in a video identification + what criteria must these other people meet?

A

*people in similar position or carrying out same sequence of movements
*people must resemble the suspect in age, general appearance and position in life
*suspect must be shown with at least 8 other people
*generally, only one suspect shall appear in any set of images, unless there are two suspects of roughly similar appearance, in which case they may be shown together with at least 12 other people

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73
Q

What should be done is a suspect has unusual features (e.g. facial scar, tattoo, distinctive hairstyle) before the video identification?

A

police may take steps to electronically conceal those features on the video or replicate those features on the imges of the other people (witness, after seeing the video images, can request to see without the concealment/replication)

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74
Q

What is the suspect/solicitor entitled to in relation to a video identification?

A

*they are entitled to see a full set of images before shown to the witness (they must be given reasonable opportunity to do so!) - if there is a reasonable objection to the images, the police must take steps, if practicable, to remove the grounds for rejection
*the suspect is NOT entitled to be present at the video identification
*solicitor should be given reasonable notice of the time and place of the video identification so they can attend and ensure that it is carried out properly

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75
Q

How many witnesses can see the video at one time + what are witnesses not to do before seeing the video?

A

*only 1 witness may see the video at a time
*before they see, they must not communicate with each other about the case, see any of the images which are to be shown, see (or be reminded of) any photographs or description of the suspect, or be given any other indication as to the suspect’s identity, or overhear a witness who has already seen the material

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76
Q

What does an identification parade involve?

A

witness sees the suspect in a line of other persons who resemble the suspect - will consist of at least 8 other people who, so far as possible, resembles in age, height, general appearance and position in life
*witnesses should be separated - cannot communicate with each other, see any member of the parade, see/be reminded of any photo/description of suspect
*before inspecting, witnesses should be told that the person they saw on a specified earlier occasion may or may not be present and if they cannot make a positive identification, they should say so + they should not make any decision about whether the person they saw is on the parade until they have looked at each member twice
*witnesses will be brought in one at a time
*witness can ask parade member to speak, move, or adopt a particular posture - but before, they should be asked whether they can identify any person on the basis of appearance only (witness who asks members to speak must be reminded that participants have been chosen on the basis of physical appearance only)
*witness may request that the person they have indicated remove anything used to conceal the location of an unusual physical feature
*a colour photo/video of the identification parade must be taken to help guard against any later dispute that other members of the parade were not sufficiently similar to suspect (+ video recording or photo must be made available to the solicitor/their solicitor within a reasonable time upon request)

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77
Q

What is the suspect entitled to do in relation to an identification parade?

A

can choose position in the line and may change positions between witnesses - but cannot otherwise alter the order of people forming the line

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78
Q

What does a group identification involve?

A

when witness sees suspect in an informal group of people - should be held in a place where other people are passing by or waiting around informally (e.g. bus station, shopping centre) + in choosing a venue, police must reasonably expect that the witness will see some people whose appearance is broadly similar to suspect
[GI can be held convertly (i.e. even where suspects refuses to consent)]

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79
Q

What does confrontation by witness involve?

A

witness is brought face-to-face with a suspect in the police station
*before, witness must be told that the person they saw may or may not be the person they are to confront and that if they are not that person, they should say so
*force may not be used to make the suspect’s face visible to the witness

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80
Q

What tests must the defendant satisfy to be eligible for criminal legal aid in the magistrates’ court?

A

(1) interests of justice test
(2) means test
submit online application form (Form CRM14)

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81
Q

When would an individual be likely to lose their liberty, livelihood, or suffer serious damage to reputation (interests of justice test)?

A

*if found guilty, defendant is likely to face a custodial sentence - refer to Sentencing Guidelines
*lose livelihood: applicable to any defendant in employment who is likely to face a prison sentence OR defendants who are not likely to receive a prison sentence but have particular types of jobs which may be lost in the event of the conviction (e.g. bus driver charged with a road traffic offence, teacher charged with common assault)
*serious damage to reputation: can only apply to defendants who have no previous convictions OR convictions for v minor offences or spent offences [must also consider seriousness of offence] - balancing exercise e.g.: if a defendant has no previous convictions and has a position of standing or respect in community (e.g. vicar, school governor), conviction for even relatively minor offence may have serious damage]

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82
Q

When is it likely for proceedings to involve consideration of a substantial question of law (interests of justice test)?

A

when evidence is in dispute: Turnbull, adverse inferences, hearsay evidence, confession evidence, bad character evidence

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83
Q

What are the 4 other grounds for the interests of justice test?

A

(3) when individual may be unable to understand proceedings or state their own case - e.g. due to mental/physical disability, poor knowledge of English, age, vulnerability
(4) proceedings may involve tracing, interview, or expert cross-examination of witnesses on the individual’s behalf
(5) when it is in the interests of another person that the individual be represented - i.e. inappropriate for defendant to represent themselves because they would need to cross-examine prosecution witness in person (e.g. sexual/violence offence)
(6) any other reasons

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84
Q

What does the means test involve?

A

*will be automatically satisfied if applicant receives income support, income-based jobseeker’s allowance, guaranteed state pension credit, income-based employment and support allowance, universal credit, or if defendant is under 18
*if not, complete CRM15 form and send evidence of financial status

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85
Q

When can a defendant appeal refusal of legal aid?

A

*defendant can appeal if failed interests of justice test - but if applicant failed means test, they cannot appeal, but rather ask that their entitlement be reviewed on the grounds of hardship by completing an application for review via Form CRM16

86
Q

What does a magistrates’ court criminal defence representation order cover?

A

*for summary-only and either-way offences dealt with in magistrates, order will cover all work done by the solicitor and may be extended to cover appeal to the Crown Court against conviction and/or sentence
*if either-way offence and defendant elects trial to Crown Court, order extends automatically
*if indictment-only, order will cover proceedings in both magistrates’ and Crown Court

87
Q

What happens at the first hearing in magistrates’ court for a summary-only offence?

A

*defendant will be required to enter a plea
(1) if defendant pleads guilty, court should consider whether a pre-sentence report is necessary (or magistrates can sentence defendant right away)
(2) if defendant pleads not guilty, court will fix a date for the defendant’s trial to take place, and issue case management directions with which both prosecution and defence must comply before trial

88
Q

What happens at the first hearing in magistrates’ court for an indictment-only offence?

A

defendant cannot enter plea in magistrates’, but will be asked for an indication of plea
*magistrates will need to determine whether defendant should be released on bail or remanded in custody prior to the next hearing to take place in the Crown Court

89
Q

When must the prosecutor serve IDPC and to who?

A

(1) on court as soon as practicable and in any event, no later than the beginning of the day of the first hearing
(2) defendant:
*where defendant requests IDPC, must serve as soon as practicable and in any event no later than the beginning of the day of the first hearing
*where defendant does not request IDPC, prosecutor must make the IDPC available to the defendant at or before the beginning of the day of the first hearing

IDPC enables the defendant and court to take an informed view on plea, venue for trial, case management and sentencing at the first hearing

90
Q

What happens if the prosecutor wishes to put information before the court (at hearing) which was not available to the defendant before hearing?

A

general position is that the court must not allow a prosecutor to introduce information that has not been provided in advance, unless the court first allows the defendant sufficient time to consider it

91
Q

What must the IDPC include?

