Prof. Etukumana Flashcards
________ Provides the basis for developing organizational goals and objectives
Mission statement
The 2 types of organizational structure
- Pyramidal organizational Structure
- Flat organizational Structure
Which of the models of organizational Structure emphasizes on bureaucracy?
Mechanistic Organizational Structure
Which of the models of organizational Structure tend to employ cross-functional team with low formalization?
Organic Organizational Structure
_________ creates a sense of identity for members within the organization
Organizational Culture
Mention the sources of conflict in an organization (hint: 5)
incongruent goals, power, status, culture, resources
Ways of handling organizational conflict are (hint: 4)
avoiding
accommodating
compromise
negotiation
Steps in decision making (hint: 7)
- Identification of the problem,
- establishment of decision criteria,
- search for relevant information,
- development of alternative solutions to problem,
- evaluation of alternative solutions,
- choose the best solution,
- implementation and monitoring of chosen solution
What is organizational management
Management is the process of ensuring optimum utilization of the resources of the organization( human, Finance, materials) to achieve organizational goal and objectives
Mention the functions of management (hint: 5)
- Planning
- Organizing
- Commanding
- Coordinating
- Controlling
which function of management involves comparing actual performance with established standards or planned action
Controlling
A leader should be able to carryout the functions of management, T/F
TRUE
________ is the process of developing a commitment to some course of action
Decision making
_______ necessitates making a choice
Decision making
List the 8 roles/functions of a leader of an organization
planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, controlling, communication, decision-making, managing change in organization
Characteristics of effective leader (hint: 10)
- Intelligence
- Knowledgeable & expertise
- Dominance
- Self-confidence
- High energy,
- Tolerance for stress
- Maturity
- Integrity
9, Honesty - Accountability
List the principles of Management (hint: 13)
- Division of labour
- Co-existing authority and responsibility
- Principle of one Boss
- Unity of direction:
- Equity
- Order
- Discipline
- Initiative
- Remuneration
- Scalar chain:
- Sub-ordination of individual interest to general interest
12.Espirit De’corp - Centralization or decentralization
The main objective of BLS is to provide ________ and to _______
oxygen to the heart and the brain
sustain tissue viability
CAB principle of BLS stands for
Compression, Airway, Breathing
BLS is not based on Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, T/F
FALSE
Mention the clinical indicators of patient at risk of cardiac arrest (hint: 4)
tachypnoea
tachycardia
hypotension
reduced conscious level
Documented cases of CPR related infection are (hint: 3)
Neisseria meningitidis (mainly)
Tuberculosis
HIV transmission
If there is a suspected cervical spine injury what BLS maneuver should be done for opening the airway
Jaw thrust
Assess breathing for ____secs before deciding breathing is absent
10 seconds
Rescue breath is also called _____
Expired air ventilation
When giving rescue breath chin lift must be maintained at all times, T/F
TRUE
For chest compression, depress the sternum for ___cm at a rate of
4-5cm
100/min
Mouth-to-mouth rescue breath can be given to a drowned patient with cardiopulmonary failure, T/F
FALSE
Mouth-to-nose ventilation is recommended
Recovery position has how many stages
4
List the components of Pediatric chain of survival (hint: 4)
- Prevention of cardiopulmonary arrest
- Early CPR
- Early access to Emergency Medical Service (EMS)
- Early access to Pediatric advanced life support (PALS)
to access circulation, palpate _____ pulse in children
Brachial pulse
The two techniques of chest compression in pediatric are
- Two finger technique
- Thumb-encircling hands technique
How many rescue breath per minute do you give in pBLS in a child with respiratory failure but signs of circulatory presence
20 rescue breaths per minute
In pediatric, heart rate less than ___ is an indication to start chest compression
60bpm
In tropical Africa _______ are responsible for most snake bites
Vipers
Which family of snake has venom with powerful neurotoxic effect leading to muscular paralysis
Elapidae e.g., Cobra, Mamba, Coral snake
The hydrophidae has what type of venom
Myotoxic venom which causes necrolysis of muscles
Most victims of snake bite are b/w the ages ___ & ____yrs
5 & 30yrs
Most sites of snake bite occur on the hand, T/F
FALSE.
