Prof. Etukumana Flashcards
1
Q
________ Provides the basis for developing organizational goals and objectives
A
Mission statement
2
Q
The 2 types of organizational structure
A
- Pyramidal organizational Structure
- Flat organizational Structure
3
Q
Which of the models of organizational Structure emphasizes on bureaucracy?
A
Mechanistic Organizational Structure
4
Q
Which of the models of organizational Structure tend to employ cross-functional team with low formalization?
A
Organic Organizational Structure
5
Q
_________ creates a sense of identity for members within the organization
A
Organizational Culture
6
Q
Mention the sources of conflict in an organization (hint: 5)
A
incongruent goals, power, status, culture, resources
7
Q
Ways of handling organizational conflict are (hint: 4)
A
avoiding
accommodating
compromise
negotiation
8
Q
Steps in decision making (hint: 7)
A
- Identification of the problem,
- establishment of decision criteria,
- search for relevant information,
- development of alternative solutions to problem,
- evaluation of alternative solutions,
- choose the best solution,
- implementation and monitoring of chosen solution
9
Q
What is organizational management
A
Management is the process of ensuring optimum utilization of the resources of the organization( human, Finance, materials) to achieve organizational goal and objectives
10
Q
Mention the functions of management (hint: 5)
A
- Planning
- Organizing
- Commanding
- Coordinating
- Controlling
11
Q
which function of management involves comparing actual performance with established standards or planned action
A
Controlling
12
Q
A leader should be able to carryout the functions of management, T/F
A
TRUE
13
Q
________ is the process of developing a commitment to some course of action
A
Decision making
14
Q
_______ necessitates making a choice
A
Decision making
15
Q
List the 8 roles/functions of a leader of an organization
A
planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, controlling, communication, decision-making, managing change in organization
16
Q
Characteristics of effective leader (hint: 10)
A
- Intelligence
- Knowledgeable & expertise
- Dominance
- Self-confidence
- High energy,
- Tolerance for stress
- Maturity
- Integrity
9, Honesty - Accountability
17
Q
List the principles of Management (hint: 13)
A
- Division of labour
- Co-existing authority and responsibility
- Principle of one Boss
- Unity of direction:
- Equity
- Order
- Discipline
- Initiative
- Remuneration
- Scalar chain:
- Sub-ordination of individual interest to general interest
12.Espirit De’corp - Centralization or decentralization
18
Q
The main objective of BLS is to provide ________ and to _______
A
oxygen to the heart and the brain
sustain tissue viability
19
Q
CAB principle of BLS stands for
A
Compression, Airway, Breathing
20
Q
BLS is not based on Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, T/F
A
FALSE
21
Q
Mention the clinical indicators of patient at risk of cardiac arrest (hint: 4)
A
tachypnoea
tachycardia
hypotension
reduced conscious level
22
Q
Documented cases of CPR related infection are (hint: 3)
A
Neisseria meningitidis (mainly)
Tuberculosis
HIV transmission
23
Q
If there is a suspected cervical spine injury what BLS maneuver should be done for opening the airway
A
Jaw thrust
24
Q
Assess breathing for ____secs before deciding breathing is absent
A
10 seconds
25
Rescue breath is also called _____
Expired air ventilation
26
When giving rescue breath chin lift must be maintained at all times, T/F
TRUE
27
For chest compression, depress the sternum for ___cm at a rate of
4-5cm
100/min
28
Mouth-to-mouth rescue breath can be given to a drowned patient with cardiopulmonary failure, T/F
FALSE
Mouth-to-nose ventilation is recommended
29
Recovery position has how many stages
4
30
List the components of Pediatric chain of survival (hint: 4)
1. Prevention of cardiopulmonary arrest
2. Early CPR
3. Early access to Emergency Medical Service (EMS)
4. Early access to Pediatric advanced life support (PALS)
31
to access circulation, palpate _____ pulse in children
Brachial pulse
32
The two techniques of chest compression in pediatric are
1. Two finger technique
2. Thumb-encircling hands technique
33
How many rescue breath per minute do you give in pBLS in a child with respiratory failure but signs of circulatory presence
20 rescue breaths per minute
34
In pediatric, heart rate less than ___ is an indication to start chest compression
60bpm
35
In tropical Africa _______ are responsible for most snake bites
Vipers
36
Which family of snake has venom with powerful neurotoxic effect leading to muscular paralysis
Elapidae e.g., Cobra, Mamba, Coral snake
37
The hydrophidae has what type of venom
Myotoxic venom which causes necrolysis of muscles
38
Most victims of snake bite are b/w the ages ___ & ____yrs
5 & 30yrs
39
Most sites of snake bite occur on the hand, T/F
FALSE.