A

(1) for cases where, immediately before first hearing, defendant was in police custody:
*a summary of the circumstances of the offence
*defendant’s criminal record (if any)
[prosecutors must also consider the disclosure of information that may assist the defence in making bail applications]
(2) for all other cases:
*summary of the circumstances of the offence
*any account given by the defendant in interview, whether contained in that summary or another document
*any written witness statement or exhibit that prosecutor has available and considers material to plea, or to the allocation of the case for trial, or to sentence
*defendant’s criminal record (if any)
*any available statement of the effect of the offence on a complainant, a complainant’s family or others (victim impact statement)
(3) if defendant was released on bail and prosecutor does not anticiapte a guilty plea at first hearing, following should be provided (additional), unless there is good reason not to:
*statements and exhibits the prosecution has identified as being of importance for the purpose of plea or initial case management, including relevant CCTV that would be relied upon at trial and any streamlined forensic report
*any information as to special measures, bad character, or hearsay
*an indication of any medical or other expert evidence that the prosecution is likely to adduce in relation to a victim or the defendant
*details of witness availability (for the court), as far as they are known at that hearing

92
Q

Why might trial at Crown Court be advised over in magistrates’?

A

*greater chance of acquittal: juries are perceived to be more sympathetic to defendants
*better procedure for challenging admissibility of prosecution evidence as in Crown Court judge will conduct voir dire in jury’s absence + although in magistrates’, they attempt to determine all issues of admissibility pre-trial, if not possible, magistrates’ themselves will determine admissibility
*more time to prepare case for trial (important if case is particularly complex/many potential witnesses to interview)

93
Q

Why might trial at magistrates’ be advised over in Crown Court’?

A

*limited sentencing powers (although even if tried in magistrates’, they retain power to commit defendant to Crown Court for sentencing
*speed and stress: procedure in magistrates’ is less formal and intimidating
*costs (prosecution costs are likely to be lower in magistrates if defendant loses / representation orders in Crown Court may ask for contribution, whereas if granted in magistrates’, aid means defendant receives services for free)
*no obligation to serve defence statement in magistrates’ court (though they can)

94
Q

What should a solicitor do if client confesses to solicitor, but insists of entering a not guilty plea in court?

A

[ethics & professional conduct] - solicitor should advise client:
(a) of benefits were they to enter a guilty plea: reduction
(b) of limitations on the solicitors’ ability to continue representing the client were they to enter a not guilty plea
*what solicitors can do will be limited due to their overriding duty not to mislead the court
*solicitor can cross-examine prosecution witnesses + make a submission of no case to answer
*solicitor cannot continue acting for the defendant if the submission of no case to answer was unsuccessful and defendant insisted on entering the witness box to give evidence which the solicitor knew to be false - withdraw for “professional reasons” to uphold duty of confidentiality

95
Q

What happens at the first hearing in magistrates’ court for an either-way offence?

A

(1) charge will be read out to the defendant by the court’s legal adviser, who will also check that the defendant’s solicitor has received IDPC
(2) legal adviser will tell defendant that they may indicate to the court how they would plead if the matter were to proceed to trial (no obligation)
(3) legal adviser will tell defendant that if they indicate a guilty plea, they will be treated as having pleaded guilty before the magistrates, who may either sentence them or commit them to Crown Court to be sentenced
(4) legal adviser to ask defendant to indicate plea

(a) indicates guilty plea: magistrates to decide whether they should sentence the defendant or defendant should be committed to the Crown Court for sentence because the magistrates’ sentencing powers are insufficient
*if powers are deemed sufficient, sentence straight away or adjourn for a pre-sentence report
*if insufficient, decide on bail: but in most cases, magistrates will not alter the position prior to first hearing
(b) not guilty/no indication: magistrates must determine whether the defendant is to be tried in the magistrates’ court or Crown Court - undertake plea before venue and allocation procedure

96
Q

When must the magistrates send defendant to Crown Court for trial of an either-way offence?

A

(1) when defendant is sent to the Crown Court for an indictable-only offence and the either-way offence is related
*if defendant subsequently appears with the either-way offence, rather than at the same time, court may send defendant to Crown Court for either-way offence
(2) when defendant is charged jointly with another adult defendant who is sent to the Crown Court for trial of a related offence
(3) defendant is charged jointly, or charged with a related either-way offence, with a youth defendant who is sent to the Crown Court for trial

(4) where notice, in serious or complex fraud cases, has been given by the DPP under Crime and Disorder Act
(5) where notice, in certain cases involving children, has been served

97
Q

What should the magistrates consider when deciding on allocation?

A

*any representations made by the prosecution or defence as to whether summary trial or trial on indictment would be more suitable
*whether the sentence which they would have power to impose for the offence would be adequate
*Allocation Guidelines: in general, either-way offences should be tried summarily unless the outcome would clearly be a sentence in excess of the court’s power for the offence(s) concerned, taking into account personal mitigation and any potential reduction + for reasons of unusual legal, procedural, or factual complexity

98
Q

What will happen if the magistrates decide that the case is suitable for summary trial?

A

(1) court must explain to the defendant that case appears suitable for summary trial, they can consent to be tried summarily or choose to be tried on indictment + if they consent to be tried summarily and are convicted, they may be committed to the Crown Court for sentence
(2) defendant may request an indication of sentence
*no court may impose a custodial sentence for the offence unless such a sentence was indicated in the indication of sentence - otherwise, the indication is not binding on any court and no sentence may be challenged or be the subject of appeal on the ground that it is not consistent with an indication of sentence
(3) court may give an indication of sentence - if they do, court should ask defendant whether they want to reconsider their earlier indication of plea given
(4) when the court does not give an indication or defendant does not change plea, court must ask the defendant whether they consent to summary trial or wish to be tried on indictment
*if prosecution disagrees, they may make an application before summary trial takes place and before any other application/issue in relation to the summary trial is dealt with, for the either-way offence to be sent to Crown Court + this application will only be granted if the court is satisfied that the sentence which a magistrates’ court would have power to impose would be inadequate

99
Q

What is the maximum length the magistrates’ court can remand a defendant in custody for? (pre-conviction)

A

8 clear days, except where it has previousely remanded them in custody for the same offence and it has a set date for the next stage of those proceedings (in these circumstances, defendant can be remanded in custody for a period ending in that date or for a period of 28 days)

100
Q

What are the overall maximum periods of remand in custody in the magistrates’ court? (pre-conviction) custody time limit

A

*before trial of summary-only offence: 56 days
*before trial of either-way offence: 70 days
but if case involves an either-way offence and allocation hearing takes place within 56 days, custody time limit for the either-way offence is reduced to 56 days
+ custody time limit for either-way offences becomes 182 days if and when the court allocates a case for Crown Court trial

101
Q

What can the prosecution do if it wishes to extend the custody time limit?

A

*prosecution may apply to the court to extend the custody time limit
*to be successful, prosecution must show on the balance of probabilities that there is good and sufficient cause to do this and that it has acted with due diligence and expedition
- application can be made orally or in writing (written notice must be served on the court and defendant not less than 2 days before hearing in the magistrates’ court)
*defendant has a right of appeal to the Crown Court where magistrates grant application to extend

102
Q

Where will the defendant be remanded to (if to remand in custody)?

A

normally in prison or remand centre [once time expires, defendant must be released on bail]
*magistrates can remand a defendant to police custody for up to 3 days if this is necessary for the purposes of making enquiries in relation to offences other than the offence for which the defendant has been charged

103
Q

What are the time limits for remands in custody and on bail after conviction?

A

*remands in custody: successive periods of not more than 3 weeks
*remands on bail: successive periods of not more than 4 weeks

104
Q

What is the right to bail?

A

there is a presumption that bail will be granted to all defendants prior to conviction, defendants who have been convicted if their case has been adjourned for the court to obtain pre-sentence reports, defendants who are to appear before the court for breach of a community sentence [therefore it will be for the prosecution to persuade the court why the normal right to bail/presumption does not apply]

105
Q

When will the general right to bail NOT apply?