More on the feet
The effect of snake venom on a victim depends on ______ & _____
Type/Family of the snake AND amount of venom
Local swelling is most common in which families of snake (hint: 2)
Viperidae & Crotalidae
Local swelling is most common in which families of snake (hint: 2)
Viperidae & Crotalidae
Early systemic symptom of viper’s venom is ________
Blood-stained spit
Early systemic symptom of Elapidae venom is ________
Ptosis
followed by Glosso-pharyngeal palsy
List the toxin in Cobra’s venom
Neurotoxin, Cardiotoxin
Mention the 5 poisonous snake families
Viperidae
Crotalidae
Elapidae
Colubridae
Hydrophidae
Presence of species-specific venom of snake can be confirmed by _________
Immunodiffusion
When do you give anti-venom serum
When the victim starts showing signs of systemic venom poisoning
How do you administer Polyvalent viper-Cobra-Mamba anti-venom serum
Give 50-100ml anti-venom serum in 200-300ml of isotonic saline via infusion in 1hr
N/B: Test dose of 0.2ml s.c or IM should be given first
Administering Tetanus toxoid is part of mgt of snake bitten victim, T/F
TRUE
A Hydrophidae bitten victim can present with what systemic features
Muscle pain & stiffness, external ophthalmoplegia, Trismus, Myoglobinuria, Proteinuria, renal failure
What is Evidence-based medicine
defined as “the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best available evidence in making decisions about the care of the individual patient.” by David Sackett
EBM is the integration of _______, ______ & ______
Best research evidence with Clinical expertise and patient value
Types of Evidence
- Disease oriented evidence (DOE)
- Patient oriented evidence that matters (POEM)
The most reliable & acceptable evidence in the hierarchy of evidence is
Level I Randomized controlled trials/Meta-analyses/systematic reviews
Case series is in Level II of hierarchy of evidence, T/F
FALSE
Level III
Clinical practice guidelines are fixed protocol that must always be followed, T/F
FALSE
There are not fixed protocols that must always be followed but intended for health providers to consider
Cohort study is under what level of hierarchy of evidence
Level II
Types of Solid state storage (hint: 2)
- Flash drive
- Media card
Types of optical storage devices
- Compact disc (CD)
- Digital versatile disc (DVD)
Hard disk drive is an example of Solid storage device, T/F
FALSE
Motherboard (MOBO) is a _____ component of a computer
Computation
Computer applications in medicine (hint: 12)
The conditions that usually affects patients during sports and recreational activities are _______ & _______
orthopedic and medical conditions
Pre-participation physical examination provides an opportunity for general health assessment, T/F
TRUE
Pre-participation examination consists of both _____ & _____ components
medical and musculoskeletal components
The leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes is ________
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Syncope that occurs after exercise is a warning symptom in athlete, T/F
FALSE
Syncope that occur during but not after exercise is of great concern and needs cardiologist assessment
List the warning symptoms in athletes
palpitations, chest pain, lightheadedness, dyspnea and fatigue greater than expected for level of activity
Echocardiography is recommended for the screening of all athletes, T/F
FALSE
ECG is being recommended for the screening of all athletes
ECG is more sensitive than history and physical examination in identifying athletes with underlying cardiovascular disease, T/F
TRUE
________ arrhythmias are common in athletes
Bradyarrhythmias caused by increased resting vague tone are common in athletes e.g. sinus bradycardia, sinus arrhythmia, and atrioventricular (AV) block
Causes of sudden death in athletes (hint: 5)
- Structural cardiac abnormalities such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, coronary artery anomalies
- Commotio Cordis
- Drugs and stimulants
- Complete heart block
- Exertional hyponatremia
What is concussion?
A concussion is a traumatically induced transient disturbance in neurological function, usually caused by a direct blow to the head, neck or face that resolves spontaneously
Computed tomography or MRI is indicated in concussion, T/F
FALSE
What test would aid return-to-play or practice of an asymptomatic concussion athlete
Neuropsychological testing
List symptoms of concussion (hint: 6)
loss of consciousness, amnesia, confusion, vision problems, nausea and balance problems
Heat stroke is usually associated with ______
Mental status changes
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature at or below 35 centigrade, T/F
FALSE
at or below 32 centigrade
What is exercise
Exercise is a planned, coordinated and regular physical activity carried out to improve one or more components of physical fitness
Classification of exercise (hint: 3)
- Aerobic
- Anaerobic
- Flexibility
A complete exercise session follows the three stages of exercise which are
Warm up
Work out
Cool down
What is exercise prescription?
Exercise prescription refers to the specific plan of fitness-related activities that are designed for a specified purpose
Define medical screening
It is the systematic application of a test or inquiry to identify individuals at sufficient risk of a specific disorder to benefit from further investigation or direct preventive action
Medical screening is usually performed on a person that is apparently in good health, T/F
TRUE
What are the types of medical screening?