More on the feet
40
The effect of snake venom on a victim depends on ______ & _____
Type/Family of the snake AND amount of venom
41
Local swelling is most common in which families of snake (hint: 2)
Viperidae & Crotalidae
42
Local swelling is most common in which families of snake (hint: 2)
Viperidae & Crotalidae
43
Early systemic symptom of viper's venom is ________
Blood-stained spit
44
Early systemic symptom of Elapidae venom is ________
Ptosis
followed by Glosso-pharyngeal palsy
45
List the toxin in Cobra's venom
Neurotoxin, Cardiotoxin
46
Mention the 5 poisonous snake families
Viperidae
Crotalidae
Elapidae
Colubridae
Hydrophidae
47
Presence of species-specific venom of snake can be confirmed by _________
Immunodiffusion
48
When do you give anti-venom serum
When the victim starts showing signs of systemic venom poisoning
49
How do you administer Polyvalent viper-Cobra-Mamba anti-venom serum
Give 50-100ml anti-venom serum in 200-300ml of isotonic saline via infusion in 1hr
N/B: Test dose of 0.2ml s.c or IM should be given first
50
Administering Tetanus toxoid is part of mgt of snake bitten victim, T/F
TRUE
51
A Hydrophidae bitten victim can present with what systemic features
Muscle pain & stiffness, external ophthalmoplegia, Trismus, Myoglobinuria, Proteinuria, renal failure
52
What is Evidence-based medicine
defined as “the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best available evidence in making decisions about the care of the individual patient.” by David Sackett
53
EBM is the integration of _______, ______ & ______
Best research evidence with Clinical expertise and patient value
54
Types of Evidence
1. Disease oriented evidence (DOE)
2. Patient oriented evidence that matters (POEM)
55
The most reliable & acceptable evidence in the hierarchy of evidence is
Level I Randomized controlled trials/Meta-analyses/systematic reviews
56
Case series is in Level II of hierarchy of evidence, T/F
FALSE
Level III
57
Clinical practice guidelines are fixed protocol that must always be followed, T/F
FALSE
There are not fixed protocols that must always be followed but intended for health providers to consider
58
Cohort study is under what level of hierarchy of evidence
Level II
59
Types of Solid state storage (hint: 2)
1. Flash drive
2. Media card
60
Types of optical storage devices
1. Compact disc (CD)
2. Digital versatile disc (DVD)
61
Hard disk drive is an example of Solid storage device, T/F
FALSE
62
Motherboard (MOBO) is a _____ component of a computer
Computation
63
Computer applications in medicine (hint: 12)
64
The conditions that usually affects patients during sports and recreational activities are _______ & _______
orthopedic and medical conditions
65
Pre-participation physical examination provides an opportunity for general health assessment, T/F
TRUE
66
Pre-participation examination consists of both _____ & _____ components
medical and musculoskeletal components
67
The leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes is ________
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
68
Syncope that occurs after exercise is a warning symptom in athlete, T/F
FALSE
Syncope that occur during but not after exercise is of great concern and needs cardiologist assessment
69
List the warning symptoms in athletes
palpitations, chest pain, lightheadedness, dyspnea and fatigue greater than expected for level of activity
70
Echocardiography is recommended for the screening of all athletes, T/F
FALSE
ECG is being recommended for the screening of all athletes
71
ECG is more sensitive than history and physical examination in identifying athletes with underlying cardiovascular disease, T/F
TRUE
72
________ arrhythmias are common in athletes
Bradyarrhythmias caused by increased resting vague tone are common in athletes e.g. sinus bradycardia, sinus arrhythmia, and atrioventricular (AV) block
73
Causes of sudden death in athletes (hint: 5)
1. Structural cardiac abnormalities such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, coronary artery anomalies
2. Commotio Cordis
3. Drugs and stimulants
4. Complete heart block
5. Exertional hyponatremia
74
What is concussion?
A concussion is a traumatically induced transient disturbance in neurological function, usually caused by a direct blow to the head, neck or face that resolves spontaneously
75
Computed tomography or MRI is indicated in concussion, T/F
FALSE
76
What test would aid return-to-play or practice of an asymptomatic concussion athlete
Neuropsychological testing
77
List symptoms of concussion (hint: 6)
loss of consciousness, amnesia, confusion, vision problems, nausea and balance problems
78
Heat stroke is usually associated with ______
Mental status changes
79
Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature at or below 35 centigrade, T/F
FALSE
at or below 32 centigrade
80
What is exercise
Exercise is a planned, coordinated and regular physical activity carried out to improve one or more components of physical fitness
81
Classification of exercise (hint: 3)
1. Aerobic
2. Anaerobic
3. Flexibility
82
A complete exercise session follows the three stages of exercise which are
Warm up
Work out
Cool down
83
What is exercise prescription?
Exercise prescription refers to the specific plan of fitness-related activities that are designed for a specified purpose
84
Define medical screening
It is the systematic application of a test or inquiry to identify individuals at sufficient risk of a specific disorder to benefit from further investigation or direct preventive action
85
Medical screening is usually performed on a person that is apparently in good health, T/F
TRUE
86
What are the types of medical screening?