A

*defendants who have been committed to the Crown Court for sentence
*defendants who are appealing against conviction or sentence
*defendant charged for murder [unless court is satisfied that there is no significant risk that, if released on bail, that person would commit an offence that would be likely to cause physical or mental injury to another person] - when defendant applies for bail under these circumstances, magistrates must transfer defendant to Crown Court + Crown Court has 48 hours to make a decision as to whether or not to grant bail
*defendant charged for murder or attempted murder AND has previously been convicted of murder, attempted murder, rape or a serious sexual offence: bail will only be granted in exceptional circumstances (e.g. prosecution evidence is weak or contradictory)
*defendant charged with manslaughter, rape, or a serious sexual offence AND has previously been convicted of an offence of murder, attempted murder, rape, or a serious sexual offence: bail only granted where there are exceptional circumstances

106
Q

What are the exceptions to the right to bail (i.e. grounds to refuse bail) for indictment-only and either-way offences?

A

(1) there is a real prospect that defendant will be sentenced to custody in the proceedings, and
(2) one of the following applies:
*there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant would fail to surrender, commit an offence on bail, or interfere with witnesses or otherwise obstruct the course of justice

(3) no bail if the court is satisfied that the defendant should be kept in custody for their own protection
(4) no bail if the court has insufficient information owing to lack of time since commencement of proceedings
(5) no bail where a case is adjourned for inquiries or a report, and it is impracticable to complete inquiries or make a report without keeping the defendant in custody

107
Q

What are the exceptions to the right to bail (i.e. grounds to refuse bail) for summary-only imprisonable offences?

A

(1) there is a real prospect that defendant will be sentenced to custody in the proceedings, and
(2) one of the following is satisfied:
*defendant, having previously been granted bail, failed to surrender, and substantial grounds for court to believe that the defendant, if released on bail (conditional or unconditional) would fail to surrender
*defendant was on bail on the date of the offence, and court believes that there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant, if released on bail (conditional or unconditional) would commit an offence while on bail
*the defendant has been arrested for failing to surrender or breach of bail conditions, and court is satisfied that there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant would fail to surrender, commit an offence while on bail or interfere with witnesses or otherwise obstruct the course of justice

108
Q

What are the exceptions to the right to bail (i.e. grounds to refuse bail) for non-imprisonable offences?

A

*defendant was granted bail in previous criminal proceedings but failed to answer to this bail and court believes that, if granted in current proceedings, defendant would fail to surrender again

*defendant needs to be kept in custody for his own protection
*defendant is currently serving a custodial sentence in respect of a separate offence
*defendant was granted bail at an earlier hearing in the same proceedings, but has been arrested for failing to answer bail or breaking conditions, and court is satisfied there are substantial grounds for believing that if released on bail, defendant would fail to surrender, commit an offence or interfere with witnesses or otherwise obstruct the course of justice

109
Q

What factors will the court consider when deciding whether a substantial ground is satisfied?

A

*nature and seriousness of offence (and probable sentence the defendant will receive for it)
*character, antecedents, associations, and community ties of the defendant - can refer to previous convictions
*defendant’s record in respect of previous grants of bail in criminal proceedings
*strength of evidence against defendant

110
Q

What should the court consider if a substantial ground is believed to exist?

A

whether grounds can be removed by imposing bail conditions

111
Q

What should the court consider when imposing conditions?

A

conditions must be necessary to overcome ground (+ more than one condition can be attached to bail)

112
Q

What are some common conditions impose to overcome absconding?

A

*surety (v rare as amount must be significant/substantial to the surety) + solicitor should never stand surety for professional conduct reasons
*security (defendant to deposit a sum of money)
*report to police station on specified day(s) and time to ensure defendant remains in local area
*residence - defendant could also be electronically monitored/tagged
*surrender of passport (only likely to be appropriate in serious cases where defendant is known to have substantial financial assets or criminal contacts abroad)

113
Q

What are some common conditions impose to overcome committing offences on bail?

A

*reporting to police station
*residence
*curfew - only imposed when the time of day is relevant to the offence: e.g. tendency to commit offences at night/after drinking at night
*non-communication with prosecution witness (covers direct and indirect communication - e.g. through TP, telephone, in writing, other means e.g. social media)
*restriction on entering specified areas

114
Q

What are some common conditions impose to overcome interfering with witnesses?

A

*non-communication with prosecution witnesses
*restriction on entering specified areas

115
Q

When may electronic monitoring be imposed?

A

can only be imposed to monitor compliance with another bail condition + court must be satisfied that without the electronic monitoring requirements, the person would not be granted bail and that the necessary arrangements for electronic monitoring are in place

116
Q

What is the procedure for applying for bail?

A

(1) CPS state its objection to bail and apply to the magistrates for defendant to be remanded in custody
(2) defendant’s solicitor to make an application - should take each of the prosecution grounds for objecting bail in turn and respond accordingly + defendant solicitor may suggest appropriate conditions which the magistrates may impose if they are not prepared to grant unconditional bail
(3) magistrates may hear evidence from other persons in support of the defendant’s application - e.g. surety, prospective employer if defendant has recently been offered employment, person prepared to provide defendant with accommodation if defendant is currently of no fixed abode
(4) magistrates to decide
*record of decision will be made and copy given to the defendant - if bail is refused or subject to conditions, reasons for refusal or for conditions must be recorded and given to the defendant as a “certificate of full argument”
*if CPS opposed bail and bail was granted, record must be made of the reasons for granting bail and copy given to CPS upon request

117
Q

How can a defendant appeal against a decision on bail?

A

*defendant is entitled to appeal, provided magistrates have issued a certificate of full argument
*at first hearing after bail was refused, defendant’s solicitor is permitted to make a full application for bail and repeat arguments - after, court need not hear arguments as to fact or law which it has previously (magistrates are under a duty to consider the question of bail at subsequent hearings)
*for tactical reasons, most defence solicitors will delay appeal until they have made 2 full applications for bail before magistrates
(1) defendant’s solicitor to complete a notice of application as soon as practicable - notice to be sent to Crown Court and magistrates’ court and served on CPS
*notice to specify the decision the defendant wants Crown Court to make and explain why the Crown Court should grant bail
(2) prosecution may oppose appeal and must notify the Crown Court and defence of reasons why they are opposing
(3) unless Crown Court otherwise directs, appeal should be heard as soon as practicable + in any event, no later than the business day after it was served
(4) appeal to be heard before a Crown Court judge in chambers - during hearing, judge will hear representations from CPS and defendant’s advocate

118
Q

How can the prosecution appeal against a decision on bail?

A

(1) oral notice must be given by the prosecutor at the end of the heaing during which the court granted bail, and before the defendant is released from custody
(2) notice must be confirmed in writing and served on the defendant not more than 2 hours after telling the court of the decision to appeal
(3) Crown Court must hear the appeal as soon as possible + in any event, not later than 2 business days after the appeal notice was served
- this power is to be used “judiciously and responsibly” + used only in cases of grave concern

119
Q

What can the court do if the defendant fails to attend court to answer bail?

A

magistrates will issue a warrant for defendant’s arrest - warrant can be backed with bail or not
*when defendant is arrested and brought before the court, whether they are charged with failing to surrender is a matter for the CPS
(1) possible charge: defendant fails without reasonable cause to surrender
(2) possible charge: defendant did have reasonable cause to fail to surrender - they will be guilty unless they surrendered to custody as soon as it was reasonably practicable

120
Q

What is the effect of breaching other conditions of bail?

A

not a criminal offence but bail will likely be reviewed by magistrates

121
Q

What powers do the police have in relation to arresting for absonding or breaking conditions of bail?

