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1. MC-12 Study Guide > Proline Avionics / FMS 3000 / GPS WAAS > Flashcards

Proline Avionics / FMS 3000 / GPS WAAS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the Air Data System (ADS)?

A

The Air Data System (ADS) generates processed air data for display on the Adaptive Flight Displays (AFDs) and for use by the Attitude Heading System (AHS), Flight Guidance System (FGS), and Flight Management System (FMS).

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2
Q

At what Altitude range does the Radio Altimeter System display RADAR Altitude?

A

0-2500 feet AGL

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3
Q

What type of turbulence does the Turbulence Weather Radar System detect?

A

Precipitation-related Turbulence

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4
Q

Are the Primary Flight Displays interchangeable with the Multifunction Display?

A

No, the PFDs are not interchangeable with the MFD.

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5
Q

Does the LSC/ISS pre-warn and warn for Stall based on the actual weight of the aircraft?

A

No, pre-warning and warning logic is based on MGW & flap setting.

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6
Q

How quickly will menus and pages controlled by the Display Control Panel time out?

A

After 10 Seconds

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7
Q

What does a yellow underline of the Altimeter Setting indicate?

A

There is a difference between the Pilot’s and Co-Pilot’s PFD Altimeter Setting of > .02”Hg or 1 hPa.

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8
Q

What color is displayed for the #1 Bearing Needle?

A

Magenta

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9
Q

What is the normal MFD Map Display format for flight?

A

Present Position (PPOS) Map Format

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10
Q

Which MFD MAP Format will overlay US NEXRAD Weather Images?

A

The Plan MAP Format

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11
Q

How long must the pilot press/hold the TFC Key in order to select the TCAS Information page (TCAS Only Format)?

A

More than 1 second

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12
Q

What sensors does the FMS use to compute a navigation and PPOS solution?

A

The first available sensor

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13
Q

In the event of an MFD failure, which switch should the pilot toggle, and to which position?

A

The pilot should toggle the Pilot Display Switch on the Reversionary Panel to the “PFD” position.

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14
Q

For FGS steering commands in ROLL mode, the Flight Director will provide guidance to steer to the Pilot’s current angle of bank if the AOB is greater than what?

A

Answer: 5⁰

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15
Q

How many presets can be stored on the CDU’s COM CONTROL pages?

A

20

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16
Q

Determination of Engine Anti-Ice Requirement is based on IOAT obtained from what OAT gage?

A

The Digital OAT Gage with reference to the IOAT Correction ISA Chart in Chapter 5 of the OEM’s POH.

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17
Q

What 5 Guides are required to be immediately available to the pilot at all times?

A

PL21 Guide, FMS-3000 Guide, ESIS Guide, TCAS Guide and EGPWS Guide

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18
Q

What is the autopilot minimum use height during an approach?

A

79 feet AGL

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19
Q

What is the maximum coupled intercept angle for NAV and Localizer?

A

< 90⁰

*70 degrees = back course

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20
Q

How far from their current ATC Clearance Altitude can pilots deviate in order to comply with a TCAS II RA?

A

To the extent necessary

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21
Q

When using VNAV, which altimeter must be used?

A

Barometric Altimeter

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22
Q

When using GEO-POL data, display ranges less than what amount are not authorized?

A

50 nm

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23
Q

How long will the IAS readout flash RED when a LSC/ISS warning or Overspeed alert occurs?

A

5 seconds

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24
Q

How is the Aural Warning cancelled, if the Autopilot was disconnected automatically?

A

By pressing the AP/YD TRIM Disconnect Button on the Yoke.

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25
Q

When does the Pre-Select Altitude readout stop flashing when approaching the level-off altitude?

A

As altitude closes within ± 200 feet of the Pre-Select Altitude

26
Q

Which has priority, the AFX message or the FIRE message?

A

The FIRE message

27
Q

How is the detection of Traffic Advisory (TA) traffic by TCAS (regardless of whether or not a TCAS format is selected for display) indicated?

A

The normally-cyan TA ONLY TCAS mode legend next to Line Select Key R3 changes color to flashing yellow.

28
Q

When is a PROP comparator warning triggered?

A

When the two sources of engine data (engine DCUs) disagree by more than 50 rpm

29
Q

The color of the TO waypoint on the Control Display Unit is?

A

Green

30
Q

Proper pre-flight of the FMS Status page includes?

A

Ensuring current data base (VIPP).

31
Q

What are some acceptable reference points to use to initialize POS INIT?

A

Use the most accurate of AIRPORT, PILOT/REF WPT, GNSS, or FMS

32
Q

When is the message RESET INITIAL POS displayed on the message line?

A

If initialized position is greater than 40 miles from previous FMS position.