1. Universal or Mass Screening
2. Selective (High Risk) screening or Case Finding
3. Multiphase Screening
87
WHO Modified Medical Screening Criteria (2008) (hint: 10)
1. Screening programme should respond to a recognized need
2. The objectives of screening should be defined at the onset
3.. There should be a defined target population
4. There should be scientific evidence of screening programme effectiveness
5. The programme should integrate education, testing , clinical services and programme management
6. There should be quality assurance to minimize potential risks of screening
7. The programme should promote equity and access to screening for all involved
8. should ensure informed choice, confidentiality and respect for autonomy
9. evaluation should be planned from onset
10. The overall benefits of screening should outweigh the harm
88
True communication is not possible without _________
perception
89
_________ is the process of forming impressions about something and then making a judgement about this
Perception
90
Our perception and our judgement are affected/influenced by our _______
Senses
91
The components of communication (hint: 5)
Source/sender—origin of message
Receiver—receiver and interpreter
Channel—means of transmission
Message—idea that is communicated
Effects—results
92
Writing is under what type of communication?
Verbal communication
93
When two people talk directly to each other the meaning of the message is derived from 6 things, which are
Spoken word → language
Voice tone → paralanguage
Gesture and expression → body language (voluntary and involuntary)
Dress and grooming → personal appearance eg, overcoat, hairstyle, etc.
Possessions → personal effects, eg pen, stethoscope
Affiliations and activities → context and intent of the behaviour
94
____% of message is conveyed by body language
55%
95
Only 38% of the message is conveyed by Spoken words, T/F
FALSE
Only 20-30%
38% by para language
96
Non verbal signals are largely subconscious, T/F
TRUE
97
_______ gaze is usually below the eye level
Social gaze
98
_______ gaze tends to move below the chin
Intimate gaze
99
The lips smile is deceptive, T/F
TRUE
100
Characteristics of speech (hint: 4)
Tone
Speed
Loudness
Rhythm
101
_____ determines a doctors empathy rating
Patient's response only
102
Interpersonal skills of communication are unconsciously employed, T/F
FALSE
Interpersonal skills are deliberate and consciously employed
103
Interpersonal skills comprise of ________, ________ & _________
understanding, empathy and relational versatility
104
Barriers to effective communication (hint: 5)
Language barrier
Workplace environment
Status and position
Resistance to Change
Emotional reactions
105
Empathy is a visceral response, T/F
FALSE
Empathy is a cerebral response while sympathy is a visceral response
106
The 3 basic functions of medical consultation are
(a) Building relationship
(b) Collecting Data
(c) Agreement on Management Plan
107
The quality of consultation and clinical outcomes depends on effective _________
Communication
108
Define Medical consultation based Prof. Etukumana
defined as a process in which a person who is ill or believes himself/herself to be ill, seeks the advice of a doctor whom he/she trusts, ideally in a consulting room. (Etukumana EA, Uniuyo)
109
Desired Outcomes of Medical Consultation are (hint: 9)
1. Build the doctor-patient relationship
2. Collection of data
3. To agree on management
4. Patient satisfaction
5. Reduced risk of complaints
6. Adherence to treatment program
7. Improved health outcomes
8. Job Satisfaction
9. Increase practice turnover
110
Mention the Models or Approaches of medical consultation (hint: ABC3D2eFGHISPaN)
A- Anthropological/Folk Model by Helman
B- Biopsychosocial Interpretation by Engel G
C1- Consultation Maps Model by David Pendleton
C2- Cambridge-Calgary Model by Silverman Kurtz and Draper
C3- Comprehensive Model of Consultation
D1- Disease-illness Model (Integrated patient centred Clinical Model) by Stewart & Roter
D2- Doctor as treatment Model by Michael Balint
F- Flanagan’s Model
G- Games people play by Eric Berne
H- Health Belief Model by Becker & Maiman
I- inner consultation model by Roger Neighbor
S- Six category intervention analysis by John Heron
P- Patient centred Model by Byrne & long
N- Narrative-based Model( John Launer)
111
Telephone medical consultation is used mostly in emergency, T/F
TRUE
112
List the skills for effective consultation (hint: 6)
1. Welcoming
2. Questions
3. Listening
4. Responding
5. Explanation
6. Closure
113
Define Travel medicine
Travel Medicine seeks to prevent illnesses and injuries occurring to travelers going abroad and also manage problems arising in travellers coming back or coming from abroad
114
The % mortality associated with travelers are
-for Accident/trauma
- for CVS
-for Infectious dx
cardiovascular diseases(50-70%)
accidents/trauma(20-25%)
infectious disease (2.4 – 4%)
115
Travel consultation involves 5 things which are
Risk assessment
Risk reduction
Shared decisions
Consultation should be carried out 4 weeks prior to departure
An opportunity to carry out travel health advice
116
Pre-travel consultation should be carried out ____wks prior to departure
4 weeks
117
Drowning is a common cause of death amongst travelers, T/F
TRUE
118
In ulcer mgt reduced acidity may predispose to _______ disease
Diarrhoeal disease
119
In traveler's diarrhoeal, water contamination is more common than food contamination, T/F
FALSE
Food contamination is more common than water
120
Duration of illness of Traveler's diarrheal is normally ____to____ days
3-5days