A

police may arrest a person who has been bailed to attend court if they reasonably believe that the person is not likely to surrend to bail or has broken, or is likely to break, their bail conditions - if they are arrested, they must be brought before the magistrates’ court within 24 hours

122
Q

How will the courts deal with breach of bail?

A

defendant will be asked to admit or deny breach
*if denial, magistrates will have to decide whether or not there has been a breach - possible for oral evidence to be heard, but usually court will rely on the witness statements from prosecution and only defendant is likely to give oral evidence
+ magistrates will decide whether defendant should be remanded in custody or on bail pending the next substantial hearing

123
Q

What requirements must be satisfied for a piece of evidence to be taken into account by the jury/magistrates?

A

must be relevant to the facts in issue in the case + admissible

124
Q

What evidential burden is placed on the prosecution? What can the defendant’s solicitor do if this burden is not discharged?

A

*after presenting its case, prosecution must have presented sufficient evidence to the court to justify a finding of guilt and to show that defendant has a case to answer
*if not, defendant’s solicitor will be entitled to make a submission of no case to answer and to ask the court to dismiss the case

125
Q

What evidential burden is placed on the defendant?

A

when defendant raises a specific defence, they must place some evidence of that defence before the court if they want magistrates/jury to consider - e.g. defendant enter witness box to give details of defence/alibi
*no obligation to place evidence that they are innocent

126
Q

What does the court have discretion to do under section 78 PACE?

A

court has a discretionary power to exclude evidence, having regard to all the circumstances including how the evidence was obtained, if admission of the evidence would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of proceedings that the court ought not to admit it
*relates only to prosecution evidence
*there is no general guidance as to the exercise of this discretion + on appeal from a trial judge’s refusal to exclude evidence, Court of Appeal will interfere only to Wednesbury principles

127
Q

What will the court consider when exercising its discretion in relation to applications to exclude on grounds of breach of Codes of Practice/evidence obtained unlawful (breach of statutory duty)?

A

*decision on whether to exclude evidence should not be taken in order to discipline police
*question is whether any impropriety affects the fairness of proceedings - proceedings become unfair if one side is allowed to adduce relevant evidence which the other side cannot properly challenge or meet, or where there has been an abuse of process
*a breach of Codes does not automatically lead to exclusion
*breach must be significant and substantial to lead to the exclusion of evidence: question of fact
*bad faith on the part of police officers will usually lead to exclusion, but good faith will not excuse serious breaches

128
Q

What breaches under Code C have been held to amount to significant and substantial breaches?

A

*failure to caution a suspect and keep a proper interview record: unfair e.g. would have given different answers + did not appreciate that he was under no obligation to answer questions, therefore it would be unfair to adduce evidence as, had defendant been properly cautioned, might have chosen to stay silent
*failure to make a contemporaneous interview record
*failure to remind of entitlement to legal advice
*failure to provide timely access to legal advice (but potential no exclusion if presence of a solicitor would not have added anything to the appellant’s knowledge of his rights - R v Dunford, therefore not unfair)

advocacy submissions - indicate what “fairness dictated” [that XXX should have happened]

129
Q

What should you do if disputing visual identification procedure and court decides not to exercise discretion under section 78?

A

consider how, in cross-exmination, to undermine the quality of the evidence of the original sighting of the defendant which the witness claims to have made and what representations to make to the court in respect of the Turnbull guidelines - this will impact cogency (NOT admissibility)

  • if breach of Code D, an application under section 78 will suceed if the court is satisfied that the identification evidence is unrealiable due to breach
130
Q

When do you have a “Turnbull witness”? [step 1]

A

witness has identified the defendant as the person who committed the defence by (a) picking them out informally, (b) identifying the defendant at a formal identification procedure at the police station, or (c) claims to recognise the defendant as someone previously known to them

131
Q

After establishing a “Turnbull witness”, when may the guidelines apply? [step 2]

A

defendant disputes visual identification:
*denies being at the scene of the affray
*admits to being at the scene but denies that he was involved (unless there was no one else present who could have resembled the accused in height, clothing, hair colour - as this would mean no mistake on part of witness)

132
Q

What factors are taken into account when assessing the quality of visual identification evidence? [step 3]

A

(1) length of observation
(2) distance
(3) lighting/visibility - daylight or night?
(4) conditions - e.g. weather + were there other people present/potentially obstructing view?
(5) how much of the suspect’s face did the witness actually see?
(6) how clear/detailed of a description can be given by the witness?
(7) whether the person identified was someone already known to the witness
(8) how closely the original description given by the witness to the police matches the actual appearance of the defendant
(9) time lapse between sighting and witness giving description to police/identifying in an ID procedure

133
Q

Who bears the responsibility of assessing the quality in the Crown Court and in the magistrates?

A

*Crown Crown: trial judge
*magistrates: defendant’s solicitor

134
Q

What happens when the quality of identification is considered good?

A

*Crown Court: judges gives Turnbull warning when summing up the case to the jury
*magistrates: Turnbull warning covered in the closing speech of the defence advocate

135
Q

What happens when the quality of identification is considered poor but supported by other evidence?

A

*Crown Court: judges gives Turnbull warning when summing up the case to the jury
*magistrates: Turnbull warning covered in the closing speech of the defence advocate

136
Q

What happens when the quality of identification is considered poor but unsupported?

A

*Crown Court: judge to stop trial at the end of the prosecution case and direct jury to acquit defendant
*magistrates: defendant’s solicitor should make a submission of no case to answer at the end of prosecution case + dismiss

137
Q

What does the Turnbull warning cover?

A

dangers of relying on identification evidence + special need for caution when considering such evidence
*put caution into practice by drawing specific attention to the weakness in the identification evidence (important in poor but supported cases) + direct jury/magistrates to the other evidence
*jury/magistrates will be reminded that a witness who is honest and convinced in his own mind may be wrong + a witness who is convicing may be wrong

138
Q

What is an adverse inference and what are the 2 main types?
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994

A

*court can draw a negative conclusion from defendant’s silence (holding a silence against the defendant) - but cannot prove guilt on its own
(1) recent fabrication: defendant remained silent because they had no adequate explanation and later fabricated facts
(2) defence not put forward when interviewed because defendant did not believe it would stand up to further investigation

139
Q

When is the court not entitled to draw an adverse inference?

A

if silence occurred at a time when the defendant had not been allowed the opportunity to consult a solicitor to obtain independent legal advice - under these circumstances, defendant had absolute right to silence

140
Q

When can an inference be drawn for failure to mention facts?

A

(1) interview was under caution
(2) defendant failed to mention any fact later relied on in defence
(3) the questioning of the defendant at the interview in which defendant failed to mention the fact had to be directed to trying to discover whether or by whom the alleged offence had been committed
(4) the fact which the defendant failed to mention had to be a fact which, in the circumstances existing at the time, the defendant could reasonably have been expected to mention when questioned

jury should be directed that an adverse inference should only be drawn if they are satisfied that the real reason for silence was that they had no answer to question or no answer that would stand up to scrutiny

silence before charge: section 34(1)(a) / when charged or officially informed he might be prosecuted: section 34(1)(b)

141
Q

What inference could be made if a written statement was prepared (defendant gives no comment interview) but not handed in at the police station?

A

can only draw an inference that the defendant was not sufficiently confident about their defence to expose this to investigation by police [no inference of fabrication can be drawn]

142
Q

Can an inference be drawn if the defendant’s silence resulted from legal advice received?

A

*yes, this is not an automatic bar to the drawing of an adverse inferece - this does not breach defendant’s right to fair trial as confirmed by ECtHR
*jury should be directed that adverse inference should not be drawn if they believe that the defendant genuinely and reasonably relied on the legal advice to remain silent

143
Q

Under what circumstances may legal privilege be waived in respect to a conversation between a suspect and their solicitor on remaining silent in a police interview?