33
Q

When can changes be made to a flight plan?

A

During the creation process or as necessary in-flight.

34
Q

When will the FMS generate a NOT ON AIRWAY message?

A

When an entry or exit waypoint is entered that is not on the airway.

35
Q

When selecting an arrival, what minimum airport data should be selected for a visual approach?

A

Runway of intended landing

36
Q

Simple Performance initialization requires what two entry items?

A

Total fuel weight and cruise altitude

37
Q

What are route discontinuities used for?

A

To show a break in flight plan sequence, or to isolate portions of the flight plan while edits or changes are made.

38
Q

How many ways can a discontinuity be deleted?

A

1) A delete command from the scratchpad.

2) By insertion of the next applicable waypoint (preferred).

39
Q

What is one example of a discontinuity that cannot be deleted with the CLR DEL function key?

A

A discontinuity at the end of a search pattern.

40
Q

What is the entry format for an Along Track Offset?

A

IDENT/DIST/NAME (optional)

41
Q

What are the PLACE BRG / DIST entry parameters in

regards to numerical limits?

A

000°-360° and 0.1-199.9 NM

FMS displays north as 360°

42
Q

What is the shorthand LAT/LONG for

S5600.0E01500.0?

A

5615S

43
Q

DIR TO nearest airports provides access to how many airports?

A

5

44
Q

How many characters are allowed for WPT entry using LAT/LONG Shorthand ?

A

5; 4 numbers, 1 letter

45
Q

The Offset Parallel Course entry is accessed from what page?

A

FPLN Page

46
Q

From what page is VNAV Set Up accessed?

A

PERF Page

47
Q

Is it possible to override a smoothed descent by inputting a particular VPA?

A

Yes, but only via the Legs Page.

48
Q

What are the “outputs” of the Trip Calculator?

A

Estimated Time En Route (ETE) and Fuel Required (FUEL REQ)

49
Q

VNAV Data is best changed on what Page?

A

the LEGS page

50
Q

When do messages clear from the MESSAGES Page?

A

When they are self-cleared after the “trigger-cause” has been resolved.

51
Q

If the Pilot’s PFD is in the (PPOS) MAP mode, what is the only accessible MFD format?

A

PPOS (MAP) Format

52
Q

Can you legally build and execute an approach to a runway if its not in the FMS-3000 database?

A

No. FMS based instrument approaches must be accomplished in accordance with approved instrument approach procedures that are retrieved from the FMS-3000 database.

53
Q

What must be selected as the NAV source on localizer based approaches after the FAF?

A

LOC must be selected from the FAF to the runway.

54
Q

True or False:

An Inertial Navigation System (INS) requires external navigational aids to operate.

A

FALSE, INS uses a computer and motion sensors (accelerometers) mounted on gyro-stabilized, gimbaled platforms to continuously calculate velocity and dead reckoning position without the need for external references.

55
Q

Standard GPS Final approaches require accuracy of at least

a. .1 nautical mile accuracy.

b .5 nautical mile accuracy.

c. .3 nautical mile accuracy.

A

Answer: C. .3 nautical mile accuracy.

56
Q

True or False:
An IFR alternate airfield may be selected if the global positioning system (GPS) is required for an IFR approach to that airfield and descent from en route minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing cannot be made in VFR conditions.

A

False

57
Q

How long will the IAS readout flash RED when a LSC/ISS warning or Overspeed alert occurs?

A

5 sec

58
Q

The autopilot minimum engage height after takeoff is ___ feet AGL.

The autopilot minimum use height during cruise is ___ feet AGL.

The autopilot minimum use height during approach is ___ feet AGL.

The autopilot minimum use height during steep approach is ___ feet AGL.

A

The autopilot minimum engage height after takeoff is 400 feet AGL.

The autopilot minimum use height during cruise is 1000 feet AGL.

The autopilot minimum use height during approach is 79 feet AGL.

The autopilot minimum use height during steep approach is 160 feet AGL.

59
Q

How many GPS Satellites orbit the earth and two many are observable by a user anywhere on earth?

A

Minimum of 24 GPS satellites orbit the earth of which at least 5 are observable by a user anywhere on earth.

60
Q

How many satellites are required to acquire a accurate three-dimensional position?

A

Minimum of 4 satellites is necessary to establish an accurate three-dimensional position.

61
Q

Standard GPS Final approaches require accuracy of at least

a. .1 nautical mile accuracy.
b .5 nautical mile accuracy.
c. .3 nautical mile accuracy.

A

c. .3 nautical mile accuracy.

62
Q

An IFR alternate airfield may be selected if the global positioning system (GPS) is required for an IFR approach to that airfield and descent from en route minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing cannot be made in VFR conditions..

True or False?

A

False

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