- Universal or Mass Screening
- Selective (High Risk) screening or Case Finding
- Multiphase Screening
WHO Modified Medical Screening Criteria (2008) (hint: 10)
- Screening programme should respond to a recognized need
- The objectives of screening should be defined at the onset
3.. There should be a defined target population - There should be scientific evidence of screening programme effectiveness
- The programme should integrate education, testing , clinical services and programme management
- There should be quality assurance to minimize potential risks of screening
- The programme should promote equity and access to screening for all involved
- should ensure informed choice, confidentiality and respect for autonomy
- evaluation should be planned from onset
- The overall benefits of screening should outweigh the harm
True communication is not possible without _________
perception
_________ is the process of forming impressions about something and then making a judgement about this
Perception
Our perception and our judgement are affected/influenced by our _______
Senses
The components of communication (hint: 5)
Source/sender—origin of message
Receiver—receiver and interpreter
Channel—means of transmission
Message—idea that is communicated
Effects—results
Writing is under what type of communication?
Verbal communication
When two people talk directly to each other the meaning of the message is derived from 6 things, which are
Spoken word → language
Voice tone → paralanguage
Gesture and expression → body language (voluntary and involuntary)
Dress and grooming → personal appearance eg, overcoat, hairstyle, etc.
Possessions → personal effects, eg pen, stethoscope
Affiliations and activities → context and intent of the behaviour
____% of message is conveyed by body language
55%
Only 38% of the message is conveyed by Spoken words, T/F
FALSE
Only 20-30%
38% by para language
Non verbal signals are largely subconscious, T/F
TRUE
_______ gaze is usually below the eye level
Social gaze
_______ gaze tends to move below the chin
Intimate gaze
The lips smile is deceptive, T/F
TRUE
Characteristics of speech (hint: 4)
Tone
Speed
Loudness
Rhythm
_____ determines a doctors empathy rating
Patient’s response only
Interpersonal skills of communication are unconsciously employed, T/F
FALSE
Interpersonal skills are deliberate and consciously employed
Interpersonal skills comprise of ________, ________ & _________
understanding, empathy and relational versatility
Barriers to effective communication (hint: 5)
Language barrier
Workplace environment
Status and position
Resistance to Change
Emotional reactions
Empathy is a visceral response, T/F
FALSE
Empathy is a cerebral response while sympathy is a visceral response
The 3 basic functions of medical consultation are
(a) Building relationship
(b) Collecting Data
(c) Agreement on Management Plan
The quality of consultation and clinical outcomes depends on effective _________
Communication
Define Medical consultation based Prof. Etukumana
defined as a process in which a person who is ill or believes himself/herself to be ill, seeks the advice of a doctor whom he/she trusts, ideally in a consulting room. (Etukumana EA, Uniuyo)
Desired Outcomes of Medical Consultation are (hint: 9)
- Build the doctor-patient relationship
- Collection of data
- To agree on management
- Patient satisfaction
- Reduced risk of complaints
- Adherence to treatment program
- Improved health outcomes
- Job Satisfaction
- Increase practice turnover
Mention the Models or Approaches of medical consultation (hint: ABC3D2eFGHISPaN)
A- Anthropological/Folk Model by Helman
B- Biopsychosocial Interpretation by Engel G
C1- Consultation Maps Model by David Pendleton
C2- Cambridge-Calgary Model by Silverman Kurtz and Draper
C3- Comprehensive Model of Consultation
D1- Disease-illness Model (Integrated patient centred Clinical Model) by Stewart & Roter
D2- Doctor as treatment Model by Michael Balint
F- Flanagan’s Model
G- Games people play by Eric Berne
H- Health Belief Model by Becker & Maiman
I- inner consultation model by Roger Neighbor
S- Six category intervention analysis by John Heron
P- Patient centred Model by Byrne & long
N- Narrative-based Model( John Launer)
Telephone medical consultation is used mostly in emergency, T/F
TRUE
List the skills for effective consultation (hint: 6)
- Welcoming
- Questions
- Listening
- Responding
- Explanation
- Closure
Define Travel medicine
Travel Medicine seeks to prevent illnesses and injuries occurring to travelers going abroad and also manage problems arising in travellers coming back or coming from abroad
The % mortality associated with travelers are
-for Accident/trauma
- for CVS
-for Infectious dx
cardiovascular diseases(50-70%)
accidents/trauma(20-25%)
infectious disease (2.4 – 4%)
Travel consultation involves 5 things which are
Risk assessment
Risk reduction
Shared decisions
Consultation should be carried out 4 weeks prior to departure
An opportunity to carry out travel health advice
Pre-travel consultation should be carried out ____wks prior to departure
4 weeks
Drowning is a common cause of death amongst travelers, T/F
TRUE
In ulcer mgt reduced acidity may predispose to _______ disease
Diarrhoeal disease
In traveler’s diarrhoeal, water contamination is more common than food contamination, T/F
FALSE
Food contamination is more common than water
Duration of illness of Traveler’s diarrheal is normally ____to____ days
3-5days