A

*privilege will NOT be waived if defendant gives evidence that they remained silent only following advice from solicitor
*if adverse inference is avoided, court is likely to want to know the reasons for the solicitor’s advice (e.g. level of disclosure given by police was insufficient for solicitor to properly advise client, nature of case (complex/events occured a long time ago), personal circumstances of the suspect) - if defendant gives this information, privilege is waived

144
Q

When can an inference be drawn for failure to account for the presence of an object, substance, or mark/presence at a particular place at or about the time the offence was committed?

A

when police officer is requesting explanation of substance/object/mark, the suspect must be told that:
*what offence is under investigation
*what fact the suspect is being asked to account for
*the officer believes this fact may be due to the suspect taking part in the commission of the offence (must be a reasonable belief)
*court may draw an adverse inference from failure to comply with request
*a record is being made of the interview and it may be given in evidence if the suspect is brought to trial

adverse inference can be drawn irrespective of whether any defence is put forward at trial/whether the defendant testifies

section 36 for objects, substances or marks + section 37 for presence at a particular place

145
Q

When can an inference be drawn for defendant’s silence at trial?

A

section 35
*when defendant chooses not to give evidence, or having been sworn, without good cause refuses to answer any questions
before drawing inference, court to consider:
*burden of proof remains on the prosecution
*defendant is entitled to remain silent
(1) an adverse inference from the defendant’s failure to give evidence cannot on its own prove guilt (therefore court must be satisfied that there is other evidence besides silence before making adverse inference)
(2) no adverse inference could be drawn unless the only sensible explanation for silence was that he had no answer to the case against him or none that could have stood up to cross-examination
(3) jury must be satisfied that the prosecution have established a case to answer before drawing inferences from silence

146
Q

What happens when it appears that the physical/mental condition of the accused makes it undesirable for him to give evidence at trial?

A

*court has discretion to direct that an adverse inference is not drawn
*this is applied v strictly - exception is aimed at e.g. giving evidence was likely to trigger an epileptic seizure, accused was schizophrenic and testifying likely to cause a florid state, ADHD [a child with low IQ does not suffice]

147
Q

How can we challenge the admissibility of evidence obtained by entrapment?

A

possible to challenge under section 78 PACE, but preferred approach is to invite the court to exercise its common law power to stay proceedings on the basis that it would represent an abuse of court’s process to allow such a prosecution to continue

148
Q

What constitutes entrapment? + what should be considered when deciding whether to stay proceedings?

A

*when state lures individual into committing unlawful acts to prosecute them for doing so

court to consider:
*nature of the investigation
*reasonable suspicion of criminal activity as a legitimate trigger for the police operation/investigation
*nature of the offence - some offences can only be committed in a covert way, therefore police can only crack them in a covert way
*nature of police involvement (how they behaved/how persistent they were in persuading defendant to take part: concept of unexceptional opportunity and causation)
*defendant’s criminal record - only relevant where there was evidence of similar involvement
*level and extent of supervision of the undercover officers

149
Q

What are the 4 elements of hearsay?

A

(1) a statement (any representation of fact or opinion made by a person (not machine) by whatever means - therefore includes e.g. photos, sketch, gesture)
(2) made out of court
(3) relied on for the truth of the matter stated
(4) the purpose of the marker of the statement is to cause another to believe or act on the facts stated
*e.g. one would not intend diary entries to be read by other people, therefore fall outside the scope of hearsay

150
Q

What is the difference between first-hand and multiple hearsay?

A

depends on how many people the statement has passed through
*first-hand: X repeating a statement he heard Y say
*multiple: there is a chain of passing on content

151
Q

What conditions must be satisfied for hearsay evidence to be admitted under the gateway that the witness is unavailable?

A

section 116 CJA 2003
(1) statement must be first-hand hearsay
(2) person who made the statement has been identified to the court’s satisfaction
(3) one of the following applies:
*relevant person is dead
*relevant person is unfit to be a witness because of his bodily or mental condition
*relevant person is outside the UK and it is not reasonably practicable to secure his attendance
*relevant person cannot be found, although such steps as it is reasonably practicable to take to find him have been taken
*through fear (construed widely - including fear of death or injury of another person or of financial loss), the relevant person does not give oral evidence in the proceedings, either at all or in connection with the subject matter of the statement, and court gives leave for the statement to be given in evidence - leave is only given if the court considers that the statement ought to be admitted in the interests of justice having regard to the contents, to any risk of unfairness and the fact that a special meaures directions could be made

152
Q

What conditions must be satisfied for hearsay evidence to be admitting under the gateway that it is a statement contained in a business record or other documents?

A

section 117 CJA 2003
(1) document must have been created or received by a person in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, or as the holder of a paid or unpaid office
(2) supplier of the information in the document must be shown to have had personal knowledge of the information supplied [supplier can also be the person who creates the document during the course of business]
(3) where the document contains information that has been supplied to more than one person, each person receiving the information must have done so in the course of a trade, business profession or other occupation

153
Q

What are the additional conditions to be met if the documents ^ were prepared for criminal proceedings/investigations?

A

(4) person who supplied the information in the document is unavailable (as per one of the five reasons specified for “witness unavailable” gateway), or
(5) person cannot reasonably be expected (having regard to the lapse of time since he made the statement and to all the circumstances) to have any recollection of the matters dealt with in the statement

154
Q

When will a previous inconsistent statement made by a witness be admissible as hearsay evidence?

A

to undermine the witness AND as evidence of the truth of the statement’s content

155
Q

When will a previous consistent statement made by a witness be admissible as hearsay evidence?

A

(1) to rebut a suggestion that his or her oral evidence had been fabricated
(2) to refresh the witness’s memory while giving evidence on which he is cross-examined
(3) as an out of court statement which identifies or describes a person, object or place
(4) as an out of court statement made when the matters stated were fresh in the witness’s memory but he does not remember them and cannot reasonably be expected to do so well enough to give oral evidence in proceedings
(5) as an out of court statement that the witness claims to be a person against whom an offence has been committed, the offence is one to which the proceedings relate, statement consists of a complaint made by the witness about conduct which would constitute the offence, complaint was not made as a result of a threat or promise + before statement is adduced, the witness gives oral evidence in connection with its subject matter

if the statement is admitted, it will only go to the consistency of the witness, not to the truth of its contents

156
Q

When will hearsay evidence be admitted as part of the res gestae?

A

i.e. statement made contemporaneously with an event
*will be admissible because the spontaneity of the statement meant that any possibility of concoction can be disregarded
*possibility of error in facts narrated in statement should be addressed in terms of weight attached to evidence rather than admissibility - and this will be a question of fact for the jury

157
Q

What are the other common law exceptions to the hearsay rule?

A

(1) agreement by parties
(2) confession/mixed statement by defendant
(3) in the interests of justice - can be considered a “catch-all” category + court has a wide discretion to admit hearsay evidence which is cogent and reliable (section 114(1)(d))

158
Q

What will the court consider when deciding whether to admit hearsay evidence “in the interests of justice”?

A

(a) how much probative value the statement has (assuming it to be true) in relation to a matter in issue in the proceedings
(b) what other evidence has been, or can be given, on the matter the statement tries to prove
(c) how important the matter or evidence is in the context of the whole case
(d) the circumstances in which the statement was made
(e) how reliable the maker of the statement appears to be
(f) how reliable the evidence of how the statement was made appears to be
(g) whether oral evidence of the matter stated can be given and, if not, why
(h) the amount of difficulty involved in challenging the statement
(i) extent to which that difficulty will be likely to prejudice the party facing it

*should not use this limb to circumvent failure to meet all conditions for evidence to be admitted under gateway that “witness is unavailable”

159
Q

When will you need to serve a notice for admitting hearsay evidence?

A

*“interest of justice”
*witness is unavailable
*business report/document prepared for the purposes of criminal proceedings
*multiple hearsay
notice to other parties + the court

[note that an application must always be made]
court can dispense the requirement to give notice of hearsay evidence to allow notice to be given orally rather than in writing, and to shorten or extend time limits

160
Q

What is the timing for serving notice when the prosecutor wishes to adduce hearsay?

A

notice must be served not more than:
*20 business days after the defendant pleads not guilty in a magistrates’ court
*10 business after after the defendant pleads not guilty in the Crown Court

161
Q

When should a defendant serve notice if it wants to introduce hearsay evidence?

A

serve as soon as reasonably practicable

162
Q

What is a confession?

A

any statement wholly or partly adverse to the person who made it, whether made to a person in authority or not, and whether in words or otherwise

163
Q

Under what grounds can a defendant challenge the admissibility of confession evidence?

A

s.76 PACE
(1) they did not make the confession at all + the person to whom the confession was made was either mistaken as to what they heard or has fabricated evidence of the confession
(2) they did make the confession, but it should not be admitted in evidence as the confession was obtained:
*(a) by oppression of the person who made it
*(b) in consequence of anything said or done which is likely to render unreliable any confession which might be made

OR s.78 PACE: gives court general discretion to exclude prosecution evidence if the court considers that the admission would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of proceedings that it ought not to be admitted (breach must be significant and substantial)

164
Q

What constitutes oppression?

A

*defined as “torture, inhumane or degrading treatment, and use or threat of violence”
*exercise of authority or power in a burdensome, harsh, or wrongful manner - generally a v high bar: e.g. consider length of police interview, mental capacity of defendant, tactics used (should exceed mere bullying)

165
Q

When may a confession be rendered unreliable?

A

something must have been said/done which might have caused the defendant to make a confession for reasons other than the fact that they actually committed the offence and wanted to admit guilt: e.g. there has been a breach of Code C:
*suspect denied refreshments and appropriate period of rest between interviews so was not in a fit state to answer questions properly or made admissions simply to get out of the police station as soon as possible
*police offered suspect an inducement to confess
*police misrepresented the strength of the proseuction case - i.e. telling suspect there was no point in denying guilty because case against them is so strong
*questioning suspect who the police should have known was not in a fit state to be interviewed

denial of legal advice will NOT automatically render confession unreliable - there must be a causal link between breach and unreliability for confession to be excluded (e.g. if the defendant had been allowed access to legal advice, would they have made a confession?) - hard to argue if defendant was an experienced criminal

166
Q

If defendant’s argument to exclude confession evidence is successful, what will the court do?

A

will not allow confession to be given in evidence against defendant except in so far as the prosecution proves to the court beyond reasonable doubt that the confession was not obtained as aforesaid

167
Q

Can a co-defendant (B) rely on a confession made by another defendant (A)? + what if co-defendant represents to the court that his confession was obtained as a result of oppression/by means to render it unreliable?

A

yes - where both defendants plead not guilty and are tried jointly
*if a defendant (A) argues for their confession to be excluded, court need only be satisfied on the balance of probabilities that the confession was not obtained by oppression or in circumstances rendering it unreliable for it to be admissible when the co-defendant wants to rely on it (B)

168
Q

How can admissibility be challenged if defendant makes a confession outside the police station when first approached by the police and subsequently denies having made such a confession?

A

challenge under s.78 (fairness) - example of breaches:
*police failed to make an accurate record of the defendant’s comments as the police would not then be able to substantiate that such comments were in fact made
*police failed to give the defendant an opportunity to view the record of his comments and to sign this record as being accurate, or to dispute the accuracy of the record
*police failed to put this admission or confession to the defendant at the start of his subsequent interview at the police station

169
Q

How will admissibility of confession evidence be determined in the Crown Court?

A

*determined by trial judge in the absence of the jury at a voire dire (trial within a trial)
*if confession was made in police interview: (1) interviewing officer will give evidence + (2) defendant will give their version of events (+ audio recording of interview is likely to be played)
*if confession was made outside police station, officer to whom the confession was allegedly made will give evidence, followed by defendant
(3) prosecuting and defence counsel will make submissions to judge on whether or not confession should be excluded in light of evidence
*if judge rules it is inadmissible, jury will hear nothing about it
*if admissible, defence could still attack credibility of confession in an attempt to persuade the jury to attach little or no significance to it (cogency)

170
Q

How will admissibility of confession evidence be determined in the magistrates’ court?

A

*magistrates must hold a voire dire if defendant seeks to exclude under s.76(2) (circumstances rending confession unreliable + oppression) - there is no obligation to hold voire dire if seeking to exclude under s.78 (fairness)

171
Q

What is the effect of finding confession evidence inadmissible in relation to evidence discovered as a result of the confession?

A

no effect - but CPS will not be able to tell the court that such facts were discovered as a result of the confession

172
Q

What is bad character evidence?

A

evidence of, or a disposition towards, misconduct, other than evidence connected with the offence for which the defendant has been charged
*misconduct: commission of an offence or other reprehensible behaviour

173
Q

What are the 7 gateways to raise defendant’s bad character? - section 101(1)(X) Criminal Justice Act 2003

A

(a) all parties to the proceedings agree to the evidence being admissible
(b) evidence is adduced by the defendant himself or is given in answer to a question asked by him in cross-examination and intended to elicit it
(c) it is important explanatory evidence
(d) it is relevant to an important matter in issue between the defendant and prosecution
(e) it has substantial probative value in relation to an important matter in issue between the defendant and a co-defendant
(f) it is evidence to correct a false impression given by the defendant
(g) defendant has made an attack on another person’s character

174
Q

When can bad character evidence be admitted under the gateway (c)?

A

(1) without it, magistrates or jury would find it impossible or difficult to understand the case, and
(2) the value of the evidence for understanding the case as a whole is substantial
*it is for the prosecution to prove that the requirements have been satisfied
[generally, this gateway will be used to show the previous relation between people involved without which it would not be possible to understand the narrative put forward by the prosecution]

175
Q

When can bad character evidence be admitted under the gateway (d)?

A

most used in practice + can only be relied upon by the prosecution
important matters (i.e. matter of substantial importance in the context of the case as a whole) include:
(1) whether the defendant has a propensity to commit offences of the kind with which he is charged
*establish propensity (which makes it more likely that the defendant committed the current offence) by evidence that defendant has been convicted of an offence of the “same description” or an offence of the “same category”
*same description = statement of the offence in a written charge or indictment would be in the same terms
*same category = this is prescribed by the Secretary of State:
*(a) theft category offences: theft, robbery, (aggravated burglary), taking a motor vehicle or conveyance without authority, handling stolen goods, going equipped for stealing, making off without payment, any attempt to commit the substantive offences mentioned
*(b) sexual offences category
*if an earlier offence is not of the same description/category, evidence may still be admissible if there are significant factual similarities between offences: e.g. propensity to commit violence offences using a knife
*court may consider time which has passed since conviction + be satisfied that it would be unjust to adduce evidence
*fewer number of previous convictions = less likely it is that propensity is established, unless there are distinguishing circumstances or a tendency towards unusual behaviour (rape will not always amount to unusual behaviour - but potentially yes for sexual abuse of children + fire starting) (R v Hanson)
(2) whether the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful (therefore evidence given by the defendant at trial may lack credibility)
*previous offence is one in which defendant actively sought to deceive or mislead others (false representation, perjury) - mere dishonesty does NOT suffice (R v Hanson)
*defendant pleaded not guilty to an earlier offence but was convicted following a trial at which the defendant testified and was not believed

176
Q

Under what circumstances is a court prevented from admitting bad character evidence under gateway (d)? - i.e. MUST not under section 101(3)

A

if on an application by the defendant to exclude it, it appears that the admission of the evidence would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that the court ought not to admit - e.g.:
*nature of the defendant’s previous convictions is such that the jury are likely to convict a defendant on these convictions alone, rather than examining the other evidence placed before them
*evidence of the previous convictions is more prejudicial than probative
*when CPS seeks to adduce previous convictons to support a case which is otherwise weak

177
Q

Can bad character evidence be adduced in relation to a spent conviction?

A

yes - Act does not specifically prevent convictions from being admissible in evidence, but it is likely that the court will consider the fact that the conviction is spent when determining whether it would be unjust to adduce evidence

178
Q

When can bad character evidence be admitted under gateway (e)?

A

can only be relied upon by defendant:
*co-defendant (A) is likely to want to admit evidence of a defendant’s (B) bad character to demonstrate that the latter (B) has a propensity to be untruthful or to commit the kind of offence with which they have both been charged
*propensity to commit the kind of offence: co-defendant (A) will need to demonstrates that defendant’s (B) previous convictions are relevant to an important matter in issue (e.g. which one of them are responsible) and the relevance of their convictions is more than marginal or trivial
*propensity to be untruthful - admissible only to undermine defendant’s (B) defence

if co-defendant (A) satisfies the test for admitting evidence under this gateway, court has NO power to prevent admission - section 78 PACE does not apply

only evidence which is to be or has been adduced by the co-defendant or which a witness is to be invited to give or has given in cross-examination by the co-defendant is admissible

179
Q

Who can adduce bad character evidence under gateway (f)?

A

only prosecution (e.g. to correct impression made by defendant in proceedings or when questioned by police, by witness called by the defendant, by any person out of court and the defendant adduces evidence of it in proceedings - unless the defendant withdraws or dissociates himself from the statement)

180
Q

When can bad character evidence be admitted under gateway (g)?

A

only prosecution can adduce evidence under this gateway
*attack can be made on a witness, a dead person, or a person whom the CPS does not intend to call to give evidence
*attack: evidence to the effect that the other person has committed an offence or behaved (or disposed to behave) in a reprehensible way - e.g. defendant referring to complainant as a slag
*courts are generally given a wide discretion to admit evidence under this gateway - but it has been recognised that it is likely to be unfair to admit evidence only on the basis that the character of a non-victim was attacked

this gateway can be used to admit evidence of dishonesty as well as a propensity to be untrithful
*generally will go to the credibility of the defendant rather than his guilt

under section 101(3) of CJA 2003, court MUST exclude evidence which would otherwise be admitted under gateway (g) if admission would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of proceedings that the court ought not to admit it

181
Q

What may a judge do in the Crown Court if bad character evidence is “contaminated”?

A

[contaminated - e.g. witnesses colluded in order to fabricate the defendant’s bad character / exercise of improper pressure]
- apparent that evidence is contaminated and as a consequence, any conviction would be unsafe
*judge may direct jury to acquit the defendant OR discharge jury

182
Q

What is the procedure for applying to have bad character evidence adduced?

A

application must be made on the form prescribed by Part 21 CrimPR Rules + attach written record of previous convictions that party making application is seeking to adduce
*if CPS is seeking to adduce, notice must be given to court and other parties (not more than 20 business days after the defendant pleads not guilty in magistrates’ or 10 business days after defendant pleads not guilty in Crown Court)
*if co-defendant is seeking to adduce, notice served as soon as reasonably practicable and in any event, not more than 10 business days after the prosecutor discloses material on which the notice is based

if defendant opposes the introduction of bad character evidence, they must apply to the court for such evidence to be excluded (within 10 business days of notice) - application sent to court and other parties in the case

183
Q

Under what grounds can the bad character of persons (e.g. commonly the complainant) other than the defendant be adduced in trial?

A

(a) it is important explanatory evidence - leave of court will be required
(b) it has substantial probative value in relation to an important matter in the proceedings - leave required
*(1) issue to address: witness lacks credibility + witness engaged in misconduct in connection with the offence
*(2) issue must be of substantial importance in the context of the case as a whole
*(3) evidence of character must have substantial probative value - court must consider nature and number of convictions + when those events/things (convictions) are alleged to have happened or existed + similarities/dissimilarities between each of the alleged instance of misconduct
*propensity to be dishonest is sufficient in adducing bad character of witness (cf of defendant) - e.g. burglary + does not necessarily need to be a conviction to demonstrate a propensity to untruthfulness
(c) all parties agree to the evidence being admisible - leave of court NOT required

184
Q

What must the court and all those involved in the youth justice system have regard for when sentencing/convicting children?

A

the principal aim of the youth justice system to prevent offending by children and young people + the welfare of the child or young person
*want to encourage children and young people to take responsibility for their own actions and promote re-intergration into society, rather than to punish (unnecessarily criminalising children/young people should be avoided)

185
Q

What is the Youth Offending Team and what will it assist the youth court with?

A

team responsible for coordinating the provision of youth justice services in a particular local area + they will assist with:
*investigating and confirming the personal circumstances and previous convictions of the juvenile
*providing support for juveniles who are granted bail
*preparing pre-sentence reports
*administering any non-custodial sentences imposed by the youth court

186
Q

When will a juvenile be accompanied by a parent/guardian?

A

*for any child or young person aged under 16 appearing before court, there is a statutory requirement that parents/guardians attend during all stages of proceedings, unless the court is satisfied that this would be unreasonable having regard to the circumstances of the case [the fact that attendance might cause delay is an unreasonable reason] - if a court finds exception, extra care must be taken to ensure that outcomes are clearly communicated to and understood by the child or young person
*court has discretion to enforce this requirement for a young person aged 16 or 17 if it deems it desirable to do so

187
Q

What is the role of a parent/guardian who attends proceedings?

A

they must play an active role in the proceedings and court may want to hear their views and direct questions to them throughout

188
Q

Who is usually allowed to attend hearings in the youth court?

A

*district judge/youth justices
*court staff
*juvenile and his parents/guardians
*CPS representative
*juvenile’s solicitor
*representative from the Youth Offending Team
*members of the press (although they may be subject to reporting restrictions - e.g. cannot report name, address, school, or any other details which are likely to lead to the identification of the juvenile or any other child/young person involved in the case)

189
Q

How and when may reporting restrictions on the press be lifted?

A

*reporting restrictions generally end when the individual reaches the age of 18
*statute allows for a lifelong reporting restriction in respect of a victim or witness who is under the age of 18 during proceedings
*the court has the power to lift restrictions to avoid injustice or, following conviction, if the court is satisfied that it is in the public interest to reveal the juvenile’s identity (there must be some real benefit to the community + power should not be used as additional punishment)

190
Q

How can a child apply for representation orders?

A

all juveniles automatically satisfy the means test - therefore only need to assess interests of justice test + Legal Aid Agency must take into account the age of the juvenile when deciding whether order should be granted

191
Q

What are juveniles aged 10-13 inclusive referred to as?

A

children

192
Q

What are juveniles aged 14-17 inclusive referred to as?

A

young people

193
Q

When may a juvenile be classified as a young persistent offender? + why is this significant?

A

usually a juvenile who has been sentenced on 3 separate occassions:
*juvenile cannot reasonably be classed as a YPO if they have committed only one previous offence
*a child/young person who has committed two or more previous offences should not necessarily be assumed to be one - but consider the nature of the previous offences and the lapse of time between the offences

*some sentences can only be imposed on juveniles if they are deemed a persistent offender + a juvenile who is a PYO will have their case expedited so youth court may deal with them as quickly as possible

194
Q

How is the layout of the youth court room different from that of the magistrates?

A

less formal:
*all participants will be sitting at the same level
*juvenile will usually sit on a chair in front of the CPS representative and his own solicitor
*straightforward language is encouraged + key terminology differences: “finding of guilt” rather than conviction + “order upon a finding of guilty” rather than sentence
*solicitors will remain seated when addressing the court
*juveniles and child witnesses are usually spoken to and referred to by their first name

195
Q

What happens if the individual turns 18 prior to their first appearance in the youth court?

A

the case must be dealt with in the adult magistrates’ court
*if convicted, the juvenile will be subject to the full range of sentencing powers which the magistrates’ court may exercise

196
Q

What happens if the individual turns 18 whilst the case is ongoing but after their first appearance in the youth court?

A

youth court may remit the case to the adult magistrates’ court or retain the case
*if retained, youth court will have the full range of sentencing powers that the adult magistrates’ court would have if it was dealing with the case

197
Q

What is the general position on which court the juvenile should be tried in?

A

starting point is that cases involving children and young people should be tried in the Youth Court - this is the court best designed to meet their specific needs

198
Q

When must the juvenile be sent to the Crown Court (contrary to the general position)?

A

(a) charged with homicide
(b) charged with a firearms offence subject to a mandatory minimum sentence of 3 years + juvenile attained the age of 16 at the time of the alleged offence
(c) notice has been given to the court in a serious or complex fraud or child case

199
Q

What is the grave crime exception to the general position on allocation?

A

youth court may accept jurisdiction where juvenile is charged with a grave crime or send case to Crown Court
(1) grave crime: an offence which is punishable with 14 years imprisonment or more if offender is aged 21 or over - e.g. robbery, rape, assault by penetration, s.18 GBH, sexual offences, dwelling burglary, arson (aggravated), aggravated criminal damage, manslaughter
(2) youth court should only send to the Crown Court if it considers that its maximum sentencing powers will be insufficient in the event that the juvenile is convicted - the test to be applied is whether there is a real prospect that a sentence substantially exceeding 2 years’ detention will be imposed
*court should hear submissions from the prosecution and defence in deciding whether to retain or send case
*for juveniles aged 10-14 (not PYO), court should take into account the normal prohibition on imposing custodial sentence
(3) if court retains case, it must warn the child/young person that all available sentencing options remain open and, if found guilty, they could be committed to the Crown Court for sentence

200
Q

What is the dangerousness exception to the general position on allocation?

A

case should be sent to the Crown Court if
(1) the offence is a specified (violent or sexual) offence
(2) court is of the opinion that there is a significant risk to the public of serious harm caused by the child or young person committing further specified offences, and
*significant risk is more than a mere possibility - in making this assessment, it will be essential to obtain a pre-sentence report
(3) a custodial sentence of at least 4 years would be imposed for the offence

201
Q

If juvenile is jointly charged with adult and adult’s case is being dealt with in the Crown Court, which court would the juvenile be allocated to?

A

juvenile may be sent to the Crown Court if this would be regarded as necessary in the interests of justice

202
Q

If juvenile is jointly charged with adult and adult’s case is being dealt with in the magistrates’ court, which court would the juvenile be allocated to?

A

adult and juvenile will be tried together in the adult magistrates’ court + if juvenile is convicted, magistrates will normally remit their case to the youth court for sentence unless they propose to deal with the matter by way of fine or a discharge

203
Q

What is the main difference between the allocation procedure for adults and juveniles?

A

juvenile does not have any right of election

204
Q

Where may juveniles be remanded to if refused bail?

A

(1) local authority accommodation
(2) youth detention accommodation for 12-17 year olds
(3) custody for 17 year olds

205
Q

What conditions must be met to remand a child to youth detention accommodation?

A

[note there is a presumption that chidlren will be remanded into local authority accommodation rather than youth detention accommodation]
(1) juvenile must be aged 12 to 17
(2) juvenile must have legal representation
*applies if child was represented but that was withdrawn because of child’s conduct, or application for representation was made and refused
(3) offence will need to be:
*(a) violent offence
*(b) sexual offence
*(c) one for which an adult could be punished with a term of imprisonment of 14 years or more
*(d) child has recent and significant history of absconding and it appears to the court that the history is relevant in all the circumstances of the case, AND at least one of the offences faced now is alleged to have been committed while the child was remanded to local authority acommodation or youth detention accommodation
*(e) recent and significant history of committing imprisonable offences while on bail or subject to a custodial remand and this appears to the court relevant in all the circumstances of the case
(4) sentencing requirement: it must appear to the court that it is very likely that the child will be sentenced to a custodial sentence for the offence
(5) court must believe a remand to youth detention acommodation is necessary to protect the public from death or serious (physical or psychological) personal injury occassioned by further offences committed by the juvenile, or to prevent the commission by the juvenile of further imprisonable offences, and that the risk imposed by the child cannot be managed satisfactorily/safely in the community

206
Q

When must a referral order be made?

A

must be made for juvenile who pleads guilty to an imprisonable offence and who has never previously been convicted, unless court is proposing to impose a custodial sentence or to make an absolute/conditional discharge
*discretionary referral order can be imposed for any offence where there has been a plea of guilty regardless of previous offending history

207
Q

What is the effect of a referral order?

A

juvenile will be referred to a youth offender panel to agree an intensive contract (youth offender contract) - programme of behaviour designed to prevent juvenile re-offending and will last 3-12 months (depending on seriousness of offence)

208
Q

Who would be responsible for satisfying a financial order (compensation order or fine)?

A

*if child/young person is under 16, court has a duty to order parents/guardians to pay fine
*if child/young person is 16 or over, duty is discretionary
- in most circumstances, children and young people have limited financial resources and court will need to determine whether imposing a fine will be the most effective disposal

max fines: £250 for children aged 10-13 + £1,000 for young people aged 14-17

209
Q

When can the youth court impose a custodial sentence?

A

*must only be imposed as a measure of last resort
*court must have received from the YOT a pre-sentence report that specifically addresses custody as a possible sentencing option
*child must be legally represented (unless they have refused to apply for legal aid or it has been withdrawn)
*if imposed, court must state its reason for being satisfied that the offence is so serious that no other sanction would be appropriate (e.g. fine + community order) and, in particular, why a youth rehabilitation order with intensive supervision and surveillance or fostering could not be justified
*cannot be imposed on juveniles aged 10 or 11
*order only available to juveniles aged 12-14 if court considers that juvenile is a persistent young offender
*there is no restriction on the making of an order for juveniles aged 15 or over

210
Q

How long can a detention and training order be?

A

at least 4 months, but must not exceed 24 months

211
Q

How will the court determine the appropriate length of sentence?

A

(1) consult the equivalent adult guidelines
(2) apply reduction if court feels it appropriate - usually due to emotional and development age and maturity of the child or young person
*reduce by 1/3-1/2 for those aged 15-17 and allow a greater reduction for those aged under 15

when order is made, juvenile will be held in a young offender institution for 1/2 of period of order and will then be released into the community under the supervision of the YOT

212
Q

When may the court include a fostering requirement within a youth rehabilitation order?

A

court must be satisfied that the behaviour which constituted the offence was due to a significant extent to the circumstances in which the child or young person was living + the imposition of fostering requirement would assist in the child or young person’s rehabilitation
*court must consult the child/young person’s parent/guardian (unless impracticable) and local authority before including this requirement
*max period of 12 months